Tuesday, December 15, 2009

328 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 7

31q: Vibrio parahemolyticus is seen in undercooked _______ ?
a. Shell fish
b. ???????
c. ???????
d. ???????

32q: Enlargement of the pituitary tumor after adrenalectomy is called ?
a. Nelson's syndrome
b. ???????????
c. ???????????
d. ???????????

33q: Common cause of death in PDA ?
a. Cardiac failure
b. ?????????
c. ?????????
d. ?????????

34q: Niemann pick disease is due to the deficiency of which of the following enzymes ?
a. Sphingomyelinase
b. aryl sulfatase
c. alpha glucosidase
d. glucocerebrosidase

35q: Uveoparotitis is seen in ?
a. Sarcoidosis
b. ????????
c. ????????
d. ????????

327 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 6

26q: Which of the following is most commonly involved in Takayasu arteritis ?
a. Coeliac axis
b. Coronary arteries
c. Superior mesenteric artery
d. Iliac artery

*Most common arteriographic abnormalities in Takayasu disease - here .

27q: Thrombocytopenia, Eczema and immunodeficiency are seen in which of the following ?
a. Wiskott aldrich syndrome
b. ???????????
c. ???????????
d. ???????????

28q: Marble bone disease is otherwise called ?
a. Osteopetrosis
b. ????????
c. ????????
d. Osteopoikilosis

29q: Nutmeg liver is seen in ?
a. Chronic Venous Congestion of liver (CVC of liver)
b. ???????????
c. ???????????
d. ???????????

30q: Which of the following drugs can cause thyroid dysfunction ?
a. Amiodarone
b. ??????????
c. ??????????
d. ??????????

326 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 5

21q: Cabot's ring in RBC is seen in ?
a. Acquired hemolytic anemia
b. hemochromatosis
c. thalassemia
d. After splenectomy

22q: All are used in brachytherapy except ?
a. Iridium 192
b. Cesium 137
c. Iodine 131
d. Iodine 125

23q: Linear accelerator produces ?
a. X-rays
b. Beta-rays
c. Gamma-rays
d. Alpha rays

24q: Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in ?
a. Rhinoscleroma
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

25q: Siffert katz sign is seen in ?
a. Blount's disease
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

Monday, December 14, 2009

325 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 4

16q: Complete cleft palate is totally separated from ?
a. Maxilla
b. Orbit
c. Vomer
d. None

17q: Which of the following is not a content of adductor canal ?
a. Femoral artery
b. Femoral vein
c. Saphenous nerve
d. Popliteal artery

*Visit this page for a detailed explanation of the relations and contents of Adductor canal.

18q: Weight of the Indian reference man and women are _____ and _______ respectively ?
a. 60 and 55
b. 70 and 50
c. 60 and 50
d. 65 and 55

19q: Karyotype of complete mole is ?
a. 46 XX
b. 69 XX
c. 46 XY
d. 69 XY

20q: Which of the following is the denominator of General Fertility rate ?
a. Mid year female population between 15-44 age
b. ???????
c. ?????????
d. ???????

324 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 3

11q: Degree of freedom in Chi square test of contingency 2x2 is ?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4

Explanation : (c-1) X (r-1) = (2-1)X(2-1) = 1.

12q: Which of the following is an oxytocin antagonist ?
a. Ritodrine
b. Atosiban
c. ???????
d. ???????

13q: Sudden loss of muscle tone after emotional excitement is called ?
a. Cataplexy
b. Catalepsy
c. ??????????
d. ??????????

14q: Child speaks one simple sentence by how many years ?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

15q: PCOD is characterised by ?
a. Insulin resistance
b. hyperandrogenemia
c. Endometrial hyperplasia
d. All the above

323 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 2

6q: Calculate BMI in a man, who weighs 98 kgs and whose height is 175 cms ?
a. 28
b. 32
c. 34
d. 36

Explanation : BMI = Weight (kgs)/ Height X Height (m) = 98/1.75 X 1.75 = 32.

7q: What is the earliest ocular sign in acoustic neuroma ?
a. ptosis
b. diplopia
c. loss of corneal sensation
d. ????????

8q: All are stored as liquid except ?
a. CO2
b. N2O
c. Cyclopropane
d. O2

9q: Councilman bodies are seen in ?
a. Acute Viral hepatitis
b. Heart failure
c. Wilson's disease
d. Cirrhosis

10q: Anaesthesia of choice in child with Cyanotic heart disease ?
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. ??????
d. ??????

322 - DNB CET December 2009 Mcqs with answers part 1

1q: Snow man appearance of heart is seen in ?
a. Tricuspid atresia
c. TOF
d. TGV

2q: Gartner's cyst arises from ?
a. Remnants of the paramesonephric duct
b. Remnants of the mesonephric duct
c. Cervix
d. Vagina

3q: Most common cause of vaginal bleeding in a neonate ?
a. Hormone withdrawal
b. Sarcoma botroides
c. Trauma
d. ????????

4q: Hanging drop preparation is used for ?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Gardnerella vaginalis
c. Candida
d. ????????????

5q: Dying declaration comes under which section ?
a. Section 30
b. Section 32
c. ??????
d. ??????

Wednesday, December 2, 2009

321 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 Mcqs with answers part 9

41q: Which of the following are associated with senile amyloidosis ?
a. Transthyretin
b. Beta amyloid
c. AA amyloid
d. Heart failure is predominant presentation

42q: Most commonly Pancreatic pseudoaneurysm involves which arteries..
a) Gastroduodenal A.
b) Inferior pancreatico-duodenal
c) Gastric arteries
d) Splenic A.
e) Hepatic A.

43q: Kerley B lines are seen in :-
a) Pericardial effusion
b) Pleural effusion
c) Mitral stenosis
d) Interstitial edema
e) Lymphangitic carcinomatosis

44q: Biophysical profle includes..
a) Fetal heart rate acceleration monitoring
b) Fetal breathing movement
c) Fetal body movements
d) Placental examination
e) ????????

45q: Intra epidermal blisters are seen in:-
a) Bullous pemphigoid
b) Pemphigus folliaceous
c) Darrier's disease
d) Epidermolysis
e) ????????

Tuesday, November 24, 2009

320 - PGI Chanigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 8

36q: Which of the following is seen in severe preeclampsia ?
b)severe oedema
d)Diastolic bp mmore than 110
e)Systolic bp more than 150

37q: True about Boerrhave's syndrome ?
a)present with hemoptysis
b)shows transmucosal rupture
c)shows cyanosis & decreased conciousness
d)mucosal repair

38q: Pathognomic pathologial finding in HIV infection?
b)neurofibrillary tangles
c)giant cells
d)lewi bodies

39q: True about senile amyloidosis
b)beta amyloid
c)AA amyloid
d)Heart failure is predominant presentation

40q: which is seen in zygomatic fracture?
a. Swelling cheek
b. Severe malocclusion
c. Epistaxis
d. Infraorbital nerve damage
e. ?????????

Monday, November 23, 2009

319 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 7

31q: True about total fertility rate...
a) It represents total nummber of children born to woman during reproductive period
B) It represent total number of daughters born
c) It represent the completed family size
d) ......??

32q: Granulomatous lesions include
a) Lupus vulgaris
b) Lichen sclerosis
c) Sarcioidosis
d) Kaposi sarcoma

33q: Bronchial breathing is not seen in..
a) Consolidation
b) Bronchopneumonia
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Fibro-cavitary lesion
e) ????????

34q: Which of the following can be used safely in porphyria...
a) Thiopentone
b) Ketamine
c) Methadone
d) Etomidate
e) propofol

35q: Minimum concentration of reduced hemoglobin required for cyanosis is:-
a) 1gm/dl.
b) 3 gm/dl
c) 5 gm/dl
d) 7 gm/dl
e) 9 gm/dl

318 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 6

26q: Intra epidermal blisters are seen in:-
a) bullous pemphigoid
b) Pemphigus folliaceous
c) Darrier's disease
d) Epidermolysis bullosa

27q: A 10 yr. old boy presented with anuria of 12 hours after a bout of diarrhea. What will be included in management:-
a) Slow Dopamine infusion
b) Frusemide
c) Dopamine + Frusemide
d) 0.9 Nacl (20ml/kg)
e) ???????

28q: basic aminoacids are
b. Methionine
c. Tryptophan

29q: A patient presented with hemoptysis and periorbital swelling. He had microscopic hematuria too. what should be included in the investigations:-
a) CT Chest
b) CXR
c) ANA
e) 24 hour protein estimation

30q: Enzyme markers elevated in teratoma include:-
a) AFP
c) Ca 19
d) HCG
e) ????????

317 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 5

21q: Polycystic kidney is seen on IVP as..
a) Flower vase appearance
b) Falling flower appearnce
c) Spider leg apperance
d) Egg in the cup appearance..

22q: A lady presented to you with a history of early pregnancy loss. What are the investigations to be ordered..??
a) Blood sugar
b) Rubella screening
d) Blood grouping
e) toxoplasma serology

23q: quickening in pregnancy is seen during which weeks?

24q: Adverse effects of Dapsone are:-
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Hepatitis
d) Neuropathy
e) Methemoglobinemia

25q: Biophysical profle includes..
a) Fetal heart rate acceleration monitoring
b) Fetal breathing movement
c) Fetal body movements
d) Placental examination
e) ......??

316 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 4

16q: Aids defining illness include all of the following except:-
a) Persisten generalised lymphadenopathy
b) Oropharyngeal candidiasis
c) Primary CNS lymphoma
d) Cryptococcosis
e) CMV retinitis

17q: Massive PPH may warrant following interventions except ?
a) Hysterectomy
b) Thermal Endometrial ablation
c) Internal iliac A. ligation
d) Balloon tamponade
e) Lynch suture

18q: Snowman appearance on CXr is seen in..
b) TGA
c) PDA
d) Ebsteins anomaly

19q: Kerley B lines are seen in :-
a) Pericardial effusion
b) Pleural effusion
c) Mitral stenosis
d) Interstitial edema
e) Lymphangitic carcinomatosis

20q: Which of the following act as antioxidants:-
a) Vit. D
b) Vit C
c) selenium
d) glutathione
e) Vit. A

315 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 3

11q: Which of the following enzymes are in active form in dephosphorylated state:-
a) HMG Co A reductase
b) Glycogen phosphorylase
c) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
d) Citrate lyase
e) Glycogen synthase

12q: A patient presented to emergency with acute chest pain, with dyspnea and low BP ( 84/56).. What should be included in immediate investigations
a) Contrast angiography
b) ECG
c) ABG
d) Hemogram
e) CT scan

13q: Egg on side appearance is seen in:-
a) Transposition of great vessels
c) TOF
d) Ebstein's anomaly
e) Tricuspid atresia

14q: Which of the following are used to protect airways :-
a) LMA
b) Endotracheal tube
c) Facemask
d) Combitube

15q: Most commonly Pancreatic pseudoaneurysm involves which arteries..
a) Gastroduodenal A.
b) Inferior pancreatico-duodenal
c) Gastric arteries
d) Splenic A.
e) Hepatic A.

314 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 2

6q: Which of the following can cause First dose syncope:-
a) Alpha blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) ACE inhibitors
d) Aldosterone agonists
e) ???????

7q: Which of the following does not cause Corneal neovascularisation...?
a) Soft contact lens use
b) Viral keratitis
c) Graft rejection
d) Chemical burn
e) vitreal surgery

8q: Which of the following is not true about Rheumatoid arthritis
a) Disease is limited to articular cartilage
b) Associated with HLA DR4 and DQ4..
c) Rheumatoid nodules are seen in 20% patients
d) Women are affected 3 times more than Men...
e)RF is a must for diagnosis

9q: Diffuse specific lesions on intestinal biopsy are seen in
a) Celiac sprue
b) Whipples disease
c) Agammaglobulinemia
d) Abetalipoproteinemai
e) Tropical sprue

10q: Natural method of genetic material exchange among bacteria include :-
a) Electroporation
b) Transduction
c) Transformation
d) Conjugation
e) Mutation

313 - PGI Chandigarh November 2009 MCQs with answers - part 1

1q: Drugs causing Acute Tubular Necrosis are :
b) Amphotericin B
c) Rifampicin
e) Aminoglycosides.

2q: N. gonococci infection is Associated with deficiency of which of the following,....
a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) C8
e) C9

3q: Which of the following drugs can cause Nephrotic syndrome...'
a) Inteferon alpha.
b) Gold
c) Mercury

4q: A person can be called as Major at what age, according to "Indian.... Act"
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 25
e) 12

5q: Which arteries supply Pectoral Major muscle:-
a) Pectoral branch of Thoraco- acromial
b) Intercostal
c) Lateral thoracic
d) Subclavin A.
e) Internal Mammary A.

312 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with answers - part 27

131. A patient presents to the hospital with increased bilirubin in the blood. Direct bilirubin was observed to be 50%. Liver function tests were found to be normal. What is the diagnosis ?
a. Sepsis
b. Rotor syndrome
c. Gilbert syndrome
d. Hereditary glucuronyl transferase deficiency

132. Which of the following is true about branchial arch derivatives ?
a. Branchial sinus is most commonly derived from second arch
b. Branchial cyst is more common than branchial sinus
c. Surgical excision of branchial sinus is not always indicated
d. ?????????????

133.All of the following indicate Effective leprosy control programmes except ?
a. High new case detection rate
b. Increased children affected
c. Decreased disability
d. ????????????

134. Caustic poisons corrose mucosa because ?
a. It is hygroscopic
b. It has glue like action
c. It is programmed to stick
d. It has high affinity for mucosa

135. All of the following are true about growth charts except ?
a. Tool for educating mothers
b. Position of dots more important than direction
c. Area between top 2 lines shows ROAD TO HEALTH
d. Lower most line shows children below third percentile

Sunday, November 22, 2009

311 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 26

126: Best sample for the diagnosis of whooping cough?
a. Endotracheal aspirate
b. Cough plate culture
c. Nasopharyngeal swab
d. blood

127. full thickness graft can obtained from all of the following EXCEPT
a) elbows
b) supraclaviclular area
c) groin
d) axilla

128. Voriconazole is used in all the following EXCEPT
a) aspergillosis
b) candidiasis
c) mucormycosis
d) ??????????

129. A child is suffering with chronic diarrhea for last one year. Stool sample reveal ova of 100 microns size. All are differentials except
a) G. discoides
c) ophisthorcis viverrani
d) ???????????

130. left phrenic nerve runs?
a. ant to scalneus ant
b. post to brachial plexus.
c. ant to hilum
d. posterior to hilum of lung

Monday, November 16, 2009

310 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 25

121q: True about Burkitt's Leukaemia
1. CD 34 and Surface Ig both positive
2. CD 34 negative but surface Ig positive
3. CD 34 positive but Surface Ig negative
4. CD 34 and Surface Ig both negative

122q: Type of anaemia caused by Ileocaecal TB:
1. Iron - deficiency anemia
2. Megaloblastic anemia
3. sideroblastic anemia
4. Normocytic Normochromic anemia

123q: NOT a high risk factor for Cholangiocarcinoma :
1. Parasitic infestation
2. Ulcerative Colitis
3. Chronic typhoid carriers
4. Choledocholithiasis

124q: ACE inhibitor which is NOT a prodrug:
1. Fosinopril
2. Enalapril
3. ?????????
4. Lisinopril

125q: NOT a common cause of Vasculitis in adults:
1. Giant Cell Arteritis
2. PAN
3. Kawasaki disease
4. HSP

309 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 24

116q: Prolactin causes ?
a. High FSH
b. Elevated estradiol
c. Elevated testosterone
d. ????????????

117q: A baby with 46 XX presents with normal external genitalia of male. Which of the following is not among the differential diagnosis of this condition?
a. Aromatase deficiency
b. Mother has adrenal tumor
c. Anti mullerian hormone deficiency
d. ???????????????

118q: OCP fails when used with all except ?
a. Aspirin
b. Tetracyclines
c. Phenytoin
d. Rifampicin

119q: Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in ?
a. Kimura disease
b. Kikuchi's disease
c. Hodgkin's disease
d. ???????????

120q: Premature baby 1.5kg born at 32 by emergency C.S. now develops respiratory distress with grunting. Best management:
1. Moist Oxygen through headbox
2. Mechanical ventilation
3. C-PAP
4. Surfactant therapy plus mechanical ventilation

308 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 23

111q: Rib notching is seen in all except?
a. After Blalock-Tausig shunt
b. After Waterston's shunt
c. Pulmonary atresia with VSD
d. ????????????????

112q: Which of the following is associated with more than 20% risk of chromosomal anomalies?
a. omphalocele
b. gastroschisis
c. cleft palate
d. spina bifida

113q: Recall bias is most commonly seen with ?
a. Case control study
b. Cohort study
c. Cross sectional study
d. Randomized control study

114q: Deep peroneal nerve supplies?
a. First web space
b. Fifth web space
c. Anterolateral leg
d. Anterolateral foot

115q: Tocolytic of choice for heart disease in pregnancy?
a. Nifedipine
b. MgSO4
c. Atosiban
d. ???????

307 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 22

106q: Third nerve palsy with normal pupillary reaction is seen in?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Trauma
c. ??????
d. ??????

107q: Headache with bitemporal hemianopia with 6/6 vision is seen in ?
a. Bilateral cavernous lesions
b. Chiasmal lesions
c. Trauma
d. ???????

108q: Which of the following is not felt on per rectal examination of a male?
a. Ureter
b. Bulb of penis
c. Prostate
d. Anorectal ring

109q: Injury to head of fibula, all are involved except:
a. common peroneal N
b. superficial peroneal n.
c. anterior tibial n.
d. tibial n.

110q: Sudden thunderclap headache with unconsciousness is seen in a patient. Examination shows Ipsilateral, dilated pupil. What is the diagnosis?
a. Acute ischemia of midbrain
b. Acute aneurysmal hemorrhage
c. Meningitis
d. Tubercular lesion

306 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 21

101q: Treatment of choice in Condyloma acuminatum in pregnancy?
a. Podophyllotoxin
b. Cryotherapy
c. Imiqimod
d. Salicylic acid and lactic acid solution

102q: Which of the following is true in asthma ?
a. Increased FRC and Increased RV
b. Decreased FRC and Decreased RV
c. Increased FRC and Decreased RV
d. Decreased FRC and Increased RV

103q: Which of the following is not a personality trait ?
a. Sensation seeking
b. Neuroticism
c. Pleasure seeking
d. Problem solving

104q: Nitrates are not used in which of the following?
a. Oesophageal spasm
b. Renal colic
c. CHF
d. Cyanide poisoning

105q: Drug not used in Congestive Heart Failure ?
a. Nitrates
b. Spironolactone
c. Nesiritide
d. Trimetazidine

305 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 20

96q: Which of the following is located most medially in the femoral triangle?
a. Vein
b. Artery
c. Nerve
d. Lymphatics

97q: Which of the following is not a feature of pseudogout?
a. Small joints affected
b. Large joints affected
c. Chondrocalcinosis
d. Deposition of Calcium pyrophosphate

98q: A girl presents with pain in the legs. She also complains of recurrent vomiting and headache. What is the diagnosis?
a. Somatoform pain disorder
b. Conversion disorder
c. Somatization disorder
d. ???????????

99q: Which of the following is the best marker for Dyslipidemia?
a. Triglycerides and cholesterol ratio
b. LDL/HDL ratio
c. LDL/Cholesterol ratio
d. APO A1

100q: Defective DNA repair is associated with ?
a. Albinism
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. ??????????

304 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 19

91q: All of the following use cAMP as second messenger except?
a. Corticotropin
b. Vasopressin
c. Dopamine
d. Glucagon

92q: A patient presents with blunt injury to the abdomen. He is hemodynamically stable. What is the investigation of choice?
a. DPL
c. CT
d. ???????

93q: Aniridia is associated with which of the following tumors?
a. Medulloblastoma
b. Nephroblastoma
c. Hepatoblastoma
d. ???????????

94q: All are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome except?
a. Microcephaly
b. Overgrowth
c. flat face
d. ???????????

95q: Infant of a diabetic mother presents with seizures after 17 hours. What is the probable cause?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. hypocalcemia
c. Hypomagensemia
d. ???????????

303 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 18

86q: Which of the following is false about p53?
a. Present on chromsome 17
b. Arrests cell cycle in G1 phase
c. Produces a protein of weigh 53 Kilodaltons
d. Non mutated wild p53 is associated with neoplasms of childhood

87q: Erythromycin is beneficial to patients with intestinal hypomotility because?
a. It reduces the bacterial load
b. It increases the bacterial load
c. It binds with the motilin receptors
d. It binds with Vasoactive Intestinal Polypeptide

88q: Zinc is a cofactor for ?
a. Alcoholic dehydrogenase
b. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. Pyruvate decaroboxylase
d. Alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase

89q: A 67 year old smoker, presents with hemoptysis and cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy shows a less differentiated tumor. Immunohistochemical marker useful will be?
a. Cytokeratin
b. Vimentin
c. Caltretin
d. ???????????

90q: Nephrotoxicity is seen with?
a. Azathioprine
b. Tacrolimus
c. Mycophenolate mofetil
d. Leflunomide

302 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 17

81q: What is the characteristic feature seen in wegener's glomerulonephritis ?
a. Granulomas in the vessel wall
b. Focal necrotizing glomerulo sclerosis
c. ????????????
d. ????????????

82q: A male presents to the infertility clinic with azoospermia. His testes is normal and the FSH and Testosterone are in the normal range. What is the probable cause?
a. Testicular failure
b. Vas obstruction
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. Kallman's syndrome

83q: TNF ALPHA should not be used in ?
a. RA + HIV
b. RA + TB
c. RA + Crohn's disease
d. ????????

84q: Pain in early labour is limited to which of the following dermatomes ?
a. T11, T12
b. L1, L2
c. L3, L4
d. S1, S2

85q: Uterine blood flow at term is ?
a. 100-200 ml/min
b. 200-400 ml/min
c. 300-500 ml/min
d. 550-750 ml/min

*Refer this page in google books .

301 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 16

76q: A school teacher slapped a student, due to which the student suffered 25% of hearing loss. This hearing loss was completely corrected by surgery. What kind of an injury is this?
a. Serious injury
b. Dangerous injury
c. Greivous injury
d. Simple injury

77q: The most appropriate CD marker for Gastrointestinal Stromal tumor (GIST)?
a. CD 117
b. ?????????
c. ??????
d. ????????

78q: The most common sequelae to periventricular leukomalacia is?
a. Spastic diplegia
b. Spastic quadriplegia
c. ???????????
d. ???????????

79q: Which of the following is false about Japanese encephalitis?
a. Culex mosquitoes acts as vectors
b. These mosquitoes breed in high head water tanks
c. Pigs act as amplifiers of flaviviruses
d. ???????????????????????

80q: All are true about Campylobacter except?
a. Humans are the only reservoirs
b. Source of infection is poultry
c. ?????????????????
d. ?????????????????

300 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 15

71q: A person has restricted eye movements in all direction and ptosis but no squint or diplopia. What could be the probable diagnosis?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Thyroid myopathy
d. Multiple cranial nerve palsies

72q: A patient was diagnosed with Kostmann syndrome. What is the treatment?
a. Anti-thymocyte globulin + cyclosporin
b. Anti-thymocyte globulin + cyclosporin + GM-CSF
c. G-CSF

*Congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome) is a disease with mutations in the granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) receptor and, often, neutrophil elastase that may evolve into AML.

73q: NARP syndrome is ?
a. A glycogen storage disorder
b. A lipid storage disorder
c. A lysosomal storage disorder
d. Mitochondrial disorder

*The syndrome of Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa (NARP)is clinically heterogenous, but it is often characterised by a combination of sensory-motor neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia and night blindness.
*A maternally inherited condition, the NARP syndrome is associated with a mutation in the mitochondrial DNA(mtDNA) gene, MTATP6, coding for the subunit ATPase6.

74q: All are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:
a. Sitamaquine
b. Paromomycin
c. Hydroxychloroquine
d. miltefosine

75q: Stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all except
a. Cruciate ligaments
b. Collateral ligaments
c. Tendons of muscles passing the joint
d. close apposition of bones

299 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 14

66q: Which of the following cancers are associated with LYNCH syndrome?
a. Breast, ovarian and endometrial cancers
b. Colon, ovarian and endometrial cancers
c. Breast, colon and ovarian cancers
d. Endometrial, breast and colon cancers

*Refer page 607, bottom left last paragraph - Harrison's 17th edition.

67. Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies are seen in ?
a. Good pasture syndrome
b. PAN
c. Kawasaki disease
d. Wegener's granulomatosis

*p-ANCA is seen in Microscopic polyangitis, Churg strauss syndrome, Good pasture syndrome and Cresentric glomerulonephritis.
*c-ANCA is seen in Wegener's granulomatosis.

68q: Which of the following statement is true regarding Phenytoin ?
a. It follows zero order kinetics
b. It is excreted unchanged in urine
c. It is not teratogenic
d. ????????

*Drugs which follow zero order kinetics are Theophylline, Warfarin, Salicylates (high doses), Tolbutamide, Ethanol(except low blood levels)and Phenytoin (high doses).

69q: During valsalva maneuvre, murmurs of all of the following are reduced except?
b. ???????
c. ???????
d. ???????

70q: A 15 year old boy dies suddenly playing in the field. Probable diagnosis ?
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Obstructive cardiomyopathy
d. arrythmogenic heart disease

298 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 13

61q: Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs are disposed by?
a. Autoclaving
b. deep burial
c. Wait for 1 year and then bury
d. ????????

62q: When is heparing introduced in a pregnant woman with heart disease?
a. At 32 weeks
b. At 36 weeks
c. At 40 weeks
d. During labour

*Warfarin can be used upto 36 weeks of gestation.

63q: Cyclo-oxygenase 2 (COX-2) inhibits which of the following?
a. Cell adhesion
b. Cell proliferation
c. Cell migration
d. Cell differentiation

64q: Which of the following statements is false?
a. Chemoluminiscence is the production of light by the movement of electrons from higher energy level to lower energy level
b. Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms
c. Electrochemoluminiscene is ?????????????
d. Phoshporoscence is the production of light by absorbing light from other source

65q: Which of the following is false regarding flumazenil ?
a. It is a specific antagonist of Benzodiazepines
b. It can also be used in barbiturate overdose
c. ?????????????
d. ?????????????

297 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 12

56q: Which of the following is a false statement?
a. Superior thyroid artery is a branch of the external carotid artery
b. Parathyroid artery is a posterior branch of the superior thyroid artery
c. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of Thyrocervical trunk
d. Thyroidea ima arteries invariably arise from the aorta

*The thyroidea ima ascends in front of the trachea to the lower part of the thyroid gland, which it supplies.
*It varies greatly in size, and appears to compensate for deficiency or absence of one of the other thyroid vessels. The thyroidea ima artery, when present, arises from the brachiocephalic trunk (innominate artery).
*It occasionally arises from the aorta, the right common carotid, the subclavian or the internal thoracic artery.

57q: ONODI cells and HALLER cells are seen in relation to which of the following respectively?
a. Optic canal and medial roof of maxillary sinus
b. Optic canal and ethmoid sinus
c. ??????????????
d. ?????????????

58q: Most common tumor of the eyelid?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Lacrimal gland tumor
d. Malignant melanoma

59q: Substance P is present in which of the following in peripheral tissues?
a. Vascular endothelium
b. Mast cells
c. Nerve terminals
d. Plasma

60q: Which of the following is not seen in Dermatomyositis?

a. Gottron's papules
b. Periungual telangiectasia
c. Salmon rash
d. Mechanic's hand

296 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 11

51q: Vitamin deficiency that leads to the occurence of seizures is ?
a. Pyridoxine
b. Thiamine
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin C

52q: Which of the following is not used in clinical practice now-a-days?
a. Cesium
b. Iridium
c. Radium
d. Cobalt

53q: Investigation of choice for vascular ring leading to obstructed airway?
a. Catheter angiography
b. CT
c. MRI
d. PET

54q: Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for?
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma T3N1
b. Supraglottic carcinoma T3N0
c. Glottic carcinoma T3N1
d. Subglottic cancer T3N0

55q: True about BUSPIRONE ?
a. Relieves anxiety
b. Sedation
c. Induction of sleep
d. ??????????

295 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 10

46q: When in labor, a diagnosis of Occipito-Posterior presentation is made. What is the most appropriate management in this case? (AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat)
a. Emergency Caesarean section
b. Wait and watch for the progress of labour
c. Early rupture of membranes
d. Start oxytocin drip

47q: All of the following are B cell markers except ?
a. CD 19
b. CD 20
c. CD 10
d. CD 117

48q: Acoustic neuroma arises from?
a. Superior vestibular division of the VIII nerve
b. Inferior vestibular division of the VIII nerve
c. Cochlear division of the VIII nerve
d. None

49q: Best investigation for Radiation induced necrosis of brain?
a. MRI
b. CT
c. PET scan
d. ???????

50q: Malignant risk is seen in all except ?
a. Peutz jegher syndrome
b. Juvenile polyposis syndrome
c. Juvenile polyps
d. ???????????

294 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 9

41q: Fallopian tube dysmotility is seen in ? (AIIMS repeat)
a. Kartagener's syndrome
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

42q: Stimulation of which of the following nerves elevates the mood?
a. Optic nerve
b. Olfactory nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Vagus

43q: Call-exner bodies are seen in ? (AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat).
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Endodermal sinus tumor
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Dysgerminoma

44q: A 10 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea, absent breasts and malformed uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat)
a. MRKH syndrome
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
d. Swyer's syndrome

45q: A 35 year old presents with post-coital bleeding. What is the next step :
a. Clinical examination and pap smear
b. Visual inspection and acetowhite
c. Visual inspection with lugol's iodine
d. ???????

293 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 8

36q: Blow out fracture of the orbit most commonly involves which of the following?
a. roof
b. posterior wall of the floor of orbit
c. medial wall
d. lateral wall

37q: Most useful investigation in suspected ectopic pregnancy is ?(AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat)
a. TVS sonography
b. Culdocentesis
c. HCG levels estimation
d. ????????

38q: A 10 year old boy with boggy swelling of the scalp, with discharging sinuses presents to the doctor. Hair is easily pluckable and lymphnodes are involved in the occipital region. Which of the following tests is useful in making the diagnosis?
a. KOH preparation
b. culture
c. Biopsy
d. ??????

39. What are the receptors that help in the transport of glucose into the myocyte?
a. GLUT-1
b. GLUT-2
c. GLUT-3
d. GLUT-4

40.Progesterone used in emergency contraception ?
a. Norgesterone
b. Micronised Progesterone
c. Levonorgesterol

292 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 7

31q: Which of the following structures does not run deep to the flexor retinaculum?
a. Median nerve
b. Flexor digitorum superficialis
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
d. Ulnar nerve

32q: HPV vaccine is a?
a. Monovalent vaccine
b. Bivalent vaccine
c. Quadrivalent vaccine
d. Both bivalent and quadrivalent vaccine

*About one week after the FDA approved the bivalent human papillomavirus vaccine for use in girls and women ages 10 to 25 years, the CDC’s Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices recommended the product to prevent cervical cancer in these women.
*The committee recommended vaccination with either the new bivalent vaccine (Cervarix, GlaxoSmithKline) or the existing quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil, Merck), despite some discussion about the differences between the two vaccines.
*The quadrivalent vaccine is indicated to prevent the types of HPV associated with genital warts, types 6 and 11, whereas the bivalent vaccine is indicated to prevent HPV types 16 and 18.
*Above information taken from here :

33q:Hirschsprung's disease is due to?
a. loss of ganglion cells in sympathetic chain
b. failure of migration of neural crest cells from cranial to caudal direction
c. loss of anerior longitudinal cells
d. None

34q: Hatters shake tremors are due to ?
a. Aresnic
b. Lead
c. Mercury
d. Chromium

35q: A patient with non-united fracture of the lower 1/4 th of tibia, presents with multiple discharging sinuses, puckered scar. What is the management?
a. Ilizarov's fixator
b. External fixator
c. Nailing
d. Plating

291 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 6

26q: Lesion of the central spinal cord causes dissociative sensory loss due to involvement of
which of the following?
a. Dorsal column
b. Anterior tracts
c. Decussating fibers of Lateral spinothalamic tracts
d. Ciliospinal tract

27q: A case was given in which MIL-WHEEL MURMUR was a finding. What is the diagnosis?
a. Air embolism
b. ????????
c. ????????
d. ????????

28q: Carisoprodol is a metabolite of?
a. Meprobamate
b. ??????????
c. ??????????
d. ??????????

*Carisoprodol was developed on the basis of meprobamate, in the hope that it would have better muscle relaxing properties, less potential for abuse, and less risk of overdose than meprobamate.
*More information about carisoprodol :

29q: Categorisation of a non-vigorous baby in the process of resusciation during meconium stained liquor, included all except ?
a. Colour
b. Tone
c. Heart rate
d. Respirations

30q: Clue cells are found in ?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Candidal vaginitis
d. none

290 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 5

21q: Hyperkalemia without ECG changes is treated with all except ?
a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Insulin with dextrose
d. Salbutamol

22q: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is associated with:-
a)Hypokalemic alkalosis
b)hyperkalemic alkalosis
c)hypokalemic acidosis
d)hyperkalemic acidosis

23q: Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy?
a. Rabies
b. MMR
c. Hepatitis B
d. Diptheria

*Live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy.
*List of live attenuated and killed vaccines is here :

24q: A patient who had a previous LSCS comes now in labour. Hematuria is observed. What is ur diagnosis?
a. scar rupture
b. Urethral trauma
c. cystitis
d. ???????

25q: Low serum haptoglobulin in hemolysis is masked by?
a. Pregnancy
b. Liver disease
c. Bile duct obstruction
d. ???????

289 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 4

16q: First local anaesthetic to be clinically used?
a. Cocaine
b. Procaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Bupivacaine

17q: Semen stains on clothes are identified by?
a. Infrared
b. UV light
c. Spectrometry
d. Lens

18q: Lipid detection in a frozen section sample is done with ?
a. Per iodic acid shiff
b. Mucicarmine
c. Masson's Trichrome stain
d. Oil Red O stain

19q: A drug addict with vegetations on the tricuspid valve, the most common causative organism is?
a. Klebsiella
b. Staph. aureus
c. Pseudomonas
d. E.Coli

20q: Recall bias is most commonly associated with which type of study?
a. Case control study
b. Cohort study
c. Cross sectional study
d. ??????

288 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 3

11q: The gene for HLA is located on ?
a. Short arm of chromosome 6
b. Short arm of chromosome 3
c. Long arm of chromosome 6
d. Long arm of chromosome 3

12q: What does 'C' in C-Reactive protein stand for?
a. C polysaccaride of pneumococcus
b. That comes after ARP, BRP
c. Connovalin-A
d. Cellular

*C-reactive protein was originally discovered by Tillett and Francis in 1930 as a substance in the serum of patients with acute inflammation that reacted with the C polysaccharide of pneumococcus. Initially it was thought that CRP might be a pathogenic secretion as it was elevated in people with a variety of illnesses including cancer, however discovery of hepatic synthesis demonstrated that it is a native protein.

13q: Nobel prize in physiology or medicine was recently awarded for the discovery of?
a. Lipoxin
b. RNA i
c. ?????
d. ?????

*Nobel prize winners in physiology or medicine for 2008.
*Nobel prize winners in physiology or medicine for 2009.

14q: Which of the following is a poor prognostic finding of Acute lymphoblastic leukemia?(AIIMS Repeat)
a. TLC 4000-10000
b. Involvement of gonads
c. Age less than 2 years
d. ?????????

15q: Sclera is thinnest at? (AIIMS MAY 2009 repeat)
a. Limbus
b. Equator
c. Anterior to attachment of superior rectus
d. Posterior to attachment of superior rectus

Sunday, November 15, 2009

287 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 2

6q: Section 377 IPC is associated with ?
a. Rape
b. Adultery
c. Unnatural offences
d. Greivous hurt

*For important IPC sections frequently asked in exams, GO TO THIS PAGE:

7q: Which of the following are permanent, stable and almost unchanging but can change under circumstances?
a. Cultural beliefs
b. Practice
c. Opinion
d. Attitude

8q: In a population of 10000 people, 20% of them were found to have disease. A screening test employed here had a sensitivity of 90 and specificity of 85. What is the positive predicitive value ?
a. 54.3 %
b. 98.5%
c. 14.3%
d. 75%

9q: A young female presented with intermittent ptosis and proximal weakness of muscles. She complains of fatigue. Examination reveals no other abnormality. What is the probable diagnosis ?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

10q: Which of the following if false about Cl.perfringens ?
a. It is the most common cause of gas gangrene
b. The most important virulence factor is hyaluronidase
c. Nagler's reaction helps in identifying it
d. This was the false statement

286 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2009 MCQS with Answers - part 1

1q: Urothelium lines all except ? (May09 AIIMS repeat)

a. Ureters
b. Major calyx
c. Urinary bladder
d. Membranous urethra

2q: Vaginal sphincter is formed by all except ? (May09 AIIMS repeat)
a. Internal urethral sphincter
b. External urethral sphincter
c. Pubovaginalis
d. Bulbospongiosus

3q: Maximum secretions of potassium ions is seen in ?(May09 AIIMS repeat with different  options)
a. Pacreatic juice
b. bile
c. colon secretions
d. ileal secretions

4q: A man working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odour in breath and transverse lines on nails. Most likely the person is having? (May 09 AIIMS repeat)
a. Arsenic poisoning
b. Lead poisoning
c. Mercury poisoning
d. Cadmium poisoning

5q: Antemortem and postmortem wounds could be differentiated by all except ? (May 09 AIIMS repeat with different options)
a. Sharp edges
b. Formation of pus
c. Red line formation
d. Inflammatory base

Thursday, October 15, 2009

285 - AIPGE 2009 questions and answers part 3

201. mammography can detect all except – adenosis

202. Athletes pubalgia is\

203. SIRS includes all except

204. substance not fermented in human intestines – cellulose, pectin, fruit

205. Hb S differs in – solubility, o2 affinity, stability

206. all are true regarding Hb S except – glutamine replaced by valine, heterozygotes are protected against malaria,

207. Standing to sitting change in - increased venous return to heart

208. Actyl Co A can't directly form – Glucose

209. Dengue Hemorrhagic fever - Second Infection with different strain of virus the second time

210. 100 KD on SDS-PAGE, then second trial – 2x(20KD + 30KD)

211. Wilm's Tumor - National Wilm tumor staging system

212. Action potential starts in the initial segment of axon because – unmyelinated, less exiting potential required, more ion channels

213. regulatory mechanisms by all except – secretory vesicles, gap junctions, act on neighbouring cells

214. regarding lac operon, CAP is – positive regulator, negative regulator,

215. E157:O7 culture

216. not a cause of primary amenorrhoea - Sheehan

217. Chlamydia infection of the eyes, true statement a/e – can be cultured, penicillin is the treatment, mostly asymptomoatic

218. Salmonella non typhi -

219. edema – C 1 esterase deficiency

220. hyperaldosteronism a/e – metabolic acidosis

221. HepB infected neonate - both Vaccine and Immunoglobin

222. Hashimoto's thyroiditis true a/e – follicular destruction, increase in lymphocytes

223. Diastolic pressure - Aorta elasticity

224. IMG –

225. Joint aspiration in acute gout shows - monosodium urate crystals

226. GIST most common marker – CD 117, S 100

227. all drugs can be given to a mother who is on 35th week of gestation except – chloroquine, methotrexate, sulphadiazine

228. neonate change seen – bradycardia

229. heat rupture – regular rupture, irregular rupture

230. won't be present in right heart failure - increased PCWP

231. - joule burn

232. parotid pathway all except – auticulotemporal nerve

233. sodium bicarbonate given to local Anaesthesia – quick and longer action, delayed and longer action

234. which prevents colon cancer – high fibre diet, selenium, antioxidants

235. Entero Virus won't cause – aseptic meningitis, pleurodynia, herpangina, haemorrhagic fever

236. meningitis leads to vestibulitis through – hyrtle fissure, endolymphatic sac, cochlear aqueduct, vestibular aqueduct

237. cardiac disease predictor – Lp a, homocysteine, chlamydial antibody

238. Benign HTN - hyaline aterioscelerosis

239. micro RNA –

240. temporal arteritis a/e – can cause sudden blindness, elderly, females more than males

241. most common muscle to be congenitally absent – pectoralis major, teres minor, gastrocnemius, soleus

242. popliteal artery not easy to palpate because – it is not superficial, and no bony structure to palpate

243. LHD increased in – retinoblastoma, galactosemia, glaucoma

244. intestinal absorption test – xylulose, fat in stools

245. lambda phage

246. mc cause of superficial thrombophlebitis - trauma, infection, i.v. line

247. pseudoclaudication - cauda equina syndrome

248. stellate ganglion block causes all except – bradycardia

249. lymphoid tissue seen in – lamina propria, adventitia

250. visual cycle – opsin combines with retinol, NADP is reduced, NAD is reduced

251. high tibial osteotomy for what

252. vocal cord sulci- vocal abuse?

253. paneth cell – has more zinc, more lysozyme

254. pulmonary artery pruning seen in

255. surgical staging of ovarian ca all done except – peritoneal wasing, peritoneal biopsy, mesenteric biopsy, palpation of organs

256. spongy urethra drainage into which node – internal iliac, superficial inguinal, deep inguinal

257. In which condition is d onset of condition to death the lowest – post partum hmge, antepartum hmge, obstructed labour, septicaemia

258. About mesial temporal lobe epilepsy

259. angiogenesis requires a/e – VEGF, FGF, TGF

260. weight of average Indian man – 60 kgs

261. synovial fluid characteristics –

262. functions of T helper cells are all except – cytotoxic, help in antibody formation, opsonisation

263. DMPA - 0.3% failure rate, less effective than OCP in reducing endometrial carcinoma

264. tamoxifen side effect – thromboembolism, endometrial canrcinoma

265. eclampsia –

266. fatty content in breast is found in a/e – trauma, galactocele

267. ageing – free radical

268. thoracic outlet syndrome diagnosed by – clinical examination, ct scan, mri

269. apoptosis which cell organelle responsible – mitochondria

270. psammoma bodies seen in a/e – follicular cancer thyroid, papillary cancer thyroid, serous cyst adenoma ovary, meningioma

271. the most bactericidal among the following – O2- metabolite

272. karyotyping used for – chromosomal abnormalities

273. central chemoreceptors are sensitive to – low O2, low CO2, high CO2, H+ concentration

274. blood flow is increased during exercise due to – active metabo275 hcv -true is dna virus,doesn't cause coinfection with hbv,??

276 igc angiography -occult cnv (ans)

277 scar on skin +hypoplasia limbs-cong varicella synd(harrison)

278 heriditary hemochromatosis true excpt-iron def

279 post tonsilectomy bleed in a child coagulatn defct ,aptt incrased-hemophilia b

280 clot stabilisation factor-13

281 idc classification??

282 similar

283 hiv complicationsall excpt-cardiac tamponade,effusion,thromboemb(ans harrison),

284 conjunti foreign body sensation with arthritis h/o trip -reiters synd

285 neuroblastoma true is a/e??spreads through vessels,abdominal mass??

286 one more question with ideas289 dose reduction needed in renal failure all except-rifampicin

290 thyroid ca indicated by all excpt-collumnar cells in follicles,microcalcification,??

291 rooooming in includes all except-breast feeding initiation after 4 hrs of vag delivery
292. one on LACHMAN TEST

293. what is not a primary req of association--biological plausibility, tempral association, consistency, coherence

294. c wave in JVP

295. All true for angioneurotic edema except pittin in nature

296. all are effects of estrogen except dec HDL

297. Moderate grade risk factor of Breast carcinoma- atypical hyperplasia

298. one on Genomic imprinting

299. Colon carcinoma single most imp prognostic factor

300. congenital deformity of organ- malformation

301. oxidation reduction occurs with all except- Hydroperoxidases, perosidases, oxidases

302. Folic def all except- Chloroquine

303. Most reliable diagnostic test for insulinoma-72 hr fasting test.

304.vaginal delivery is contraindicated in-monochorionic monoamniotic twins,mento anterior position..

284 - AIPGE 2009 questions with answers part 2

101. tuberous sclerosis triad – facial angiomatosis, mental retardation, seizures, rhabdomyosarcoma

102. the following species of borrelia cause relapsing fever except –

103. pancreatic carcinoma a/e – 75% associated with p53 mutation, 5 year survival for stage 3 is 10-15%

104. gold standard test to diagnose insulinoma – c peptide levels, 72 hrs fasting glucose, glucose value < 32mg%

105. a 9 year old girl posted for tonsillectomy, massive haemorrhage with prolonged aPTT and normal PT – factor 8 def, factor 9 def, vWF def

106. simple random sampling – everyone has equal chance of being picked

107. incidence rate can be calculated from – prospective studies

108. all are analytical studies except – field trials, case control, cohort, ecological

109. baby clinic a/e – baby 24hrs with mother, after normal delivery breast feeding within 4 hrs,

110. target strategy in aids a/e – education, treatment of STD, antiretroviral treatment, condoms

111. chemoprophylaxis available for all except – meningitis, typhoid, cholera,

112. vaccine with highest efficacy – measles, dpt, oral typhoid, tetanus

113. the following vaccine when contaminated causes toxic shock syndrome – measles vaccine

114. the following contractions of esophagus are stationary – primary, secondary, tertiary, quarternary

115. late expanding phase of population – birth rate stationary death rate falling, birth rate lower than death rate, falling death rates with low birth rate

116. fish odour from vaginal discharge – gardenella vaginalis, trichomonas vaginalis, candida

117. all the following are composite muscles except – flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus, pectineus, biceps femoris

118. the following joint has least chances for recurrent dislocation – ankle, hip, shoulder, knee

119. hemochromatosis a/e – phlebotomy is not useful, common in females, complete penetrance.

120. a young female had following lab values mcv 70, hb 10 mg%, serum iron 60, serum ferritin 100, the diagnosis is – thalassemia trait, chroinic iron deficiency anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, folic acid def

121. facilitated diffusion is – requires carrier transport, does not depend upon electrical gradient, is a form of active transport, requires creatine phosphate

122. oxygen demand of heart – increases in a constant proportion with heart rate, depends on systolic work, is negligible when heart is at rest

123. pulsatile large liver is seen in – tricuspid regurgitation, aortic aneurysm, mitral regurgitation

124. systolic thrill in left 2nd or 3rd intercostal space is seen in a/e – subpulmonic vsd, pink TOF, ebsteins anomaly

125. a down syndrome patient is posted for surgery, the necessary pre-op investigation to be done is – echocardiography, ct brain, x ray cervical spine

126. zenkers diverticulum true statement is – lies above the cricopharyngeus muscle, barium xray lateral view, it is not a true diverticulum, is congenital

127. all are the uses of lithium except – major depression, anxiety, vascular headache, neutropenia

128. a female child was brought with complaint of generalised swelling of her body. She was passing fatty cast in her urine. No haematuria. The true statement is – no IgG or C3 deposition seen on renal biopsy, her C3 levels could be low, she is suffering from a nephritic type of kidney diasease, alport syndrome

129. von hippel landau syndrome consists of a/e – gastric cancer, renal cell carcinoma, phaechromocytoma, cerebral and retinal haemangiomas.

130. finnish type of nephrotic syndrome is due to mutation in – nephrin, podocin

131. renal polycystic disease in children all are true except – autosomal dominant, renal and hepatic cysts

132. splicing is brought about by – sn RNA, m RNA

133. superior middle alveolar artery is a branch of –

134. splenic artery gives all the following branches except – gastro epiploic, short gastric, pancreatica magna

135. chemotherapy is given to all the following cancers except – (various stages of different cancers were in the options)

136. triple assessment of cancer breast includes – history, clinical examination, biopsy

137. necrotising fasciitis a/e – due to group b haemolytic streptococcus, debridement is mandatory, involves trunk and lower limbs

138. the following cephalosporin doesn’t need dose modifications depending on gfr values – cefoperazone

139. tacrolimus side effect – nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity

140. hand foot and mouth syndrome – capecitabine, carboplatin, cisplatin

141. amifostine – salivary gland, skin, GIT, brain

142. small cell lung cancer true statement – it is chemosensitive, does not involve the bone marrow

143. ifosphamide is – an alkylating agent

144. liquefactive necrosis is seen in – gangrene, tuberculosis

145. reduces bone resorption and increases bone formation – teraparatide, strontium, alendronate, calcitonin

146. the nephrotoxicity of cisplatin is increased by a/e – rifampicin, vancomycin, gentamycin,

147. treatment of severe falciparum malaria – quinine, chloroquine, artesunate, artemether

148. hepatitis C true statement is – most common cause for liver transplantation, does not cause liver cancer, dna virus, cannot infect a person already infected with hepatitis B

149. parvo virus B 19 false statement is – can cross the placenta in only <10% cases, dna virus, causes anaemia

150. all cause traumatic asphyxia except – railway accident, road accident, trampled by crowd, accidental strangulation.

151. true statement of RDA - RDA is defined statistically as 2 standard deviations (SD) above the EAR to ensure that the needs of most individuals are met

152. restless leg syndrome seen in – chronic renal disease, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia

153. cyanosis does not occur in anaemia because – certain amount of reduced hb has to be present, in anaemia oxygen saturation increases

154. 2,3 disphosphoglycerate not increased in - chronic anaemia, chronic hypoxia, inosine, hypoxanthine

155. hb dissociation curve is sigmoid because – binding of oxygen to one molecule of hb increases the affinity of other oxygen molecules

156. modafinil used in – obstructive sleep apnoea

157. best non surgical treatment of stress incontinence – pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, electrical stimulation

158. carpal tunnel syndrome caused by a/e – hyperthyroidism, acromegaly, diabetes, cushing

159. a lady with temporal field defects, galactorrhoea, most common cause – pituitary macroadenoma, craniopharyngioma

160. sleep controlled by – thalamus, hypothalamus

161. juvenile arthritis all are present except – rheumatoid nodules, uveitis, fever

162. bleomycin – reduces type 1 pneumocyte, reduces type 2 pneumocyte, reduces alveolar macrophage

163. hepatomegaly is caused by all except – gaucher, niemann pick, hepatocyte porphyria

164. cancer larynx – HPV 6 and HPV 11

165. limb defects with scarring of skin in new born – varicella virus

166. mitomycin C used in –

167. cell cycle specific antineoplastic drug – vinblastine

168. treatment of osteosarcoma are a/e – high dose methotrexate,….

169. in subclinical folic acid deficiency the following drug will bring about vitamin B 12 deficiency

170. the following drug can be given safe in pregnancy - propylthiouracil

171. rapid correction of hyperglycemia using insulin alone will result in – hypokalemia

172. icd 10 includes all except – lack of exercise, alcoholism, poisoning, unhealthy food.

173. cheif cells are found in – neck, pit, fundus

174. risk factor 4 GB Ca a/e – >5mm polyp, stones, increase in size of polyp

175. motorcyclist's fructure means – ring #, comminuted #, separation of suture b/w anterior half and posterior half of skull.

176. spastic paraplegia caused by all except – motor neuron disease, vit B 12 def

177. all are true about eaton lambert syndrome except – positive tensilon test.

178. pain insensitive structure – dural venous sinus.

179. icd….

180. cystic fibrosis all are true except – defect in calcium channel

181. girl with abnormal sweat chloride test, next diagnostic test – transnasal potential difference

182. Rheumatoid factor will give false negative tests with – coombs test….

183. abrasions can be confused with – eczema, chemical, ant bite

184. newborn with hydrocephalous – toxoplasmosis

185. Disease which permanently alters finger print – leprosy

186. vaginal delivery allowed in all except - monochorionic monoamniotic twins, first twin cephalic and second breech, extended breech, mento anterior

187. dysgerminoma marker – LDH

188. Rate of mineralisation of newly formed osteoid – von kossa stain, alizarin stain

189. sympathectomy done in all except – anhidrosis, intermittent claudication

190. intermittent claudication the pain is on taking - 1st step, last step, on exercise

191. chronic limb ischaemia true is – rest pain, pain on exercise

192. best graft for surgery below inguinal is –

193. superior gluteal nerve supplies all except – gluteus maximus

194. carotid artery emboli and CRVO are differentiated by – raised retinal artery pressure

195. intrinsic factor secreted by - chief cells, parietal cells

196. priviliged converstaion is between – doctor and court, doctor and patient

197. myodesis is c/i in

198. which factor is specifically a part of intrinsic clotting pathway – 9, 7, 13

199. Seen in acute inflammation classically – vasodilatation with leakage, vasoconstriction

200. 45 year old male had a chest pain. he died after 4 days. on postmortem intramural coagulation was found. this is – neutrophils, granulation tissue formation, granulomatous reaction, scar

283 - AIPGE 2009 questions with answers part 1

1. Proteus – triple phosphate renal stone

2. Appetite stimulant a/e – melanocyte stimulating hormone, melanocyte corticotropic releasing hormone, neuropeptide Y

3. non invasive diarrhoea a/e – shigella, b.cereus, salmonella, y.enterocolitica

4. closely related to anterior commisure – orbit gyrus, uncus, optic chiasma

5. Probability – 6/25, 3/5, 2/5

6. IDEAS –

7. Hernia – loop/end colostomy, loop/end ileostomy

8. Anatomical snuff box – radial a, brachial a, interroseus a, ulnar a

9. Foreign body sensation in the eye, arthritis – tb, sarcoidosis

10. Immediately after eating dyspneoa, cyanosis – allergy

11. Lupus anticoagulant – increase in aPTT only, abortion in pregnant females, can occur without other signs of lupus

12. Milkman # - pseudo#

13. Punched out lesion in skull – electrophoresis, calcium, alp

14. Least polar – methyl, carboxyl, amino, phosphate

15. Nerve entrapment all except – femoral, lat cut n of thigh, tibial, common digital

16. Mammography less sensitive in young women – less gland & more fat

17. Medulla blood supply all except – ant spinal, bulbar, basal, post cerebellar a

18. Trochlear n – ipsilateral sup oblique, longest intracranial n, dorsal n, outside annulus of zinn

19. Vasomotor centre of medulla – only baroreceptor not chemoreceptor

20. Chronic low back pain – pain management, exercise, remove the etiology

21. Pauci immune glomerulonephritis – microangiopathic, alport, sle

22. Coombs positive anaemia – sle, ttp

23. juxta foveal telangiectasia a/e – variant of coats, macular telangiectasia,

24. diabetic retinopathy treatment a/e – seal the tear, remove peripheral retinal layers, vitrectomy, photocoagulation

25. narrow angle glaucoma avoid – duloxetine, citalopram, fluphenazine,

26. valproate causes a/e – weight gain, alopecia, liver damage,

27. uveal effusion a/e – myopia, abnormal scleral structure, scleritis, cilio-choroid can get separated

28. nitrosamine – hypotension and bradycardia

29. paravertebral block can go to a/e – epidural space, subarachnoid space, paravertebral space, intercostals space

30. neuroblastoma – most common extracranial solid tumour in children, >50% come with mets, lung mets common, invove aorta and branches at early stage.

31. monetary fund given to – schizophrenia, dementia, mental retardation

32. normal curve – mean=sd, mean=median, mean=variance

33. frequency distribution – histogram

34. involvement of sweat gland and hair follicles – lichen scrofulosum, military tb

35. all are direct cutaneous disease except – psoriasis, reiter’s disease, lichen planus

36. scarring alopecia – t.capitis, androgenic alopecia, alopecia areata, lichen planus

37. adrenal adenoma a/e – hypoechoic on non contrast ct, contrast appears early and washes out late, regular border

38. casper dictum –

39. stellate wound – 2 feet distance, distant shot, contact wound, close range

40. pedestrian with multiple abrasions – primary impact, sec impact, tert impact.

41. para 3+0,CIN 3 in one quadrant on pap smear, what is the management – cryosurgery, conisation, hysterectomy

42. thyroid papillary ca 2cm – near total with rnd, hemithyroidectomy

43. follicular adenoma vs carcinoma – hurthle cell, increased mitosis, vascular invasion

44. sertoli cells – meiosis, spermatogenesis, seminal fluid, testosterone

45. obstructive azoospermia – fsh and lh

46. smoking assoc with a/e – ca larynx, nasopharynx, bladder, oesophagus

47. latest WHO scale of disability – ideas

48. SEPS –

49. commonest organ to be injured in bomb blast – lung

50. causes pf hypercoagulability a/e – paraproteinemia, infections, inflammatory bowel disease

51. features of pnh – DVT, massive splenomegaly,

52. thromboembolism assoc with a/e – pnh, diabetes

53. cannot be defined in operational terms – mission, goal, objective, target

54. cannot be defined in operational terms – mission, goal, objective, target

55. leptospirosis a/e – treatment of choice iv penicillin g, 10-15% mortality, rat urine

56. all true except – leptospirosis rat urine, tetanus dust droplets, listeria refridgerated food

57. all true except – hypochlorite virucidal, glutaraldehyde sporicidal, phenol require organic material

58. all true except – zinc def pulmonary problems, milk alkali synd hypercalcemia, selenium def cardiac problem

59. precocious puberty boy 5years with pubic hair, bp 120/90 – 11b hydroxylase, deoxycorticosterone, 17 a hydroxylase, aldosterone

60. positive urinary anion gap – alcoholoic ketoacidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis, glue, diarrhoea

61. water sample estimation a/e – clostridium recent contamination

62. nutritional survey a/e – 1 to 4 year mortality, babies < 2.5 kg, mother hb < 11.5

63. q fever vector – aerosol

64. crude birth rate a/e – ratio, fertility indicator, still born excluded

65. imci includes a/e – malaria, resp infections, diarrhoea, tb

66. trauma patient with gcs score 15, bp 100/80 next step – iv fluid with blood for cross matching, immediate transfusion, take him to theatre

67. ductal carcinoma in situ best investigation – usg, mammography, mri, pet

68. calcification of post spinal ligament a/e – begins from thoracic level

69. neural tube closes from – cranial, caudal, lumbar

70. chronic renal failure patient with hyperkalemia immediate treatment before dialysis to reduce potassium levels – calcium gluconate, sod bicarbonate, glucose with insulin

71. after starvation which site will have max glucose receptor – brain, rbc, adipose tissue

72. lipoprotein lipase a/e – adipocytes, myocytes, does not need CII as cofactor

73. child bites his fingers – hgprtase def, adenosine deaminase def

74. after cutting with restriction enzymes segments joined by – dna ligase, polymerase

75. colon carcinoma a/e – mismatch repair genes, k ras, b cantenin, apc

76. comet tail artefact – adenomyomatosis

77. aedes mosquito a/e - constant biters, eggs cannot survive more than one week without water, transmit dengue,

78. dengue hmgic fever a/e – type 1 serotype, reinfection with the same serotype, reinfection with diff serotype

79. hiv maximum transmission – homosexual, heterosexual, blood transfusion, needle prick

80. hiv enters via – cd4, cd5, cd6, cd 56

81. GIST which is increased max – cd 117, s 100

82. pancreatic transplant with bladder catheter – urine amylase, blood amylase, blood glucose

83. 29 yrs with diabetes, no ketonuria, father does not have DM , grandfather has DM – mody, dm1, DM 2

84. RCC a/e – polycythemia, cushings, hypertension

85. angiotensin a/e – vasodilatation, increases thirst, stimulates adh

86. renal Physiology a/e – dct is always hypoosmotic, source of blood to glomerulus? afferent tubule, efferent tubule

87. reversible ischaemia – muga, thallium

88. maltese cross – blastomycosis, penicillium, candida

89. deep perineal pouch a/e – bulbourethral gland, urethral sphincter, root of penis

90. pelvic diaphragm a/e - colles fascia, deep transverse perinii, superficial transverse perinii

91. aortic aneurysm rupture – anterior, posterior, lateral, intraperitoneal

92. m.c. site of subclavian artery constriction – 1st part, 2nd, 3rd, entire artery

93. arteriovenous shunt a/e – found in all organs, thermoregulation, not under the control of ANS

94. pseudomonas multocida - ?

95. mifepristone used in – threatened abortion, fibroid, ectopic pregnancy

96. lactating female best contraceptive – barrier method, lactational amenorrhea

97. laproscopic sterilisation not done in – heart disease, hiatus hernia . incontinenti pigmenti – 100% ophthalmic problems, x linked dominant, skin rash, associated with eye problems

99. neurofibromatosis a/e – autosomal recessive

100. trotters triad – deafness, palatal palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, seizures

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