Sunday, November 20, 2011

470 - PGI Chandigarh November 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 2

6.Pancreatitis is seen in all except
a.intraductal mucinus carcinoma
b.gall stones
c.pancreatic divisum

7.Inflammatory arthritis are all except:
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Gout arthritis

8.True about colles fracture:
A. Ventral tilt
B. Dorsalt tilt
C. Ventral displacement
D. Dorsal displacement
E. Shortening

Explanation: A Colles' fracture, also Colles fracture, is a fracture of the distal radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist and hand. The fracture is sometimes referred to as a "dinner fork" or "bayonet" deformity due to the shape of the resultant forearm. For a more detailed discussion see distal radius fracture.
The diagnostic findings in colles' fracture are:
1.Dorsal tilt
2.Radial shortening
3.Loss of ulnar inclination
4.Radial angulation of the wrist
5.Dorsal displacement of the distal fragment
6.Comminution at the fracture site
7.Associated fracture of the ulnar styloid process in more than 60% of cases.

9.Malignant tumors are:
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Ewing sarcoma

10.Duret hemorhage seen in..

469 - PGI Chandigarh November 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 1

1.Non-cicatrizing alopecia is seen in
a.alopecia aereata
b.androgenic alopecia

2.Erythroderma is seen in
a.pityriasis rosea
b.pityriasis versicolor
d.lichen planus

3.DNA repair defect seen in
a.xeroderma pigmentosa
b.ataxia telangectasia
c.bloom syndrome
d.lifraumeni syndrome
e.danys drash syndrome

4.Diagnostic in obstructive jaundice is or are
a. urobilinogen absent in urine
b. stercobilinogen absent in urine
c. increased enzyme levels
d. normal acid phosphatase
e. normal alkaline phosphatase

5.Which of the following are B cell markers?
a.CD 20
b.CD 22
c.CD 79a

449 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 21

101. Spondylolisthesis - which of these you would not do :
A. CT scan
C. lumbar region x-ray- AP view
D. lumbar region x-ray - lateral view

I personally think the answer is C. About the other options, CT scan generally gives axial sections of the spine, by which the anterior movement of one vertebra over other is difficult to assess. However, there is 3D imaging option in CT which helps us to image the spine in all the planes (coronal,sagittal etc) by which spondylolisthesis can be detected. The MRI is always the gold standard for any spine pathologies because of its varied techniques and varied planes of visualization. The lumbar spine lateral view X-ray gives us a very clear indication of the spondylolisthesis by easily demonstrating the anterior movement of one vertebral body over other and disturbing the anterior and posterior vertebral lines.AP lumbar region x-ray is the least useful of the options given below, because it is difficult to assess spondylolisthesis, when you are looking at the spine anteroposteriorly or posteroanteriorly. So the answer is C.

102.which is most effective in EDSS in multiple sclerosis?
a.interferon gamma
b.interferon beta
c.glatiramer acetate

103.Which of the following is indicated in prenatal lady with congenital adrenal hyperplasia ? a.fludrocortisone

104.T4 to T3 conversion is blocked by all except?
A. Propanolol
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Methimazole
D. Amiodarone

105.Which of the following has LEAST chance of progression to multiple sclerosis
A. Optic nerve involvement
B. Absence of oligoclonal antibodies in CSF
C. Truncal ataxia
D. Pyramidal involvement

Saturday, November 19, 2011

448 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 20

96. All are true about oxygenase except
a.incorporates one atom of O2
b.incorporates both atoms of O2
c.hydroxylation of drugs
d.carboxylation of steroids

97.In PCR, all of the following are used except :
a.Template DNA
d.DNA polymerase

98.Clay coloured stools passed by a child.Yellowish discoloration of sclera is also noted. Which of these is least likely to be raised :
d.Glutamate dehydrogenase

99.which of these is a wrong match?
a.digoxin - p glycoprotein
b.carvedilol- CYP2P6
c.ca2+ channel blocker- CYP3A4
d.simvastatin - glucoronide conjugation

100.Drug used to prevent HIV transmission from pregnant mother to child

447 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 19

91.Karyotyping of fetus can be done from all except
d.Fetal skin biopsy

92.Most common cause of Addisons disease in india is

93.Ozurdex is
a.0.7% dexamethasone
b.0.7% betamethasone
c.0.3% triamcinolone
d.0.7% triamcinolone

94.Commonest location of cholangiocarcinoma :
c.Around CBD

95.Investigation of choice for zenkers diverticulum
b.Barium swallow
d.Oesophageal manometry

446 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 18

86.NESTROFF test is used in

87.Dilator pupillae is supplied by ganglionic parasympathetic fibers ganglionic sympathetic fibers
c.oculomotor nerve
d.trigeminal nerve

88.Which of the following is a recent direct thrombin inhibitor
a.dazoxiben b.ximelgatran c.fondaparinux d.eptifibatide

89.What is the most common mode of injury in anterior shoulder dislocation
a.abduction and external rotation
b.adduction and internal rotation
c.abduction and internal rotation
d.adduction and external rotation

90.Which of the following is not leukemogenic
c.aplastic anemia
d.myelodysplastic syndrome

445 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 17

81.A child of down's syndrome presents with mental retardation.All of the following are seen except :
a. trisomy 21
b. mosiac 21
c. balanced translocation 21/21
d. deletion 21

82.Which investigation should be avoided in a proven case of renal papillary necrosis?
A. Urine acidification test
B. Sickling test
C. TB-PCR – urine
D. Bacterial culture of urine

83.A known alcoholic presents with flexed metacarpophalangeal joint of little finger at 15 degrees.What should be done?
b.percutaneous fasciotomy
c.subtotal fasciotomy fasciotomy

84.Gallow's traction is done in
a.Fracture femur
b.Fracture tibia
c.Fracture humerus

85.Alzheimer's disease is associated with all of these except :

EXPLANATION: (Read the below lines from Harrison 18th edition) :
The cognitive changes of Alzheimer's disease(AD) tend to follow a characteristic pattern, beginning with memory impairment and spreading to language and visuospatial deficits. Yet, approximately 20% of patients with AD present with nonmemory complaints such as word-finding, organizational, or navigational difficulty. In the early stages of the disease, the memory loss may go unrecognized or be ascribed to benign forgetfulness. Once the memory loss becomes noticeable to the patient and spouse and falls 1.5 standard deviations below normal on standardized memory tests, the term MCI is applied. This construct provides useful prognostic information, because approximately 50% of patients with MCI (roughly 12% per year) will progress to AD over 4 years. Slowly the cognitive problems begin to interfere with daily activities, such as keeping track of finances, following instructions on the job, driving, shopping, and housekeeping. Some patients are unaware of these difficulties (anosognosia), while others remain acutely attuned to their deficits. Changes in environment (such as vacations or hospital stays) may be disorienting, and the patient may become lost on walks or while driving. In the middle stages of AD, the patient is unable to work, is easily lost and confused, and requires daily supervision. Social graces, routine behavior, and superficial conversation may be surprisingly intact. Language becomes impaired—first naming, then comprehension, and finally fluency. In some patients, aphasia is an early and prominent feature. Word-finding difficulties and circumlocution may be a problem even when formal testing demonstrates intact naming and fluency. Apraxia emerges, and patients have trouble performing learned sequential motor tasks. Visuospatial deficits begin to interfere with dressing, eating, or even walking, and patients fail to solve simple puzzles or copy geometric figures. Simple calculations and clock reading become difficult in parallel.

Friday, November 18, 2011

444 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 16

76.A Cricket player hit his thumb catching a ball. For which of the following will you investigate ?
a.Abductor pollicis longus
b.Extensor pollicis brevis
c.Ulna collateral ligament
d.Volar plate

77.An Old man presented with single episode of new onset seizures. Drug of choice is 
c.Sodium valproate

78.Eye pupil is not dilating to 1% pilocarpine. Most probable cause is
a.Adie's pupil
b.Diabetes mellitus occulomotor palsy
c.Pharmacological block
d.Uncal herniation

79.A Girl presents with primary amenorrhea, secondary sexual characters present,no uterus and no ovary,pubic hairs are absent. The most probable diagnosis is
b.Androgen insensitivity
d.Gonadal dysgenesis

80.For which of the following conditions giving Prostaglandins is detrimental
a.Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
b.Pulmonary atresia
c.Obstructive TAPVC
d.Aortic arch interruption

443 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 15

71.Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation test?
a.3.5% sodium citrate
d.Sodium oxalate

72.Adverse(deleterious) effects of hypothermia are all except:
a.Cardiac arrythmia
b.Decreased peripheral resistance
c.Reversible coagulopathy
d.Renal failure

73.Eosinophilia is not seen with?
a.Contrast nephropathy
b.Drug induced nephropathy
c.Atheromatous plaque
d.Polyarteritis nodosa

74.Stack method of dental estimation is used for
c.25-30 years
d.greater than 50 years

75.Lid retraction is caused by

Thursday, November 17, 2011

442 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 14

66.A patient presents with pain over the thumb, index and middle finger. All of the following tests are done except
a.Finkelstein test
b.Tinel test
c.Phalen test
d.Torniquet test

67. Which of the following is not involved in translation in eukaryotes?
b.Peptidyl transferase
c.Aminoacyl tRNA
d.RNA polymerase

68. Ossification centre first appears at –
a.end of 2nd month
b.beginning of 2nd month
c.end of 3rd month
d.beginning of 3rd month

Ossification centres appear over a long period during bone growth, many in embryonic life, some in prenatal life, and others well into the postnatal growing period. Initially microscopic, the ossification centres soon become macroscopic and their growth can then be followed by radiological and other scanning techniques.   Many bones, including carpal, tarsal, lacrimal, nasal, and zygomatic bones, inferior nasal conchae and auditory ossicles, ossify from a single centre. Even in this limited group, centres appear between the eighth intrauterine week and the tenth year, a wide sequence for studying growth or estimating age.
However, most bones ossify from several centres, one of which appears in late embryonic or early fetal life (seventh week to fourth month), in the centre of the future bone.
Ossification progresses from the centres towards the ends, which are still cartilaginous at birth. These terminal regions ossify from separate centres, sometimes multiple, which appear between birth and the late teens, and so they are secondary to the earlier primary centre from which much of the bone ossifies. This is the pattern in long bones, as well as in some shorter elements such as the metacarpals and metatarsals, and in the ribs and clavicles.
From the above explanation i presumed the answer to be END OF 2ND MONTH.

69. A patient presents with proptosis and pain after 4 hrs of injury. A bruise is noted in the eye and frontal area?
a.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
b. Internal carotid artery aneurysm
c. Carotico-cavernous fistula
d.Sphenoid fracture

70.Efavirenz acts through the following mechanism
a.Protease inhibitor
b.Preventing HIV entry into cell
c.Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d.Integrase inhibitor

Tuesday, November 15, 2011

441 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 13

61.Drug used for non infectious uveitis in LUMINATE
a. cyclosporin
b. infliximab
c. methotrexate
d. voclosporin

62.Percentage of endothelium destroyed in keratoplasty?

63.Azithromycin prophylaxis in trachoma given when prevalence above?

64.Post operative ileus is maximum in:

65.Which retinal layer is most resistant to radiation
b.layers of rods and cones
c.bipolar cell layer
d.ganglion cell layer

440 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 12

56.Marker of bone formation are all except
b.alkaline phosphatase
c.procollagen residue

57.Criteria for primary hyperaldosteronism, all except
a.diastolic hypertension without edema
b.metabolic acidosis present
c.low secretion of renin.
d.low secretion of aldosterone inspite of reduced volume of fluid

58.Bremelanotide used for
a.Erectile dysfunction
c.Prostatic cancer
d.Metastatic renal cancer

59.Post operative ileus is maximum in:

60.According to organ transplantation act 1994 what punishment for doctor if found guilty ?
a.2 yrs
b.more than 5 yrs
c.4 yrs
d.2-5 yrs

439 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 11

51.A 3 year old has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of Bronchial asthma. Diagnosis should be
a.Atopic dermatitis
b.Contact dermatitis
c.Seborrhic dermatitis
d.Infantile eczematous dermatitis

52.Which of the following is not true about Xenon anaesthesia
a.Non explosive
b.Minimal cardiovascular side effects
c.Slow induction and slow recovery
d.Low blood gas solubility

53.Which of the following in anaesthesia will produce decreased EEG activities
b.Early hypoxia

54.Ultrasound criteria for congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis are all except
a.Food remnants in stomach
b.Pyloric canal length greater than 16mm
c.Thickness of the lesion greater than 4mm

Ultrasonographic signs of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, originally described in 1977 and further defined, are as follows:
1.A MucosalThickness (serosa to mucosa) greater than 3 mm (a correlation between MT and the patient's age exists; the most reliable ultrasonographic sign is an MT greater than 3 mm. Because this measurement can be increased falsely with off-axis imaging, attention to technique is important.)
2.Target sign on transverse images of the pylorus.
3.Pyloric channel length greater than 17 mm
4.Pyloric thickness (serosa to serosa) of 15 mm or greater
5.Failure of the channel to open during a minimum of 15 minutes of scanning
6.Retrograde or hyperperistaltic contractions
7.Antral nipple sign (ie, a prolapse of redundant mucosa into the antrum, which creates a pseudomass. 8.Double-track sign on ultrasonography(ie, redundant mucosa in the narrowed lumen, which creates 2 mucosal outlines).
9.Other findings include reversible portal venous gas; nonuniform echogenicity of the pyloric muscle.

55.In herpes zoster all are seen commonly except?
a. Pseudo dendritic
b. Anterior stromal
c. Endothelial
d. Sclerokeratitis

438 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 10

46.After coming head of breech will have difficulty in delivery in all of the following conditions except
b.Placenta previa
c.Incomplete dilatation of cervix
d.Extension of head

47.Lady with infertility with B/L tubal block at cornua. Best method of management is:
a.Laparoscopy and Hysteroscopy

48.Which of the following is least likely physiological change in pregnancy
a.Increase in intravascular volume
b.Increase in cardiac output
c.Increase in stroke volume
d.Increase in peripheral vascular resistance

49.HRT is useful in all except
c.Vaginal atrophy
d.Coronary heart disease

50.Oculomotor nerve palsy causes all except
c.Outward eye deviation

437 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 9

41.Which is not elevated in a child presenting with jaundice, icterus, pruritis and clay coloured stools.
a.Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
b.Alkaline phosphatase
d.Glutamate dehydrogenase

42.A 45 year old female complains of progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy. MRI shows intradural enhancing mass lesion. Most likely diagnosis is
a.Dermoid cyst
b.Intradural lipoma
c.Neuroepithelial cyst

43.Which of the following is not a prognostic factor for acute pancreatitis
c.AST elevation
d.Increased serum amylase

44.Following are associated with CV junction anomalies except
a.Basilar invagination
b.Odontoid dysgenesis
c.Ankylosing spondylosis
d.Rheumatoid arthritis

45.Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child

436 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 8

36.HAM test is done for
a.G.P.I anchor protein
b.Complement defect
c.Spectrin defect
d.Mannose binding protein

37.16 year old girl wth primary amenorrhea attends OPD. She has normal sexual development and normal breast but with absent public and axillary hair. Examination shows B/L inguinal hernias.USG shows absent uterus and blind vagina. Diagnosis will be
a.Turner syndrome
b.Mullerian agenesis
c.Star syndrome
d.Androgen insensitivity syndrome

38.A newborn presents with congestive heart failure, on examination has bulging anterior fontanellae with a bruit on auscultation. Transfontanella USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated lateral ventricles. Most likely diagnosis is
c.Vein of Galen malformation
d.Arachnoid cyst

39.All the following can occur in a neonate for heat production except
b.Breakdown of brownfat with adrenaline secretion
c.Universal flexion like a fetus
d.Cutaneous vasoconstriction

40.The important fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth is
a.Docosahexaenoic acid
b.Palmitic acid
c.Linoleic acid
d.Linolenic acid

435 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 7

31.The most common gene defect in idiopathic steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome

32.Treatment for multiple sclerosis
a.Interferon alpha
b.Interferon beta
d.Interferon gamma

33.Which of the following is not a limb girdle dystrophy
a.Sarcoglycan dystrophy
b.Dystrophin dystrophy
c.Dysferin dystrophy
d.Calpain dystrophy

34.Which of the following exclusively involve neurons
a.Spinocerebellar ataxia
b.Supranuclear palsy
c.Corticobasilar degeneration
d.Multiple system atrophy

35.A young male patient presents with LDL = 600mg/dl, triglycerides = 160mg/dl. What would be the most likely finding on physical examination
a.Tendon xanthoma
b.Lipemia retinalis
c.Eruptive tuberous xanthomas

434 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 6

26.A young male patient presented with urethral discharge. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be the best for culture
a.McCoy cell line
b.Thayer martin medium
d.Levinthal medium

27.With reference to Bacteroides fragilis, the following statements are true except
a.B.fragilis is the same frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
b.B.fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
c.The lipopolysaccaride formed by B.fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
d.Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia

28.A child had pustular lesion on leg. On gram staining gram positive cocci are seen. To establish the diagnosis of Group A Streptococcal erythroderma, the test used is
a.Bile solubility test
b.Catalase test
c.Optochin sensitivity
d.Bacitracin sensitivity

29.A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is
a.Staphylococcus aureus
b.Viridans streptococci
c.Enterococcus faecalis
d.Coagulase negative staphylococcus

30.In acute inflammation due to the contraction of endothelial cell cytoskeleton, which of the following results
a.Delayed transient increase in permiability
b.Early transient increase
c.Delayed permanent increase
d.Early permanent increase

433 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 5

21.Using a new technique, Hb was estimated in a blood sample. The test was repeated for 10 times. The reports were : 9.5, 9.2, 9.4, 9.6, 9.7, 9.9, 10.2, 10.3, 10.5, 12.1. Accurate value of Hb was estimated by standard tests to be 10.2. The new technique has
a.High validity and high reliability
b.Low validity and low reliability
c.High validity and low reliability
d.Low validity and high reliability

22.In a study in UK, an association was found between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a.Ecological study
b.Cohort study
c.Case reference study
d.Experimental study

23.Which epidemiological study gives the most accurate result
a.Meta analysis
b.Cross-sectional study
c.Randomized control trial with double blinding
d.Cohort study

24.The following drug is not useful for MRSA

25.An elderly male presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is
b.Moraxella catarrhalis
d.Burkholderia cepacia

Monday, November 14, 2011

432 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 4

16.Chymotrypsinogen is a

17.Anticoagulant used to estimate glucose from a sample sent from PHC is
b.Calcium oxalate
c.Potassium oxalate + NaF
d.Sodium Citrate

18.The 40nm gap in between the tropocollagen molecule in collagen which serve as the site of bone formation is occupied by which of the following
b.Ligand moiety

19.You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know :
a.Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test
b.Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
c.Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d.Relative risk of SLE in this patient

20.Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in
a.Causes of death
c.Age distributions

431 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 3

11.In India, syndromic management is done for
a.Chancroid and chancre
b.Chancroid and herpes genitalis
c.Chancroid,Chancre and herpes genitalis
d.Chancre and herpes genitalis

12.Which of the following is not a part of superficial perineal pouch?
a.Posterior scrotal nerves
b.Sphincter urethrae
c.Ducts of bulbourethral glands
d.Bulbospongiosus muscle

13.Mizuo phenomenon is seen in
a.Oguchi's disease
b.Fundus apunctaneus
c.Fundus amaculateus

14.Mean arterial pressure is calculated as:

15.Same aminoacid is coded by multiple codons due to following :
b.Frame shift mutation

Sunday, November 13, 2011

430 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 2

6.Which is true about octreotide?
a.Stimulates growth hormone
b.Used in secretory diarrhea
c.Used orally
d.Contraindicated in acromegaly

Currently, the most widely used somatostatin analog is octreotide (SANDOSTATIN), an 8-amino-acid synthetic derivative of somatostatin that has a longer half-life and binds preferentially to SSTR2 and SSTR5 receptors. Typically, octreotide (100 g) is administered subcutaneously three times daily; bioactivity is virtually 100%, peak effects are seen within 30 minutes, serum half-life is approximately 90 minutes, and duration of action is approximately 12 hours. The goal of treatment is to decrease GH levels to less than 2 ng/ml after an oral glucose tolerance test and to bring IGF-1 levels to within the normal range for age and gender. Depending on the biochemical response, higher or lower octreotide doses may be used in individual patients. In addition to its effect on GH secretion, octreotide can decrease tumor size—although tumor growth generally resumes after octreotide treatment is stopped. Octreotide also has significant inhibitory effects on thyrotropin secretion, and it is the treatment of choice for patients who have thyrotrope adenomas that oversecrete TSH and who are not good candidates for surgery. Gastrointestinal side effects—including diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal pain—occur in up to 50% of patients receiving octreotide. In most patients, these symptoms diminish over time and do not require cessation of therapy. Approximately 25% of patients receiving octreotide develop gallstones, presumably due to decreased gallbladder contraction and gastrointestinal transit time. In the absence of symptoms, gallstones are not a contraindication to continued use of octreotide. Compared to somatostatin, octreotide reduces insulin secretion to a lesser extent and only infrequently affects glycemic control. The need to inject octreotide three times daily poses a significant obstacle to patient compliance. A long-acting, slow-release form (SANDOSTATIN LAR) is a more convenient alternative that can be administered intramuscularly once every 4 weeks; the recommended dose is 20 or 30 mg. The long-acting preparation is at least as effective as the regular formulation and is used in patients who have responded favorably to a trial of the shorter-acting formulation of octreotide. Like the shorter-acting formulation, the longer-acting formulation of octreotide generally is well tolerated and has a similar incidence of side effects (predominantly gastrointestinal and/or discomfort at the injection site) that do not require cessation of therapy.

7.Regular drinking of which of the following prevents UTI?
a.Grape juice
b.Raspberry juice
c.Cranberry juice
d.Orange juice

8.Following artery damage will cause least effect on body while doing surgery?
a.Superior Mesenteric artery
b.Inferior Mesenteric artery
c.Coeliac axis
d.Renal artery

9.Liver plate includes all except
a.Hilar plate
b.Cystic plate
c.Umbilical plate
d.Ductal plate

10.Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin; all have which of the following type of receptors?
a.2 pass
b.6 pass
c.7 pass
d.4 pass

429 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 1

1.Which of the following drugs is not used in Multiple Sclerosis?
a.IFN 1alpha
b.IFN 1beta
c.Glatiramer acetate

Here is a list of FDA approved therapies for Multiple Sclerosis:

GA - Glatiramer acetate
MTX - Mitoxantrone
NTZ - Natalizumab
FGM - Fingolimod
CLD - Cladribine
IFN B - Interferon Beta

-Mycophenolate mofetil (250 mg bid gradually increasing to 1000 mg bid), is used in the treatment of Neuromyelitis Optica; which is a clinical variant of Multiple Sclerosis.

2.Flaying seen in what type of lacerated wound ?
b.Shearing force

3.Type D personality were recently found to be at risk for
a.Coronary artery disease
c.Personality disorder

4.If 4 nucleotide repeats code for an amino acid. What is the number of amino acids coded possible: 

5.Vision 2020 founding members are all except
d.International Agency For prevention of Blindness

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