Tuesday, January 11, 2011

411 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2010 Mcqs with answers (full paper)

1.False about H influenza
a)it needs factor X and V for growth
b)protein capsule plays an important role in pathogenicity
c)it is a rare cause of meningitis in first 2 months of life
d)m.c. invasive manifestation is meningitis

2.Which of the followings is false about C.perfringes
a)food poisoning strains produce heat resistant spores
b)show positive naegler reaction
c)most important toxin is hyaluronidase
d)m.c. cause gas gangrene

3.Hyperkalemia without ECG changes may be treated with all except
a)calcium gluconate
c)Na bicarbonate
d)insulin with dextrose

4.Cock’s peculiar tumour is
a)basal cell CA
b)squamous cell CA
c)sebaceous ulcerated cyst

5.stone hard to break by ESWL is
a)Ca oxalate
b)uric acid

6.20 yr female hirsutism, oligomenorrhea, increased testosterone level and normal ovaries on USG- diagnosis
a)idiopathic hirsutism
c)testosterones secreting tumour
d)adrenal hyperplasia

7.laparoscopic Intranasal approach for assessing which organ EXCEPT?
a)lacrimal gland
b)optic nerve
c)pituitary gland

8.pondreal index of baby of 2000gm and 50 cm

9 In reassembling post amputation, following is done first:
a.vein ligation
b.artery ligation
c.nerve ligation
d.attach bone

10.A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand on the lumbosacral joint. but is not able to lift off from back. Etiology?
a)subscapularis tear
b)teres major tear
c)long head of biceps
d)acromioclavicular jt. dislocation

11.Spanish windlass is practiced in -

12.CHILD WITH phaacomelia anomaly due to drug taken by mother
c) trimethoprim
d) cyclophosphamide

13.Rate of newly synthesized osteoid mineralization can be best estimated by
a)tetracyclin labeling
b)alizarin red stain
d)von kossa stain

14.All can cause candidiasis EXCEPT

15.Tensor tympani nerve supply
a)trigeminal n
b)facial n
c)glassopharyngeal n
d)vagus n

16. Not true about varicella infection
a. Only single stage of lesion is present at a time
b.Secondary attack rate is 90%
c.lesions occurs in flexors
d.reactivation occur in 10-15%cases

17.all supplied by superior gluteus n except
a.gluteus maximus
b.gluteus medius
c.gluteus minimus
d. tensor fascia lata

18. Perineural invasions seen in
a.) Adenocarcinoma
b.) Adenoid cystic ca
c.) BCC
d.) Sq.CC

19.lactic acidosis caused by vitamin def
d)pantothenic acid

20.endometrial cancer involving 50% of endometrium, extending to vagina, lymph nodes negative with positive peritoneal cytology is staged as

21.not a channelopathy
a)tay sach
b)liddle’s syndrome
c)hypokalaemic paralysis
d)cystic fibrosis

22.Stocker's line are seen in
a) pterygeum
b) pinguecula
c) congenital ocular melanosis
d) Conjunctival epithelial melanosis

23.vaginal sphincter is formed by all except??
a) bulbospongiosis
b) external urethral sphincter
c) internal urethral sphincter
d) pubococcygeus

24.Which of the following is the least likely cause of Neonatal mortality in India?
c)Birth Asphyxia
d)Congenital anomalies

25.hard tick spread all except
a) relapsing fever
b) kfd
c) turalemia
d)indian tick typhus

26.Ramelteon true except
a)MT1, MT2 Agonist
b)addiction liability
c)Used for t/t of insomnia
d)metabolised by cyp1A2

27.gallows traction is used in relation to #
a)shaft femur
b)neck femur
c)shaft tibia
d)tibial tuberosity

28.treatment for severe pain after thoracotomy
a)intercostal cryoanalgesia
b)i.v fentanyl
c)oral morphine
d)rectal diclofenac

29.A woman consumes several tabs of Amitryptiline. All of the following can be done except
a)Sodium bicarbonate infusion
b)Gastric lavage
c)Diazepam for seizure control
d)atropine as antidote

30.Murmur increases with Valsalva manoeuvre

31. A G2 female 9 weeks pregnant,had a previous child with down’s syndrome.she doesn’t want another child with Down’s.you will tell her:
a.USG at this stage will confirm presence or absence
b.Chorionic villous biopsy at this stage will confirm presence or absence
c.triple test /maternal AFP at this stage will confirm presence or absence
d.nothing can be done

32.One of the following disorders is due to maternal disomy of chromosome 15
a)Prader Willi
b)Angelman syndrome
c)Hydatidiform mole

33. 9 year old boy with prolonged aPTT and PT, defect is in?
a) Intrinsic pathway
b) extrinsic pathway
c) common pathway
d) platelets function

34. Which is d first site to involve in osteomyelitis
d)site of entry of nutrient artery

35.All of the following can cause SLE like syndrome except

36. mass drug treatment not for
a. scabies
c. filariasis
d.vit a deficiency

37.Splenomegaly is a feature of all except
a) PCV
b) CML
c) primary thrombocytosis
d) primary myelofibrosis

38.congenital cause of hypercoagulable states except
a)protein C deficiency
b)protein S deficiency
c)MTHFR mutation
d)lupus anticoagulant

39.anesthetic causing adrenal cortex suppression

40. Methicillin resistant staph outbreak in hospital, best way o preventing the spread
a. Fumigating the ward
b. Giving Vancomycin injection to all in patients
c. Asking the patient to put mask
d. By asking hospital staff to wash hands

41. Thunderclap headache?
a)extradural heamorrhage
b)aneursymal SAH
c)cluster headache
d)basilar migraine

42. .not an anti-inflammatory

43. .Pale infarct not in?

44. Maternal uncle of the boy has renal disease, he also has keratoconus, diagnosis
d)Denys Drash

45. True about enterotoxigenic E coli
a) Not a common cause of travellers’ diarrhoea
b) Spread by fomites
c) Common cause of watery diarrhoea in children in developing countries
d) Causes invasive diarrhoea

46.Most associated with heart disease?

47. which prevents ADP from leaving the mitochondria in exchange for ATP?
c)antimycin a

48. .Charcot's triad all except
a)palpable gall bladder

49.not a component of corpus cancer syndrome

50. the vit.K dependent clotting factor?

51.which gas is used to measure diffusion capacity

52. Which of the following is not permeable through the Blood Brain Barrier?
a. Water
b. Lipophilic drugs
c. Gas
d. Proteins

53.A 19 year old patient came to the outpatient department with complaints of Primary Amenorrhea. She had well developed breast and pubic hair. However there was absence of vagina and uterus. Likely diagnosis is?
a. XYY
b. Mullerian agenisis
c. Gonadal dysgenesis
d. Kleinfelter's syndrome

54. Woman treated with Lithium during pregnancy should be tested for
1. Neural tube defects
2. Cardiac anomalies
3. Urogenital anomalies
4. Facial defect

55. Widmark’s test is used in
a)time since death
b)amount of alcohol content
c)time since injury
d)stature of body

56. the number of births is 4050, 50 still birth, 50 died in 7 days, 150 died within 28 days, what is the NMR

57 All are CT features of adrenal adenoma except
a) Low attenuation
b) Homogenous density & well defined borders
c) Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a long time & washes out late
d) Calcification is rare

58. not a jones major criteria
a)elevated ESR

59 Septum transversum gives rise to all except
a)Falciform ligament
b)Ligamentum teres
c)Coronary ligament
d)mesentery/ligament of lesser sac

60. A 40 year old man who met with a motor vehicle catastrophe came to the casualty hospital in an hour with severe maxillo facial trauma. His Pulse rate was 120/ min, BP was 100/70 mm hg, spO2 - 80% with oxygen .What would be the immediate management?
1. Intravenous access
2. Orotracheal intubation
3. Nasotracheal intubation
4. Tracheostomy

61.the amount of K+ in one bottle RL
a)1 meq/L
b)2 meq/L
c)4 meq/L

62.loss of lacrimation is due to damage to
a)Greater petrosal nerve
b)nasociliary nerve
c) ant. ethmoidal nerve
d)supraorbital nerve

63.histopathology showing onion bulb appearance in a nerve biopsy is in
b)leprosy neuritis
c)amyloid neuropathy
d)diabetic neuropathy

64.baby inward turned foot, unable to touch the tibia, most probable diagnosis
b)congenital vertical talus
c)Arthrogryposis Multiplex
d)cerebral palsy

65. Patient met with Road Traffic Accident with subsequent injury to the left knee. Dial test was positive. What could be the cause?
1. Medial Collateral Ligament Injury
2. Medial Meniscal Injury
3. Lateral Meniscus Tear
4. Posterolateral instability of knee

66.clue cells seen in
a)bacterial vaginosis
d)chlamydia trachomatis

67. not the minor criteria of multiple myeloma
a)plasmacytoma on biopsy
b)lytic bone lesions
c)plasmacytosis 20%
d) IgA<2.5 & IgG<3.5

68. Pacemaker of the respiratory centre
a) apneustic centre
b) pre botzinger complex
c) dorsal grp neurons
d) pneumotaxic centre

69. A 20 year old boy c/o faint hearing of voices, aggressive behaviour since 2 days. He has fever since only 2 days. When asked his family says that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. Likely Diagnosis is
a)acute psychosis
d)delusional disorder

70.a 3 day child vomits everything he feeds, has a distended abdomen, diarrhoea, in urine the benedicts test is positive, what is the substance in urine?

71.why is a child able to breathe and suckle at the same time?
a)short soft palate
b)short tongue
c)high larynx
d)small pharynx

72. All are true about bacterial killing except
a.MPO helps in formation of OCl
b.NADPH oxidase helps in formation of superoxide anion
c.Immune deficiency in Brutton's agammaglobinemia is not related to opsonisation
d.Chediak-Higashi syndrome there is failure of phagolysosome formation

73.best view for frontal sinus?
d) Schuller's view

74.true about the scalenus anterior
a)pierced by the phrenic nerve
b)attached to tubercle of 2nd rib
c)separates the subclavian artery and vein
d)is anterior to transverse cervical artery

75, not absorbed from the PCT

76. 70yr old with myoclonic jerks, EEG showing b/L periodic sharp wave spikes, diagnosis?
a)Hepes simplex encephalitis
b)Lewy body dementia

77 Not an essential mineral?

78. Not used to introduce genome into the bacteria

79. Not used for the diagnosis of DM?
a)D- Xylose

80 Auto run over a child, there is a mark of the tyre tracks, it is
a)patterned bruise
b)patterned abrasion
c)imprint abrasion
d)stretched laceration

81. .bone fully formed at birth
b)ossicles of ear
c)mastoid process
d)parietal bone

82. brilliantly translucent is all except
a)vaginal hydrocele
b)cystic hygroma

83. boy is having diarrhoea, rhinorrhea, sweating, what is the most probable diagnosis?
a)cocaine withdrawal
b)heroin withdrawal
c)marijuana withdrawal
d)LSD withdrawal

84. patient is having bronchodilatation, increased temperature, constipation, tachycardia, diagnosis?
b)atropine poisoning

85. what is the pathology of oedema in nephrotic syndrome?
a)loss of protein in urine/hypoalbuminaemia
b)sodium & water retention
d)increased venous presure

86. phenylketonuria ,earlier part of management is
a.limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme
b.supplement diet with the missing protein
c.Replacement of deficient enzyme
d.Restricting the enzyme in the diet for the deficient substrate

87. amoebiasis not transmitted by
a)vertical transmission
b)oro rectal
c)oro fecal

88.a patient with BPH is under your care, when will you decide on TURP?
a)b/l hydro uretero nephrosis
b)prostate weight 75 grams
c)need 3 days course of antibiotics
d)can’t use medication due to hypertension

89. . A patient undergone surgery in neck of femur fracture case 1 month back. came with complaints of altered sensorium , difficulty in urination , s.Na 140 , K - 4.5 , urea 60 , Creat 1.3 , Ca 15.5, immediate control is all except
a)Rehydrate the patient

90. Which is the SERM?
d)clomiphene citrate

91. Hypoxia independent of

92.best way to sterilise sputum is all except
d) Chlorhexidine

93. Reason for fast CO2 diffusion
a)less dense
b)more soluble
c)less molecular weight
d)less pCO2 in the alveoli

94.Vi polysaccharide vaccine
a)causes local reaction
b)many side effects
c)C/I in many cases
d)can be given for yellow fever and hepatitis

95. young female with acute breathlessness and feeling of impending doom, diagnosis?
a. conversion reaction
b. Anxiety disorder
c. Acute psychosis
d. panic attack

96. not a way of minimising bias
c)multivariate analysis

97. not true about appetite stimulating neuropeptide y
a.36 amino acid
b.reduce thermogenesis
c.level decrease during fasting
d.stimulated by melanocorticotropin

[snip]. one chap found some correlation between dietary factors and a disease; he did this by collecting data from the food manufacturers and hospitals respectively, such a study is?
a) Ecological
b) cross sectional
c) Pesphological study
d) experimental study

99. Which is false regarding Spaulding criteria?
a)non critical items only decontamination is enough
b)Semi critical items contact mucous membranes or nonintact skin
c)semi critical items low level disinfection is enough
d)cardiac catheters are an example of critical items

100.what produced by the stomach has a role in control of food intake?

101. HER2/Neu significance is?
a)diagnosis of cancer
b)predicting the response to treatment
d)detect recurrence

102. All are true about starting of B-Blocker therapy in a case of heart disease except
a. They should be started with optimum doses
b. They should be gradually increased over weeks.
c. Special precautions should be taken in cases of NYHA class III and IV
d. Carvedilol and Metoprolol are the preferred drugs

103. A young athlete, vecuronium is absent, so succinylcholine was used, dose of 640mg%, his respiratory effort and reflexes are diminished? Reason?
a) Abnormal pseudoAChE deficiency
b) phase 2 block
c) undiagnosed muscular weakness
d) fasciculation produced by succinylcholine

104. A patient with recurrent passing of renal stones for 10months, the dietary advice that is not needed?
a) Protein restriction
b) calcium restriction
c) salt restriction
d) take plenty of water

105. Cause of sudden painless loss of vision in a 27 yr old with no significant past history and no findings in ocular and systemic examination
a) retinal detachment
b) glaucoma
c) cataract
d) eales disease

106 . Child with PDA will not have
a) Bounding pulses
b)Pulmonary haemorrhage
c)necrotising enterocolitis
d)CO2 wash out

107.aluminium phosphide poisoning, which is not the feature?
a) esophageal stricture
b) inhibits cyt. A oxidase
c) phosgene gas is produced
d) subendocardial infarcts

108. An 8 year old boy complains of left hypochondrium pain for 3 days. Further history from mother reveals history of passage of black colour stools for the past 3-4 days with history of similar episodes on two occasions in the last 3 years. During the episode the child used to become very weak and could not play with other .which of the following will help in making a clinical working diagnosis
a pallor
b splenomegaly
c free fluid in abdomen
d jaundice

109. Urine of pregnant women in third trimester and lactating mother contains which of the following

110. 35 yr old lady with chronic backache. On x ray she had a D12 collapse. But intervertebral disc space is maintained. All are possible except
a) multiple myeloma
b) osteoporosis
c) metastasis
d) tuberculosis

111. which of the following binds to acetyl CoA and condenses OAA

112. Horner syndrome not due to
a)carotid aneurysm
b)medial medullary syndrome
c)multiple sclerosis
d)treatment of reynolds

113. patient with mitral stenosis is having surgery tomorrow, there is some liver compromise, which of the following may be given?

114. Most sensitive test for Ductal carcinoma in situ

115. True about subendocardial hemorrhage are all except:
a.) may be seen after head injury
b.) involves RV WALL
c.) continuous pattern
d.) Flame shaped hemorrhages

116. A 10 yr old male child with failure of normal growth having- Na-140, K-4.7, Cl-112, HCO3-16, pCO2 32, pH-7.34, diagnosis is?
a)Anion gap Met acidosis
b)Non Anion gap met acidosis
c)respiratory alkalosis
d)chronic respiratory acidosis

117. why is intrapleural pressure negative?
a)alveolar pressure negative
b)surfactant is equally spread
c)lymphatic drainage
d)cartilaginous rings

118. GIST all except
a) most common in duodenum
b) necrosis and ulceration
c) PET is used to assess
d) well circumscribed

119. Tetanus infection in India. Not true
a) soil, animal and human intestine as reservoir
b) herd immunity or cross immunity does not occur
c) more in winter/ dry season
d) transmitted via open injuries and wound

120. late onset schizophrenia, what is true?
b)age between 20 to 30yrs
c)bad prognosis
d)olfactory hallucination

121. fogarty catheter used for
a)embolectomy / remove blood clots from artery
c) for uretric catheterization
d) bladder drainage

122. Fibronetic nephropathy all r true except
1. PAS + N Trichome stain mesangium
2.subendothelial n mesangial deposits
3.autosomal recessive
4.inconsistent IgG deposits

123. Grading of abruptio placenta?
a) Page
c) macafee

124 contributry to eradication of small pox all except
a)subclinical infection does not spread
b)very efficient vaccine
c)cross immunity with animal pox present
d)life long immunity

125. secondary hyperparathyroidism is all except

126. true about RDS:
a.develop within 6 hrs after birth
b.air bronchogram seen
c.cyanosis seen
d. term baby

127. 30wks, pre term child with moderate respiratory defect, what will you do?
b) surfactant and mechanical ventilation
c) humidified oxygen

128. Cyanosis in trauma due to
a.early hypoxia
b. late hypoxia
c. absence of cyanosis indicates adequate airway
d. absence of cyanosis indicates adequate tissue perfusion

129. 25 year old laborer 3 year back presented with penile ulcer not treated. Later He presented with neurological symptoms for which He got treated. Test to monitor response in this patient

130. What is the treatment of threshold ROP?
a) Laser
b) slow reduction in oxygen
c) retinal reattachment
d) antioxidants

131. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by
c) cyclophosphamide

132 ARDS
a)FRC > Closing volume
b)FRC < Closing volume
c)FRC = Closing volume
d)dependent on FRC, not on CV

133. Inclusions in oligodendrogliocytes is a feature of
a.) Creutzfeld Jackobs
b.) CIDP
c.) HSV
d.) Progressive multiple encephalopathy

134. CSF rhinorrhoea, treatment of choice?
a) Immediate blocking of nose with paraffin gauze
b) Blowing nose
c) Ask the patient to lift the head up position
d) start antibiotics and watch for 1week

135. Not developed from the mesentry of the stomach?

136. A 60 yr old man with incomplete urine voiding since 10 yrs Creatinine increased, urea increased, hydronephrosis with hydroureter ,prostate >70 gms .residual urine post voiding:400 ml. Immediate management is:
a. Catheterise the bladder
b. ureterostomies
c. MRI
d. CT to check for prostate ca

137. .patient with 6th cranial nerve palsy, T2 weighted MRI, Hyperintense shadow which shows contrast enhancement, diagnosis?
c)cavernous hemangioma

138. Child with recurrent abdominal pain, bilious vomiting, no finding on examination, condition was diagnosed by barium follow through, surgery was done which included 3 things- mesentric widening, appendicectomy, cutting the Ladd's band, diagnosis?
a)Caecal volvulus
b)Mal rotation
c)Acute appendicitis
d)small bowel strictures

139. Amnesia is in
a) following head trauma
b) stroke
c) paraplegia
d) spinal trauma

140. 8yrs child, no significant past history, bp- 180/110, urea high, Creatinine also high, and urine shows pus cells 15- 20, RBC 1 to 2, your diagnosis?
b) accelerated hypertension with ARF
c) idiopathic RPGN
d) interstitial nephritis with reflux disease

141. A Bone marrow transplant receipient patient developed chest infection. ON chest Xray Tree on Bud appearance . The cause of this is
a.) kelbsiella
b.) pneumocystis
c.) TB
d.) RSV

142. false of vasopressin receptor is?
a)V1- endothelial smooth muscles
b)V2- distal nephron
c)V3- anterior pituitary
d)V4- CNS

143. In a study it is observed that the right ovary ovulates more than the left, all are possible explanations for the cause except?
a)anatomical asymmetry
b)difference in blood supply to both sides
c)right handedness
d)some embryological basis

144. cochlear implant, true is
a)not used in <5yrs
b)implant is introduced through the oval window
c)used in mild to moderate hearing loss
d)not contraindicated in cochlear malformation

145. Retinitis pigmentosa is a feature of all except
a)Refsum's diseaes
c)Halloverden Spatz

146. A mother suffers shock immediately after delivery, the most probable reason could be:
a) amniotic fluid embolism

147. A girl aged 20 yrs complains of headache while studying. Her vision is found to be normal. All of the following can be considered while evaluation except:
1. family history of headache
2. Menstrual history
3. Self expectations
4. Her interest in studies

148. patient having some infection, empirically started on a ceftriaxone and amikacin, the pus sent for culture revealed an ESBL producing organism, your course of action
a)change the cephalosporin for a quinolone
b)change the ceftriaxone for ceftazidime
c)change the cephalosporin for imepenam
d)don’t change the regime, just increase the dose

149. Gall bladder CA from an organism acquired while eating fish?
a)hymenolepsis diminuta
c)clonorchis sinensis
d)fasciola hepatica

150. The caecum is found to be placed below the stomach and in the midline. Which of the following abnormality must have taken place while rotation of the gut?
1. mal rotation
2. non rotation
3. reverse rotation
4. mixed rotation

151. not true of HepB
a)supportive care- Chronic HepB
b)supportive care- Acute HepB
c)antivirals- Chronic HepB
d)antiviral- acute HepB

152. Emergency contraception all except
b)oral levonorgestrel
c)oral mifepristone
d)copper IUCD

153. A young boy who has difficulty in getting up from sitting position was diagnosed to have Duchene’s muscular dystrophy. Which one is true regarding the mutation in the dystrohin gene in promoter region:
a. affects initiation of transcription
b.affects termination of transcription
c.affects capping of mRNA
d.tailing is defective

154. ER+ breast cancer, treatment is?
b) transtuzumab
c) letrazole
d)clomiphen citrate

155. Malignant pustule is
a Carbuncle
b Ulcerating melanoma
c cutaneous anthrax
d rodent ulcer

156. Caisson disease due to?
a)Fat embolism
b)Gas embolism
c)tumor embolism
d)amniotic fluid embolism

157. Reassortment of genome is in

158. Chemical peeling not used
a) carboxylic acid
b) Kojic acid
c) phosphoric acid
d) trichlor acetic acid

159. Respiratory centre depression is caused by all except
a.) opium
b.) strychnine
c.) barbiturates
d.) gelsenium

160. the test to distinguish mother and baby Hb?
a) Kleihauer Betke test
b) bubblin test
c) apt test
d)osmotic fragility

161. 37 week pregnant lady with previous LSCS, BP- 150/ 100, urine albumin++, pelvis favourable, cx 50% effaced, posterior position, station -3, your next step?
a)wait and monitor BP
b)induce labour
c)immediate LSCS
d)Antihypertensive regime and then induce labour after 10 days

162. Endotoxic shock earliest change is due to?
a.endothelial injury
b.peripheral vasodilatation
c.pyrogen release
d.cytokines action

163 not a stimulus for normal respiration?
b)j receptor

164. Which of the following is associated with poor prognosis in Ewings sarcoma?
a) B2 microglobulin
b) fever
c) thrombocytosis
d) young age

165. A study found an association between beta carotene and a disease X. but it may be due to decreased fibre in such diets, such a kind of occurrence is termed?
a)multifactorial causation
b)confounding factors
c) multiple regression

166. Bad prognosis in AML?
a. loss of chromosome x n y
b. monosomies.
c. Trisomies
D.NPM-1 mutation

167 treatment of CACx 3b is
D)intracavitatory brachytherapy

168. Best regimen foe PIH is
b)Lytic cocktail

169. all except one true for HEP B
1.vertical transmission more important than horizontal
2.age of onset determines prognosis
3.period of communiability lasts several months
4.viremia 1 month before jaundice

170. Regimen followed in expectant management of placenta previa.
A. Lileys method
B. Crede's method
C. McCafee and johnson regimen
D. shers method

171. False about retropharyngeal abscess
a)always to one side of the midline
b)can be palpated by finger
c)behind the prevertebral fascia
d)presents with dysphagia, dyspnoea

172. A teen age girl with nodulocystic acne is also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be?
a. Oral isotretinoin
b. Oral acitretin
c. Oral minocycline
d. Cyproterone acetate

173. What is cause of calcium excess in systemic granulomatous diseases?
a. Increased kidney production of di hydrocholecalciferol
b. Increased vitamin D absorption
c. Mutation in ca sensing receptor
d. dystrophic calcification

174. Radiation exposure is the least in the following procedure
a)micturating cystourethrogram
c)bilateral renostonogram
d)Spiral CT for stones

175. An adult male c/o pain in left side of abdomen. On further examination, a heterogeneous mass is seen to arise in retro peritoneum at the level of left renal hilum possible diagnosis is:
a. Lymphoma
b. malignant melanoma
c. germ cell tumour
d. transitional ca

176. Continuous administration of testosterone in a man causes
a) azoospermia
b) increased sperm motility
c) increased spermatogenesis
d) increased GnRH secretion

177. restriction endonuclease is introduced into a bacteria, what happens to him/ her?
a)multiply faster
b)proof reading improved
c)lyses host cell more effeciently
d)bacteria dies due to lack of methylase

178. 60yr old man, both HTN and DM for 10years, there is reduced vision in one eye, on fundus examination there is a central bleed and the fellow eye is normal, the diagnosis?
a)Diabetic retinopathy
b)retinal tear
c)optic neuritis
d)Hypertensive retinopathy

179. An old man after heavy work and travel complains of passing fresh blood PR for 7 days. No significant findings on PR examination and no other past historyWhat would u recommend next for the man?
b.Refer him to a surgeon for sigmoidoscopy
c.Refer him to a GEnterologist for colonoscopy
d.Barium enema

180. A child with eye closed,moving all 4 limbs n crying lustily,neonatal behavioral response scale for him?
a)stage 1
b)stage 2
c)stage 3
d)stage 5

181. A patient is in renal failure, which is the material when given along with contrast that is least harmful
a) half normal saline
b) fenoldopam
c) N- acetyl cysteine

182. a child H/O 8 blood transfusions in 2months Hb- 6, MCV low, WBC is normal, TLC 5600, also hypochromic microcytic anemia, which investigation is not done next?
a)pulmonary hemosiderin
b)urinary hemosiderin
c)bone marrow biopsy
d) gi endoscopy

183. in 8months prosthetic valve patient, the cause of IE is
a)staph. aureus
b)staph. epidermidis
c)strpto. viridens

184. Patient in microcytic hypochromic anemia, serum iron is low, ferritin 800, and percentage saturation 64, diagnosis?
b)iron defeciency anemia
c)DMT1 mutation

185. ABO incompatibility blood picture shows
a)fragmented RBCs

186. plasma sterilisation, organism used to test?
a)b. subtilis
b)b. Stearothermophilus
c)b. pumilus
d)cl. perfringens

187. A farmer who had a single verrucous indurated plaque on the dorsum of the right foot, diagnosis?
a)Tubercular verrucosa cutis
c)Lichen planus hypertrophicus
d)verrucous vulgaris

188. the histopath of wegener's granulomatosis?
a. granulomas in blood vessels
b. granulomas in GBM
c. nephrosclerosis
d. Focal necrotising GN

189. the problem of cytology study in solid tumours especially in CA Cx is
a)increased mitotic rate
b)inadequate sample
c)bacterial contamination of the specimen
d)area inaccessible

190. carbonic anhydrase reacts with EDTA what is true:
a.EDTA reacts with metal ion and makes it inactive
b.substrate complex cannot be acted upon by enzyme
c.EDTA changes the confrontation of the enzyme
d.EDTA substrate complex suicides

191. A child had a skin infection; a catalase negative organism was isolated which showed haemolysis andwas sensitive to bacitracin. Another doctor isolated a similar organism from the throat of the child? The correct statement is
a)M protein of both skin and throat are same
b)Mec A gene is related to it
c)skin infection by group D
d)C protein are different

192. all are true except
a. underlying brain inj always aassociated with outer fracture
b. subgaleal fracture poduces racoon eyes
c. skull base fracture leads to caroticocavernous fistula
d.post traumatic epilepsy occur in about 15% cases

193. 39year old female, previous laparoscopic surgery was uneventful, PT normal, aPTT increased. What is the next test?
a)factor 8
b)aggregation test
c)russel viper venom test
d)ristocetin aggregation

194. Methotrexate resistance occurs by
a)overproduction of DHFRase
b)Decrease folate reductase
c)deficiency of thymidine kinase
d)mutation of thymidilate synthase

195 Characteristic of Bacilus cereus food poisoning is
a) presence of Fever
b) presence of Pain abdomen
c)Absence of Vomiting
d)absence of Diarrhoea

196. A newborn with RR 86/min fever and grunting there was no nasal flaring and chest retraction present with lagging of abdomen. What is the score according to Silverman criteria
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

197. Which is used in overactive bladder?
a) duloxetin
b) darifinacin
c) flavoxate
d) oxybutynin

198. anti LKM Ab, false is
a.) LKM1 - Autoimmune hepatitis
b.) LKM2 - Drug induced
c.) LKM1 - chronic hepatitis
d.) LKM2 - chronic hepatitis D

199. Neonatal respiratory distress on administration of
a) opioid
b) propofol
c) furosemide
d) diazepam

200. If you want to make N/S from 10% dextrose in 100mL, how should you add the two?
a)20mL NS to 80mL of 10% Dextrose
b)40mL NS to 60mL of 10% Dextrose
c)60mL NS to 40mL of 10% Dextrose
d)80mL NS to 20mL of 10% Dextrose (not correct but nearest)

410 - ALL INDIA (AIPGE) 2011 Mcqs with answers

1. Which is a branch from trunk of brachial plexus ?
1. SupraScapular Nerve
2. Long Thoracic Nerve
3. Axillary Nerve
4. Nerve to Subclavius Muscle

2. Autorikshaw run over an 8-year-old, tyre mark over leg is called?
A. Patterned bruise
B. Imprint abrasion
C. Contusion
D. Ectopic bruise
References : Given below
Answer is B. Imprint abrasion
Krishan Vij ,Text Book of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Principles and Practice, 2008, 4thEdn, Pages 282-283.
Pressure Abrasions (Crushing Abrasions / Imprint Abrasions): When the impact is vertical to the skin surface, the epidermis gets crushed and pressure type of abrasions result and the imprint of the impacting object may be produced. These may be seen in manual strangulation (abrasions produced by fingernails) and in hanging, where the weave of the ligature material may be reproduced.
Patterned Abrasions: Patterned abrasions occur when the force is applied at or around right angle to the surface of skin, as already mentioned……The classical example of this is seen in traffic accidents when tyre of a motor car passes over the skin leaving the pattern when the skin has been squeezed into the grooves of the rubber tread.
Reddy.K.S.N,The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 2006, 25th Edn, Pages 156-157.
Patterned bruising is also seen in motor car accidents.
Answer: Imprint Abrasion is to be preferred as most appropriate alternate to Patterned Bruise, since,
1. Imprint abrasion and patterned abrasion are the same.
2. Patterned abrasion (imprint abrasion) is the classical example of tyre mark
3. Tyre will produce patterned bruise usually, if in association with abrasions

3. Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in all except ( REPEAT )
1) Hippocampus
2) Brain
3) Liver
4) Kidney
Answer 3) Liver

4. Which is not autoimmune disease?
1. SLE
2. Grave’s Disease
3. Myasthenia Gravis
4. Sickle Cell Disease
Answer 4. Sickle Cell Disease

5. A 40 year female underwent surgery. Post operatively she told the anaesthetist that she was aware of per-operative agents. Individual intraoperative awareness is evaluated by
1. Bispectral Index
Answer 1. Bispectral Index
Bispectral index (BIS) is one of several recently developed technologies which purport to monitor depth of anesthesia. BIS monitors can replace or supplement Guedel's classification system for determining depth of anesthesia. Titrating anesthetic agents to a specific bispectral index during general anesthesia in adults (and children over 1 year old) allows the anesthetist to adjust the amount of anesthetic agent to the needs of the patient, possibly resulting in a more rapid emergence from anesthesia. Use of the BIS monitor may reduce the incidence of intraoperative awareness in high risk procedures or patients[1] and may also have a role in predicting recovery from severe brain injury

6. Most common cause of death in schizophrenia patient
1. Homicide
2. Depression
3. Suicide
4. Due to Antipsychotic side effects
Answer C ) Suicide

7. All are pneumatic bones except
1) Frontal
2) Mandible
3) Ethmoidal
4) Mastoid
Answer 2 ) Mandible

8. Clue Cells are found in
A) Candida
B) Bacterial Vaginosis
C) Trichomonas Vaginalis
D) Chlamydial infection
B) Bacterial Vaginosis

9. Nerve involved in supracondylar fracture
1. Radial nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Ulnar nerve
4. Anterior interosseous nerve
Answer 4. Anterior interosseous nerve

10. Pain in ethmoidal disease travels through
1. Nasociliary Nerve
2. Lacrimal Nerve
3. Frontal Nerve

11. Punett Square is used for
1. Genotype
2. Collecting datas in one group
4.Inheritance pattern
1. Genotype
The Punnett square is a diagram that is used to predict an outcome of a particular cross or breeding experiment. It is named after Reginald C. Punnett, who devised the approach, and is used by biologists to determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype.

12. A teenage girl complaints of pain over the knee. The pain increase while starting to stand from sitting position and while walking upstairs. What is the likely diagnosis?
1. Chondromalacia of patella
2. Patellar Fracture
3. Torn Meniscus
4. Bipartite Patella
Answer ) 1. Chondromalacia of patella
Chondromalacia patellae means "soft cartilage under the knee cap," a presumed cause of pain at the front of the knee. This condition often affects young .The pain of chondromalacia patellae is typically felt after prolonged sitting, like for a movie, and so is also called "movie sign" or "theater sign".

13. Blount’s disease is present as (Repeat from ADrPlexus Mock series 3 on Dec 30,2010 ) Q.No 107
1. Genu recurvatum
2. Genu varum
3. Genu Valgum
Answer 3. Genu Varum

14. Diet Recommendations all except
1. Cholesterol intake should be 100 gm/1000 kcal/day
2. To avoid alcohol consumption
3. Salt intake should be less than 5gm/day
4. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet
Answer 4. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet

15. People are separated into certain sub groups. People are selected randomly from sub groups. What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3. Quota Sampling
4. Cluster Sampling
Answer 2. Stratified Sampling

16. Which pass through Foramen Magnum ?
1. Vertebral artery
2. Hypoglossal Nerve
3. Internal Carotid artery
4. Sympathetic chain
Answer 1. Vertebral artery
Spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem, vertebral arteries.
Jugular Foramen or Vernet's syndrome is characterized by the paresis of 9th–11th (with or without 12th) cranial nerves together.
1- HYPOGLOSSAL CANAL - hypoglossal nerve

2- INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY - passes thru both carotid canal and foramen lacerum

3- GREATER PALATINE FORAMEN - anterior palatine nerve

4- LESSER PALATINE FORAMEN - posterior palatine nerve

5- NASOPALATINE NERVE - incisive foramen

6- SUPRA ORBITAL FORAMEN OR NOTCH - supraorbital nerve

7- SUPRA ORBITAL FISSURE - inferior opthalmic vein

8- INFRA ORBITAL FORAMEN - infra orbital nerve

9- ZYGOMATIC NERVE - infra orbital fissure

10- ZYGOMATICO FACIAL FORAMEN - zygomatico facial branch of the sixth nerve

11- OPTIC CANAL - central retinal vein

12 - FORAMEN ROTUNDUM - maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

13- FORAMEN OVALE - Mandibular nerve, Accessory meningeal artery, Lesser petrosal nerve and Emissary veins (mnemonic : MALE).

14- FORAMEN SPINOSUM - middle meningeal artery

15- JUGULAR FORAMEN - 9 , 10 , 11 th cranial nerves

16- MASTOID FORAMEN - meningeal branch of occipital artery

17- TYMPANO MASTOID FISSURE - auricular branch of vagus ( vidian r alderman n )

18- FACIAL NERVE - stylomastoid foramen

19- CHORDA TYMPANI NERVE - petro tympanic fissure.

17. Which is not a neural tumor ?
1. Ependymoma
3. Gangliocytoma
4. Ganglioglioma
REF Cotran, Ramzi S.; Kumar, Vinay; Fausto, Nelson; Nelso Fausto; Robbins, Stanley L.; Abbas, Abul K. (2005). Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease. St. Louis, Mo: Elsevier Saunders. pp. 1406.
Ganglioglioma is a tumour that arises from ganglion cells in the central nervous system.
The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes equated with ganglioglioma. However, it is also sometimes equated with ganglioneuroma. The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes used to imply that the tumor is entirely neuronal.

18. Which is rave drug?
1. Cannabis
2. Cocaine
3. Heroin
4. Ecstacy
Answer 4. Ecstasy
There are a variety of substances that have been connected with Rave Clubs. This is a brief list of some of the drugs by slang names and some of their effects:
Ecstasy – Hallucinogen/Stimulant Ecstasy is a synthetic drug that is similar to methamphetamine and the hallucinogen mescaline. Ecstasy can produce a significant increase in heart rate and blood pressure and a sense of alertness. The stimulant effects, which enable users to dance for extended periods, may also lead to dehydration, hypertension, and heart or kidney failure. Ecstasy can cause brain damage. It is one of the most widely used of the club drugs.
Ephedrine – Stimulant This substance is sold over-the-counter at convenience stores, some food stores, and mail order. It is sold often as ‘Herbal Ecstasy’ and is touted as a ‘safe’ and ‘legal’ form of Ecstasy. Ephedrine is in the Amphetamine family and can cause heart attacks, seizures, agitation, palpitations, and other health problems. Ephedrine is a common weight-loss substance. The FDA has proposed restrictions on ephedrine after it received more than 800 reports of harmful effects to people, among them coronary problems that could put patients at risk for heart attacks, strokes and death.
Ketamine – Hallucinogen Ketamine is an animal tranquilizer used by vets in pet surgery. Users say the effects of Ketamine are similar to PCP. Ketamine is usually snorted and is frequently used in combination with other drugs like ecstasy, heroin and cocaine. The high lasts anywhere from 30-minutes to about 2-hours. Special K or powdered Ketamine, emerged as a recreational drug in the 1970s and was known as “Vitamin K’ in the underground club scene in the 1980s. It has since resurfaced as “Special K” in the 1990s rave scene.
GHB – Depressant This substance comes in a liquid form and looks like water and has a salty taste. GHB is used as a “club drug” for effects similar to those of Rohypnol, also known as “date rape drugs.” Coma and seizures can occur following of GHB and when combined with methamphetamine.
Mixing GHB with alcohol could be a deadly combination. Excessive use of GHB can result in loss of consciousness (G-hole), tremors, irregular and depressed respiration and coma.
Methcathinone – Stimulant Known on the street as Khat or cat it produces an amphetamine like effect. The drug produces a burst of energy and feeling of invincibility, accompanied by a state of well being and euphoria. Effects include paranoia, hallucinations, nervousness and anxiety. Physical effects can be pounding heart, headaches stomachaches, and shakes. Khat is most often snorted, but may also be injected with a needle or taken orally by mixing with a beverage such as a soft drink.
LSD – Hallucinogen LSD induces abnormalities in sensory perceptions. Effects are unpredictable depending on the amount taken, on the surroundings in which the drug is used, and on the user’s personality, mood, and expectations. It can be in the form of a tablet, capsule, liquid, or on pieces of blotter paper that have absorbed the drug and is typically taken by mouth. Effects come on within 30 to 90 minutes after taking and can include physical effects of dilated pupils, higher body temperature, increased heart rate and blood pressure, sweating, loss of appetite, sleeplessness, dry mouth, and tremors.
Magic Mushrooms – Hallucinogen The effects of Mushrooms or “Shrooms” are similar to LSD. They include illusions and hallucinations, distorted perception of time and distance. It is ingested orally in the form of tablets or powder. Trips or episodes can consist of psychosis, convulsions, flashbacks, and possible death.
Methamphetamine – Stimulant Methamphetamine affects many areas of the central nervous system. The drug is often made in clandestine laboratories from relatively inexpensive over-the-counter ingredients. Diverse groups, including young adults who attend raves, in many regions of the country, are using it. It is available in many forms, and can be smoked, snorted, injected, or orally ingested. Methamphetamine use is associated with serious health consequences, including memory loss, aggression, violence, psychotic behavior, and potential cardiac and neurological damage. Abusers typically are agitated, have excited speech, decreased appetite, and increased physical activity levels.

19. All are indoor air pollutants except
1. Radon
2. Carbon Monoxide
3. Nitrogen oxide
4. Mercury
Answer 3) Nitrogen Oxide

20. Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate
1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth
Answer 1. 1. Total Number of Live birth

21. Cadeveric transplant is done for A/E
1. blood vessels
2. liver
3. lung
4. bladder
Answer 4. Bladder
and this is why you have to read prospectus back page with specific links
The major donor organs and tissues are heart, lungs, liver, pancreas, kidneys, eyes, heart valves, skin, bones, bone marrow, connective tissues, middle ear, blood vessels. Therefore one donor can possibly give gift of life to many terminally ill patients who would not survive otherwise.

22. Not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea
1. kallman syndrome
2. turner syndrome
3. sheehan syndrome
4. rokitansky syndrome
Answer 3. sheehan syndrome

23. 32 yr male a known hypertensive planned for cholecystectomy . which of following is contraindicated
1. propofol
2. ketamine
3. midazolam
ANS 2. Ketamine
Ketamine causes a rise in intracranial pressure and should not be used in patients who have sustained a recent head injury.
The blood pressure rises by about 25% (on average the systolic pressure rises by 20-30 mmHg) and the heart rate is increased by about 20% - the overall effect is therefore to increase the workload of the heart.
The pressure within the eyeball (intra-ocular pressure) rises for a short time following administration.
All pressures are increased.

24. One of the drug is contraindicated in Patients with lithium toxicity
2. beta blocker
3. ccb
Answer 1. Diuretics
Diuretics acting distally to the proximal tubule, such as thiazides and spironolactone, do not directly affect the fractional excretion of lithium (although they may affect serum lithium levels indirectly through their effects on volume status). Reabsorption of lithium is increased and toxicity is more likely in patients who are hyponatremic or volume depleted, both of which are possible consequences of diuretic therapy.

25. Most common tumor causing superior Vena cava syndrome.
1. Malignant Lymphoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Non small cell carcinoma.
ANS Small cell Carcinoma
Nearly 95% of superior vena cava syndrome cases are attributed to cancer, with the most common cause being small cell lung cancer, followed by squamous cell lung cancer, adenocarcinoma of the lung, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and large cell lung cancer.

26. Which virus crosses placenta least likely ( ADrPlexus Q )
1. rubella
2. herpes simplex
3. HIV
4. Hepatitis B
ANS 4. Hepatitis B
HBV is a large virus and does not cross the placenta, hence it cannot infect the fetus unless there have been breaks in the maternal-fetal barrier, e.g. via amniocentesis.

27. Deoxygenated Blood is carried in all blood vessels except
1. umbilical artery
2. umbilical vein
3. pulmonary artery
4. right ventricle
Answer 2. Umbilical vein

28. A patient with Solitary kidney having 4 cm solitary exophytic mass in lower pole. Management is
1.Partial nephrectomy
2. Radical nephrectmy with dialysis
3. Radical nephrectomy with immediate renal transplant
4. Observation
ANS. Partial nephrectomy

29. Which is present in Pentology of fallot :
1. ASD
2. VSD
3. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
4. Pulmonary stenosis
Answer 1. ASD

30. All are true about Nesidioblastosis except ?
1. Hypoglycemic Episodes are seen
2. Occurs in adults more than child
3. Histopathology shows Hyperplasia of Islet cells
4. Diazoxide is used in treatment
Answer 2. Occurs in adults more than child
Nesidioblastosis is hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia attributed to excessive function of pancreatic beta cells with an abnormal microscopic appearance. The abnormal histologic aspects of the tissue included the presence of islet cell enlargement, islet cell dysplasia, beta cells budding from ductal epithelium, and islets in apposition to ducts.Most common age group 2 – 3 years.

31. Epileptogenic
1. Desflurane
2. Sevoflurane
3. Ether
4. Halothane
Ref : A practice of anesthesia for infants and children By Charles J. Coté
Answer 2. Sevoflurane

32. Contraceptive to be avoided in epilepsy
1. OCP
2. Condoms
3. IUD
4. Post Coital Pill
The morning after pill can be used in women with epilepsy after unprotected sexual intercourse. A higher dose is recommended in patients taking hepatic enzyme inducing drugs
- 1st dose – Levenorgestrol 1.5mgs (2 tablets)
- 2nd dose 12 hours later – Levenorgestrol 0.75mgs (1 tablet)

33. NARP syndrome is seen in
1. mitochondrial
2. glycogen storage
3. lysosomal
4. lipid storage
Answer 1. Mitochondrial Disorder
Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa, is a condition related to changes in mitochondrial DNA.
Mutations in the MT-ATP6 gene cause neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa.
The MT-ATP6 gene is contained in mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondria are structures within cells that convert the energy from food into a form that cells can use. Although most DNA is packaged in chromosomes within the nucleus, mitochondria also have a small amount of their own DNA (known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).

34. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in
1. Kimura disease
2. kikuchi disease
3. hodgkin disease
4. castelman disease
Answer 2. Kikuchi Disease
Kikuchi disease ai also called histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis or Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease, is an uncommon, idiopathic, generally self-limited cause of lymphadenitis. The most common clinical manifestation of Kikuchi disease is cervical lymphadenopathy. Several viral candidates have been proposed, including cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus,16 human herpesvirus, varicella-zoster virus, parainfluenza virus, parvovirus B19, and paramyxovirus.

35. A tennis player gets hurt by a ball in his eye, he complaints of decreased vision? what may be the cause for the condition?
1 optic neuritis
2 pars planitis
3 . Avulsion of the Vitreous base
4 . equatorial edema
Shall Discuss Most Probable 3. Avulsion of the Vitreous base
Blunt injuries: the eye wall does not have a full thickness wound. Open globe or penetrating injuries: the eye wall has a full thickness wound. A blunt force causes a globe rupture and a sharp object causes a laceration at the site of impact. Lacerations may be penetrating with a single entrance wound, or a perforating with an entrance and exit wound.
Symptoms and signs suggestive of globe rupture include pain, deceased visual acuity (a normal visual acuity is rarely present in a globe rupture), extensive subconjunctival haemorrhage (often involving 360 degrees of bulbar conjuctiva), a deep or shallow anterior chamber, hyphaema, low IOP (however IOP can be normal or high), irregular pupil, iridodialysis, cyclodialysis, lens subluxation, commotio retinae, retinal tears, vitreous haemorrhages, obvious corneal or scleral lacerations or intraocular contents may be outside the orbit.
Direct blows to the eye transmit energy to the adjacent tissues as they produce compression,
shearing, and tensile strains. The resultant great shearing forces are usually strongest at the posterior border of the vitreous base, and a linear tear of the retina may result. If traction is strongest at the anterior border of the vitreous base, the nonpigmented ciliary epithelium is torn. Strong traction at both the anterior and posterior borders may produce vitreous base avulsion, which is pathognomic of ocular

36. Aprepitant is all except
1. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450
Answer 1. Agonist at NK1
Aprepitant is an antiemetic chemical compound that belongs to a class of drugs called substance P antagonists (SPA). It mediates its effect by blocking the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor.

37. Buprenorphine is a
1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor
2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
4. It is antagonist at Kappa receptor
Answer 1. . Partial agonist at MU Receptor

38. Local Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is not used in
1. Spinal
2. Epidural
3. Digital finger block
4. Skin Anaesthesia
Answer 3. Digital Finger Block
The toxicity of LA is related to the amount and speed of their absorption into the systemic circulation !
Vasoconstrictor ingredient (e.g., adrenaline, felypressin) is often added to LA with the aim to reduce the absorption of LA into the systemic circulation.
Effects of vasoconstrictors:
- increase in the effect of LA (increased concentration)
- decrease in the toxicity of LA (decreased absorption)
- increase in the duration of the effect of LA
Vasoconstrictors must not be used for producing ring-block of an extremity (e.g. finger or toe) because they may cause prolonged ischaemia and gangrene.

39. All are true about Erlotinib except
1. Used in Non Small Cell Carcinoma
2. It is a small peptide acting as EGRF antagonist
3. Food decreases absorption
4. It causes skin rashes
Answer 3. Food decreases absorption
Explanation : Food enhances the oral absorption and bioavailability of erlotinib.

40. Sparrow marks are seen in following condition
1. gunshot injuries
2. stab injry of face
3 vitriolage
4 windshield glass injury
Answer 4 windshield glass injury

41. All are supplied by the anterior division of Mandibular nerve except:
1. lateral pterygoid
2. medial pterygoid
3. temporalis
4. masseter
Answer 2: medial pterygoid
The nerve to medial pterygoid is a direct branch of the mandibular trunk.

42. 39. All of the following decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis except?
Answer 4. Teriparatide
Teriparatide increases both bone formation and bone resorption

43. Onodi Cells & Haller Cells are associated with the following structures respectively?
1.Optic Nerve & Orbital floor
3.ICA & optic Nerve

44. Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all except
1) Common Bile Duct
2) duodenum first part
3) Aorta
4) IVC
Answer 2. Duodenum First part
Posterior Surface.—The posterior surface is in relation with the inferior vena cava, the common bile duct, the renal veins, the right crus of the diaphragm, and the aorta.

45. About yaws all are true except
1. caused by t. pertenue
2. transmitted non-venerally
3. Secondary yaw can involve bones
4. Last stages involve heart & nerves
Answer 4. Last stages involve heart & nerves
Yaws, like syphilis, has been classified into the following 4 stages:
Primary stage: The initial yaws lesion develops at the inoculation site.
Secondary stage: Widespread dissemination of treponemes results in multiple skin lesions similar to the primary yaws lesion.
Latent stage: Symptoms are usually absent, but skin lesions can relapse.
Tertiary stage: Bone, joint, and soft tissue deformities may occur.

46. Mifepristone is used in
1. Hydatiform Mole
2. Abortion
3. Ectopic
Answer 2. Abortion
Medical abortion using mifepristone plus prostaglandin is the most effective method of abortion at gestations of less than 7 weeks. Mifepristone is contraindicated in the presence of an intrauterine device (IUD), as well as with ectopic pregnancy, adrenal failure, hemorrhagic disorders, inherited porphyria, and anticoagulant or long-term corticosteroid therapy.

47. Patient had cicatrical alopecia with grey pigmentation around hair follicles.What will you look for?
1. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa
2. Nail dystrophy
3. Arthritis
4. Discoid Plaques in the face
Answer 1. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa

48. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray
1. Enlarged Left atrium
2. Pulmonary congestion
3. Aortic shadow
Answer 1. Enlarged Left atrium

49. Specific Compliance of lung is decreased by all except
1. Chronic Bronchitis
2. Pulmonary fibrosis
3. Pulmonary Congestion
4. Decreased Surfactant
Answer 1. Chronic Bronchitis
Emphysema / COPD may be associated with an increase in pulmonary compliance due to the loss of alveolar and elastic tissue

50. All are features of digitalis toxicity except
1. Ventricular Bigeminy
2. Regularisation of AF
3. Delayed conduction across AV
4. Biventricular tachycardia
Digoxin toxicity is especially suggested by paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with AV block and accelerated junctional rhythm in the presence of atrial fibrillation, so-called “regularization of atrial fibrillation. Prolonged PR intervals (greater than 0.20 second) may represent a conduction delay through the atria or AV junction due to digitalis toxicity or heart block.Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia is particularly characteristic of severe digitalis toxicity. The combination of increased (atrial) arrhythmogenesis and inhibited atrio-ventricular conduction (for example paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with A-V block - so-called "PAT with block") is said to be pathognomonic (i.e. diagnostic) of digoxin toxicity.

51. A patient was started haloperidol for schizophrenia before four days. Now the patient complaints of severe spasm of neck on one sidefor the past 2 hours. what is the likely diagnosis?
1. akathisia
2. Acute dystonia
3. malignant hyperthermia
4. tardive dyskinesia.
Answer: 2. Acute dystonia

52. Diaphragm develops from all except
1.pleuroperitoneal membrane
2.septum transversum
3.musculature of dorsal wall
4.cervical somites
Answer: 4.cervical somites

53. Sterile pyuria is seen in
1.chronic pyelonephritis
2.wilms”s tumour
Answer: tuberculosis

54. Haematological syndromes is seen in radiation doses of
1.5 rad
2.100 rad
3. 200 rad
Answer: 3. 200
The hematologic syndrome is associated with radiation doses in the range of 150 to 600 rad (1 .5 to 6 Gy).

55. Best test to identify metastatic bone lesion is
1.ct scan
3.bone scan
4.x ray
Answer. Bone scan

56. Which is the commonly used fixative in histopathological specimen
4.picric acid
Answer: 2.formaldehyde
The most common fixative for light microscopy is 10% neutral buffered formalin (4% formaldehyde in phosphate buffered saline).

57. All are given in total parenteral nutrition except

58. About parvovirus B19 all are true except
1. spread by respiratory route
2.has affinity for erythrocyte p antigen
3.causes transient aplastic crisis
4.about only 10%of cases it crosses the placenta
Answer: Ref Harrison 17th edition p 1116/1117 , Greenwood microbiology 6th e p 452
The risk of transplacental infection is 30%

59. In patients receiving isoniazid theraphy which of the following micronutrients to be supplemented
1. Vitamin B12
2. pyridoxine

60. Which of the following is used to diagnose intraoperative myocardial infarction
3.transesophagial echocardiogram
Answer: Please Help us with correct options

71 pt with solitary kidney hving 4 cm exophytic mass in lower pole. best management
partial nephrectomy
rdical nephrctmy with dialysis
radical witth immediate renal transplant

72 NARP syndrome is seen in
glycogen storage
lipid storage

73 hallmark of acute inflammation ??
vasodilation and increase in permeability
leucocytic margination

74 ONODI CELLS & HALLER CELLS are associated with the following structures respectively?

75 amp b causes def of

76 injury to common peronel n all except ??
loss of senstion over sole
foot drop
injury to neck of fibula
loss of dorsiflex of toe

77 Nerve involved most commonly in supracondylar fracture
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Ant int nerve

78 definitive airway a/e:
nasotracheal tube
orotracheal tube

76 not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea
kallman syndrome
turner syndrome
sheehan syndrome
rokitansky syndrome

79 a 65 yrs old lady presenting wth swollen n painful knee...having grade III osteoarthritic changes..wats the best management for her
2.arthroscopic washing
3.partial knee replacement
4.total knee replacement

80 which is the integrase inhibitor used in treatment of hiv??

81 A 6 year old child presents with pain in hip in femoral triangle region. X-ray does not reveal any abnormality. What is the next step?
C. Aspiration
D. Traction

82 Pasteurised milk is tested mostl commonly by:

a. phosphatase test
b. coliform test
c. catalase test

84 Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor C/I in:
a. finger block
b. spinal block
c. epidural block
d. regional Anaesthesia

85 a rickshaw runover thigh of child ..tyre marks over thigh represents ??
patterned bruise
imprint abrasion
ectopic abrasion

86 prophylaxis of migraine a/e

87 early sign of magnesium toxicity
1.depression of deep tendon reflexes
2.respiratory depression
3.cardiac arrest
4.decrease urine output

88 all are actions of muscarinic antagonist except.
a. decreses gastric secretion
b. prolongs a-v conduction
c. decreses resp secretions
d.contraction of radial muscles of iris

89 all are seen in argyl robertson pupil except.
near reflex normal
direct reflex absent
consensual reflex normal
vision normal

89 Branch of trunk of brachial plexus
a. suprascalpur
b. long thoracic n
c.ant. Thoracic
d. nerve to sub clavius.

90 tolerance in opioids develops to all except

91 diaphragm develops from a/e:
septum transversum
dorsal mesocardium
pleuroperitoneal membrane
cervical myotomes
2 ecg is poor in detecting ischaemia in areas supplied by
lt circumflex

93 The primary action of NO in git is?
A. Vasodilatation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. GI smooth muscle relaxation
D. Secretomotor

94 Which is not seen in digoxin toxicity?
A. Biventricular tachycardia
B. Proxysmal atrial tachycardia with ectopics
C. Ventricular bigeminy
D. Regularisation of AF

95 Which of the following does not cause indoor air pollution?
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. Radon
D. Mercury vapor

96 All are true about pheochromacytoma except?
A. 90% are malignant
B. 95% occur in the abdomen
C. They secrete catecholamines
D. They arise from sympathetic ganglions

Q 97 Most important and hazardous agent that can be used in bioterrorism:
A. Plague
B. Small pox
D. Clostridium botulinum

[snip] True about epidural opioids are all except?
A. Acts on dorsal horn cell
B. Itching
C. Nausea & vomiting
D. Respiratory depression

Q99 Most common site of stricture formation after TURP?
A. Navicullar foss
B. Bulb
C. Prostatic membranous urethra
D. Bladder neck

Q100 Intraoperative myocardial infarction is best diagnosed by:
B. Invasive arterial pressure
C. Central venous pressure
D. Trans esophageal echocardiogram

Q101 Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon seen in
A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Vitiligo
D. Plane warts

1 02 ova albumin antigen was injected into a rabbit. What antibody will it produce initially?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD

103 a 50 yr lady has history of sprained ankle 2 months back followed by recovery. She now complains of severe pain in that ankle with inability to flex that foot. Physician notes edema and shiny skin in local examination. What is the probable diagnosis:
a. Fibromyalgia
b. Complex regional pain syndrome 1
c. Complex regi...

104 About yaws all are true except:
A. Caused by Treponema pertenue
B. Transmitted non-venerally
C. Secondary yaws can involve bones
D. Last stages involve heart and nerves

105 Weight gain in pregnancy is related to all except?
A. Ethnicity
B. Smoking
C. Socioeconomic status
D. Pre conceptional weight

106 Which virus among the following is least likely to cross placenta?
A. Rubella
B. Herpes simplex

107 A fire breaks out during laser vocal cord surgery. What is not to be done?
A. Pouring sterile water
B. Removing endotracheal tube
C. 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic gases
D. Treatment with steroid & antibiotic

108 A patient with history of discharge from right ear for past 1 year presented with severe ear ache. The discharge was cultured and the organism was found to be gram positive cocci. The least likely cause is?
A. Psuedomonas
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus
D. Haemophilus influenzae

109 Which among the following is the most common tumour associated with neurofibromatosis in a child?
A. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Acute monocytic leukemia
D. Acute myeloid leukemia

110 Common carotid artery is palpated at which site?
A. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
B. Upper border of thyroid cartilage
C. Hyoid bone
D. ???

111 A 5 year old boy while having dinner suddenly becomes aphonic and is brought to the casulty for the complaint of respiratory difficulty. What should be the appropriate management?
A. Cricothyroidotomy
B. Emergency tracheostomy
C. Humidified oxygen
D. Heimlich maneuver

112 Which among the following is the most common fungal infection seen in immuno competent patients?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mucor

113 A teenaged girl complains of pain in knee on climbing stairs and on getting up after sitting for a long time. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Chondromalacia
B. Plica syndrome
C. Bipartite patella
D. Patello-femoral osteoarthritis

114 cause of premature death in schizophrenia?
c)toxicity of antipsychotic drug
d)hospital acquired infection

115 Which of the following is not an adverse effect of thalidomide?
A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
D. Peripheral neuropathy

116 Superior vena caval syndrome is most commonly caused by?
A. Lymphoma
B. Small cell lung ca
C. Non small cell lung ca
D. Secondary tumours

117 Which of the following is a contraindication for medical treatment in gallstones?
A. Radio opaque stones
B. Radiolucent stones
C. Normal functioning gall bladder
D. Small stones

18 lines of blashchko --
blood vessel
line of development

119 deoxy blood flow thru a/e:
umbilical a
umbilical vein
pulm a
right ventricle

120 best test for hcg ?
latex test

121 aortic knuckle shadow on pa x ray..obliterated by consolidation of which portion of lung?
upper lingula
lower lingula
apex of lower lobe
post part ofupper lobe

122 Tetracycline used in prophylaxis of ?

123 basal matabolic closely associated with ?
a.lean body mass
b.body surface area
c.body mass index

124 maximal water absorption of water in git?
a jejunum
b colon
c ileum
d ??

125 pentology of fallot has which one of following extra entities:
a. asd
b. vsd
c. rvh
d. pulmonary stenosis

126 free radicals in cells produced by a/e
glut peroxidase
NO synthase
superoxide dismutase

127 all of done in management of shoulder dystocia except
a. fundal pressure
b. suprapubic press
c. mc roberts
d. woods

128 Which one of the following is not neuron tumour

129 In L5 root involvement, which among the following is not affected?
A. Thigh adduction
B. Knee flexion
C. Knee extension
D.great Toe extension

Q130 Which among the following is not a cause of fasting hypoglycemia?
A. Glucagon excess
B. Glucose 6 phospatase deficiency
C. Ureamia
D. Glycogen synthase deficiency

131 McKeon's theory on reduced prevalence of TB?
A. Increased awareness and knowledge
B. Medical advancement
C. Behavioural modification
D. Social and environmental factor

132 A child presents with abdominal pain only during passage of stools. No other symptoms like vomiting or blood in stools. There are no signs of intestinal obstruction. Most probable diagnosis is?
A. Rectal polyp
B. Intusseception
C. Meckels diverticulum

Q133 A man presents with a maculopapular rash. He gives a history of previous painless rash. Infection is due to?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia
C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

Q134 Meglitinides - all are true except:
a. decreases post parendial hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas
c. it decreases insulin resistance
d. it acts by releasing insulin

Q135 Cleavage of which complement is involved in both -classical and alternate pathway a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4

Q136 what is not asso. with mestruation..?
1. hormone
2. vaginal cytology
3. estrus profile
4. cervical changes

Q137 best treatment option for genuine stress incontinence?
a. burch colposuspenssion
b. kelly's
c. sling operation
d.free vaginal tapping

Q138 Xanthogranulomatous inflammation all are true except ?
A. presence of foamy macrophage
B. presence of tuberculous infection
C. multinucleatd giant cell
D. yellow nodule

Q139 Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all except?
A. Common bile duct
B. First part of duodenum
C. right crus of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava

140 All are true about blood coagulation except.
1 factor 10 in doth intrinsic and extrinsic
2 extrinsic is activated by contact with plasma and -fly charged protein ans
3 calcium is very important ion for coagulation
4 intrinsic can be activated in vitro.

Q141 Late onset endophthalmitis after intraocular lens implantation caused by
a)staph epidrmidis
c) strptococcus pyogenes
propionibacter acne

142 Which of the following is not a contraindication for pregnancy?
A. WPW syndrome
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Eisenmenger syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome with aortic root dilatation

Q143 which one of the following is a cardio protective fattyacid
d.w3 fatty acids

Q144 Which one of the following is not seen in floor of 3rd ventricle
a.optic stalk
b.mammilary body
C.occulomotor nerve

145 Which among the following not a component of hypogastric sheth?
A. Broad ligament
B. Transverse cervical ligament
C. lateral ligament

146 Child brought to casualty with reports of violent shaking by parents. Most likely injury?
A. Long bone #
B. Ruptured spleen
C.subdural hematoma
D.skull bone #

147 arthropod transmitted virus diseases not found in india
1.west nile fever
3.yellow fever

148 open neural tube defects detected by increase in which of the following –


149 Which of the following is true abt HDI A/E?
d) GDP in us $

150 most potent activator of T cells?
1. B cells
2. follicular dendritic cells
3. mature dendritic cells
4. macrophages

151 Following abt Phagocytosis all true A/e
a.<0.5 mcm
b.>0.5 mcm
d. d.amoeba n other unicellular org make their living out of it

152 APL Ab syndrome which Ab seen?
a.beta 1 microglobulin
c. anti centromere

153 poor prognostic factor for ALL?
b.t(9;22) t(4;11)
c.2-8 yrs
d.tlc <50000

154 Pearson's skewness coefficients

155 scarring alopecia with perifollicular greying .wth mucous mem n facial rashes /annular plaques?
1.d l e
2.lichen planus

156 With delirium tremens,not seen:
a.visual hallucination
c.coarse tremors

157 A patient wth intestinal infection 7 days later presented with amoebic liver abscess..5cmX5cmX6cm deep liver abscess on right side Rx of choice
a.Mz and antibiotics is choice
b.Repeated aspiration and antibiotics
c.Surgical drainage is best for above mentioned patient wth antibiotics
d.Resection of liver

158 drug of choice for central Diab insipidus?

159 first structure to b fixed after Amputation is
a.Bone fixing
b.arterial repair
c.venous repair
d.nerve repair

160 fallopian tube immotility seen in:
a.churg strauss syndr
b.kartaganers syndr
c.noonans syndr
d.turner syndrome

161 Epileptic potential is present in
A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ether

162 which one is known as signature fracture?
1.depressed skull fracture
2.penetrating fracture
3.counter coup
4. # along the suture line

163 A 7 yr old child with craniopharyngioma got cranial surgery done following which pituitary got damaged.which hormone shld b replaced first-
3.growth hormone

164 A 45 yr old lady presented with dub & usg finding of 8mm endometrium.which is next best investigation to conclude diagnosis?
1.endometrial histopathology
4.follow up

Q165 Which one of the following is earliest to be diagnosed by USG?
d.spina bifida

166 .A 5 yr ol child presented wth ballooning of perpuce while micturationperpuce adhesion were there.whts the best treatment for him
a.adhesiolysis and dilatation
c.dorsal slit

167 False about HDL?
a.can oxidise LDL
b.decreased levels fail to clear LDL
c.best predictor for CAD

168 A poison Illuminous, translucent, waxy
1. Yellow phosphorus

170 Gene for expession of protein.yield max production of enzyme.is ensured by introduction of following gene by virus
a.Promoter gene
b.Initiator signal
c.transln and transcription termination signal

171 Body plethysmography pressure findings when pt breathes aginst closed glottis in lungs n recordings respectively
2.both increased
3.lungs increases n recording decreased
4.in boxincrease lung decrease

172. cartilage for growth plate is:
b.prim cartilagenous
c.sec cartilagenous
d.plane jt

173 Not a predisposer for atherosclerotic plaque formation?
c.oxidised LDL

174. 7 mo child with cough ending in spasm.which is best way to sample?
a.Nasophayngeal swab
b.Cough sputum culture
c.tracheal aspirate

175 Unilateral undescended testis . ideal age of operation
a.6 months
b.12 months
c.24 months
d.36 months

176Following are true Carbohydrate antigen
b.poly clonal response
d. t cell stimulation

177 Aflatoxin produced by which of the fungal species?
a.aspergillus flavus
b.aspergillus niger
c. candida

178 A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizure 16 hr after birth ...
3. intraventricular hemorrhage
4. ??

179 girl presenting with occipital headache assoc wid ataxia vertigo.also similar complaints in mother ?
a.vestibular neuronitis
b.basillar migraine
180 18yr male with hemetemesis & melena and splenomegaly ....
3.MALARIA with dic
4.extra hepatic portal venous obstruction

181 Pregnancy induced cholestasis marker... is
b.Bile salts
c.Sgot or sgpt

182 ph 7.5 pco2 30.po2 102 is partially ,compensated by
met acidosis
met alkalosis
resp acidosis
resp alkalosis

183 pulmonary toxicity is seen with
1. bleomycin
4.actinomycin d

184 A female wid depressed mood,loss of appetite n no interest in surrounding wid insomnia specially wid time lag in iniating n wakes up 1 hr early for 1 yr aftr her husband death is diagnosed as a case of depression..most appropiate treatment
a.start wid a SSRI
b.two antideprassant combined therapy
c.no treatmnt as
D start antidepressant according to side affect profile

Q185 A pt comes with history of unresponsive fever n cough. xray pneumonia, gram positiv and partially acid fast branchin filaments 'grows on sheep blood agar'

186 not a disorder of protein misfolding?
3.cystic fibrosis

Q187 70yr old with intemittent jerks of recent origin, EEG showing b/L periodic spikes, diagnosis?
a)Hepes simplex encephalitis
b)Lewy body dementia

Q188 15 DAYS old baby comes with ca: 5 po4 :9 pth 30 (n=10-60) & seizures
1.psuedo hypo para thyroid
2.Vit d def

Q189 most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children

q is pulm compliance decreased in all except
A)pulm congestion
B)pulm fibrosis
C)decreased surfactant
D)chronic bronchitis

191 all of the following true abt erlotinib except
1. tyrosine kinase inhibitor
2. food delays its absorption
3. rashes s/e
4. used in non small cell ca lung when not responded to other chemotherapeutic agents

192 People are separated into certain sub groups. People are selected randomly from sub groups. What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3.cluster sampling
4.systemic sampling

Q194 capsule virulence in a/e -
1.nisseria memingitis
3.bordetella pertussis

Q195 superior oblique palsy-
a.horizontal and down
b.horizontal and up
c.vertical and dwn
d.vertical and up

Q196 muscle of dorsal aorta develops frm
c.lateral plate

197 Uretheral Crest is seen in
a. bulbar urtehera
b. prostatic urethera
c. membranous urethera

198 Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery infarct is?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Thalamus
D. Cortex

199 Visceral larva migrans seen in
3.toxocara canis

200. psammoma bodies seen in all except
1.follicular ca thyroin
2.papillary ca thyroid

201 Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate
1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth

202 a tennis player gets hurt by a ball, he complaints of decreased vision.what may be finding s/o this trauma
1 optic neuritis
2 pars planitis
3 vitrious detachment/ avulsion
4 equatorial edema

203 A 35 year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, repeated ptosis and east fatiguability. The best test to diagnose her condition is:
1) Muscle biopsy
2) CPK
3) Edrophonium test
4) EMG

204 For Pcod all r true except
1 high lh/fsh
2 high dheas
3 very high prolactin
4 raised lh
205 most imp prognostic factor in Cong Dia Hernia

a.pulmonary ht
b.timing of surgery

206 dental numbering is done by all except
a.FDI two digit system
b.anatomic n diagramatic charting
c.pamer notation

207 Sterile Pyuria present in...
b. Chronic hydronephrosis??
c. Wilm's tumour
d. Neuroblastoma

208 parvovirus b19 a/e
a.<10 % transmitted by blood/placenta
b.Resp route
c.its a dna virus
d.affects erythroid progenitor cells

209 a mother with 33weeks gestation with sle. drugs not to be administered
1. sulfadiazine
2. hydroxychloroquine

209 mifepristone used in

b.threatened abortion
Ectopic pregnancy

210 hematuria in 55 yr old man for past 5 years.. 5 episodes lasting for 4 -5 days.wat will b next best inv to come to diagnosis?
a.urine exam nd microscopy
b.x ray kub
c.abdominal usg

211 during TURP surgeon takes care to dissect above verumontenum so as not to injure the
1.external urethral sphincter
2.urethral crest
3.prostatic utricle
4.? d is sphincter vesicae

212 least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in female child---
a.placental steroid sulfatase
b.fetal aromatase
c.wt4 mutation

213 medical treatment for variceal bleed
214 lady 25 yr old presents with high tsh and low t4 .which is most common cause for her illness
3. pit macroadenoma
4. pseudohypothyroidism...

215 vit k carboxylates
216 false about C.diphtheriae:
a.toxin producn chromosome mediated
b.org cnfd by toxin production
c? toxic to heart and neuron

217 stab injury with omentum protrusion in umbilical area ,vitals stable.immediate next step
3.suturing with wound exploration

218 The shaded area in graph (showing diabetic cut off n diabetic n non diabetic distribution) is
a] true +ve
b] true –ve
c] false +ve
d] false –ve

219 man with maculopapular rash with prev h/o painless rash n genital painless ulcer.diagn is:
a.treponema pallidum

220 false about strep pneumoniae?
a.capsule aids in infection
b.commonest cause of o.media and pneumonia
c. least likely cause of meningitis
d.bile sensitive

221 a schizophrenic pt started on haloperidol since 2 days comes with c/o torticollis,orofaciolingual movements. what is the diagnosis
1. acute dystonia
2.tardive dyskinesia

222 no carrier state is seen in?
3. diptheria.

223 Pt. wt hypothyrodism wt IHD . Wt's d Rx ?
1.low dose of levothyroxin
2. normal dose
3.no levothyroxin
4.thyroid extract

224 a primigravida in 1st trimester had sputum positive 4 afb..treatment
a) deferred to 2nd trimester
b) cat1

225 A patient had head injury with opening of eyes with stimulation to pain, inappropriate words, and moving limbs what is the score:
a. 10
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14

226 Which of the following is true?

a. Acetylcholinesterase inhibited by malathion can be reversed with increasing levels of acetylcholinesterase
b. Sulphonilamide inhibits folate reductase irrevesibly.
c. flouoroacetate competetively inhibits aconitase
ethenol inhibit aldehd dehydrogenase when used in methanol poisoning

227 Secondary hemorrhage after how many days of tonsillectomy?
1: 24 hrs
2: 6 days
3: 12 days
4:12 hrs
228 Aprepitant is all except
1. Agonist at NK1
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450

229 Buprenorphine is a

1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor
2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
... antagonist at mu..

230 blood chimerism is maintained by??
a) monochorionin dizygotic
b)dichorionic dizygotic
c) vaninshin twins
d) singleton preganancy
231 crp stands for??
1.capsular polysaccharide in pneumococcus
232 features of bstructive azoospermia??
1.high fsh high testosterone
2.low fsh high testosterone
3.normal fsh normal testosterone

233 principle mediator of apoptosis?

234 regarding Leptospirosis.true is
a.rats only reservoir
b.fluroquinolones r doc
c.person to person transmission
d. oro fecal transmission

235 5 year old child and burned are of the size of palm is equal to
1. 1%
2. 5%
3. 10%

236 Q:All are true about ranalozine except?
a)causes hypotension
b)1st line antianginal

237 true abt sodium fluoride in treatment of otosclerosis?
1.inhibits osteblastic activity
2.used in active phase of otosclerosis when schwartz sign positive
3. has proteolytic activity(bone enzymes)
238 wat is true abt ranula
2.swelling in floor of mouth
239 A 6 week old male infant was brought in a state of dehydration and shock . Na levels were low 124 k levels 7 meq per l , hyper pigmentation present with normal genitalia . Diagnosis ?
1.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
2.adrenal hmg n shock
3.Acute gastroenteritis with dehydration

240 In pseudohyperparathyroidism what is true ?
1.Gain of function mutation
2.Decreased conversion of gtp to gmp
3.Decreased inositol tri phosph production
4.no response due to increase c amp

241 all true except selective estrogen receptor downregulator (serd), fulvestrant
1. Used for breast cancer
2. is selective oestrogen antagonist
3. Is slower acting, safer, more effective than SERM
‎4.given as once a month dose

242 which drug not used to control bleeding while delivery of a woman with heart disease ?

243 not a autoimmune disease outta following??
2.myasthenia fravis
3.sickle cell disease
4.graves disease

244 treatment wth INH leads to deficiency of ?
4.pantothenic acid

245 surgeon removes a part of liver to the left of falciform legiment. which segment the surgeon has removed
1. 1 & 4a
2. 2 & 3
3. 1 & 4b
246 diminished kidney function which is done

1.N acetylcysteine
3.low osmolar contrast
247 a patient had running nost and pain over medical aspect of eye foll that the patient developed, chemosis,protosis,diplopia of right eye on abduction with congestion of optic disc. what is the prbable diagnosis?
1.acute ethmoidal sinusitis
2.orbital cellulitis
3.cavernous sinus thrombosis
4.orbital apex syndrome

248 which one of the folloeing not used in diagnosis of insulinoma ?
1.fasting glucose test
2. d xylose
3. c peptide levels
4. insulin /glucose ratio

249 A young lady presents with fever , dysuria and pain abdomen . Uncomplicated acute cystitis was diagnosed . Which of these is false ?
1.Nitrate test positive
2.e coli ct was < 10 power 3
3.1 pus cell per 7 field
4.1 bacilli per field

250 pt with malaria, given primaquine develops hemolysis, diagnosis?
1.g 6 pd def
2.glucose 6 phosphate

251. Best investigation for bone metastases?
c.bone scan
d. x ray

252. CT least accurate for:
a. 1 cm of aneurysm in hepatic artery
b.1 cm of lymph node inpara-aortic region
c.1 cm of pancreas mass in tail

251 anaesthesia avoided in sickle cell patient...
a. iv anaesthesia
b. regional anaes

252 Pregnancy induced cholestasis marker... is
a. Bilirubin
b. Bile salts
c. Sgot/sgpt
d. Alp

253 pt with b/l central loss of vision, normal retinogram.no systemic features. no history of similar complaints in any family members.
which condition?
a) best's disease
b) stargardt's disease
c) Retinitis pigmentosa
d) macualr hole

254 poor prognostic factor for ALL?
c.2-8 yrs

255 commonest cause for b/l proptosis in children?
a.cavernous haemangioma

256 most reliable radiological sign of pulmonary hypertension-----
a. descending branch of right pulmonary artery > 16mm
b. desc of lt pul a. >16mm
c. lt. Pul a. >16 mm
d. pul a. >16mm

257 primi in labour with uterine contractions since last 10 hrs,cx not effaced?;next step?
a.sedate n observe
b.syntocin induction

258 earliest to be diagnosed by USG?

259 An amoebic liver abscess..5cm-5cm Rx of choice
a. Mz amd antibiotics is choice
b. Repeated aspiration and antibio
c. Surgical drainage
d. Resection of liver

260 perpuce adhasion 2yr child.rx
a. adhesiolysis and dilatation
b. circumscision
c. dorsal slit

261 all true except:
a.human anatomical waste disposed in yellow bag
b.red bag contents can be source of contamination
c.black bag for incineration ash
d.blue bag contents always disposed in secure landfill

262 not a c/i for pregnancy - wpw syndrome

263 no carrier state – measels

264 man with maculopapular rash with prev h/o painless rash.diagn is:
a.treponema pallidum

265 false about strep pneumoniae?
a.capsule aids in infection
b.commonest cause of o.media and pneumonia

266 Amputation 1st done is
a. Bone fixing

267 mineralocorticoid receptor not present in

268 pasteurised milk is tested mostly by:
a.phosphatase test
b.coliform test

269 d/o/c for central Diab insipidus?

270 fallopian tube immotility seen in:
a.churg strauss syndr

271 child got cranial sx done ... pituitary got damaged.. which hormone shld b replaced first-
growth hormone

272 delirium tremens,not seen:
a.visual hallucination
c.coarse tremors
a. opthalmoplegia

273 pnt with low Ca,high phosphorus,raised PTH..inv not to be done:
a.urine microscopy
b.PTH levels
c.vit D levels

274 miglitinides all are true except
1decreases post parendial hyperglycemia
2 hypoglycemia less than sulfonylurease
3 it decreases insulin resistance ans it's (thiazolidinedions acts as insulin sensitizer)
4 it acts by releasing insulin (yes just like sulfonylurease but less hypoglycemia)

275 Pearson's skewness coefficients
a. (Mean-median)/sd
b. Median-mean/sd
c. Sd/mean-median
d. Sd/median-mean

276.Question about contrast used in imaging
Test dose to be given

277.Test for milk
phospatase test
indole test

278.child with seizure within 16hrs of birth

279. Gun powder can
UV lightANS
IR light

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