Wednesday, May 26, 2010

405 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 4

16) larva seen in stool??
a) ankylostoma
b) strongyloids
c) enterobius vermicularis
d) ascaris
e) Loa loa

17) stains used in amyloidosis
a) congo red
b) thioflavin
c) Reticulin
d) Grams iodine

18) which metastases to heart
a) ca breast
b) ca stomach
c) ca lung
d) Ca prostate

19) Sampters triad
a) bronchiatesis
b) asthma
C) aspirin sensitivity
d) nasal polyposis

20) true about p53
a) proapoptotic
b) tumor supressor protein ( not gene )
c) protooncogene
d) protein kinase inhibitor

404 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 3

11q) Which substance not deposited in liver
a) lipofuschin
b) pseudomelanin
c) bile pigment
d) iron

12) Rotator cuf formd by a/e
a) Supraspinats
b) Infraspinatus
c) t.minor
d) t.major
e) subscapularis.

13) regarding H1N1 in pregnancy
1)oseltamavir is used
2)H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy
3)should start t/t only aftr confirmation

14) about gliobastoma tre are??
a) 3rd decade
b) 4th decade
c) 5th decade
d) tumor of post fossa
e) supratentorial

15) A person driving a vehicle met with an accident he was on certain medications which of the following might be the drugs he might be taking
1) fluoxetine
2) fexofenadine
3) tramadol
4) buspirone

403 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 2

6q: CO2 retention seen in?
a)lung failure
b)respiratory failure
c)high altitude
d)ventilator failure
e)pulmonary edema

7q: True about vaccum extraction of fetus?
a)can be used in non dilated cervix
b)can be used in dilated cervix
c)face presentation
d) applied 3cm post. To Ant fontanel
e) applied 3cm ant. To post fontanel

8q: true abour radial nerve??
a)branch of posr cord
b)nerve of extensor compartment
c) c7 t1
d) ant interosi.. nerve is branch of it

9q: anterior triangle consist of?
a)submental trngle
b)carotid triangle
c)supraclavicular triangle

10q: seen in common peronel nerve injury?
a)inversion anability
b)loss of srnsation of sole
c)foot drop
d)loss of extension of great toe

402 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 1

1q: Which are not the flexors of forearm?
1)pronater teres
5)Flexor polic. longus

2q: non coding RNAs are

3q: The state where CPR is higher than the national value
a)west bengal

4q: glycophospholipids made up of...
1) glucose
2) glycerol
3) sphingosine
4) fatty acids
5) ????

5q: what all are seen in borellia burgdorferi ?
1)erythema chronicum migrans
2)acrodermatitis atrophicans
3)lymphocyte cutis

Friday, May 21, 2010

401 - AIIMS May 2010 Psychiatry Mcqs

196. Naltrexone is used in opioid dependence to
a) Prevent respiratory depression
b) Treat withdrawl symptoms
c) Prevent relapse
d) Detoxification of opioid overdose

197. Drug of choice in OCD
a) Fluoxetine
b) Imipramine
c) Alprazolam
d) Chlorpromazine

198. 3 yr old girl has delayed devolpmental milestone, delayed speech, difficulty in concentrating on studies, plays with herself & does not make friends. Diagnosis is
a) Autism
c) Specific learning disorder
d) Mental retardation

199. Most common substance abuse in India
a) Tobacco
b) Cannabis
c) Alcohol
d) Opium

200. A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is the diagnosis?
a) Binge eating
b) Bulimia nervosa
c) Schizophrenia
d) Anorexia nervosa

400 - AIIMS May 2010 Radiology Mcqs

190. A 48 yr old woman comes with b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural mid-dorsal midline enhancing
lesion. What is the diagnosis?
a) Intradural lipoma
b) Meningioma
c) Neuroenteric cyst
d) Dermoid cyst

191. A patient brought in unconscious state with external injuries. CT is normal with no midline shift and ventricles are normal. Multiple small hemorhages are seen at the base of the brain. Diagnosis is
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Diffuse axonal injuries
c) Concussion
d) Contusion

192. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone
a) CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain X-ray

193. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on usg is not sugestive of malignancy?
a) Hyperechogenesity
b) Hypoechogenesity
c) Non-homogenous
d) Microcalcification

194. Radiological features of left ventricular failure are all except
a) Oligemic lung fields
b) Increased flow in upper lobe veins
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Kerley B-lines

195. Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia
a) Thickened bone matrix
b) Cortical erosion
c) Ground glass appearance
d) Bone enlargement

399 - AIIMS May 2010 Anaesthesia Mcqs

187. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow
in the portal vein. Portal flow is
maximally reduced by
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) Enflurane

188. A young boy has sickle cell trait. which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
a) IV regional anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
c) Brachial plexus block by infraclavicular approach
d) Brachial plexus block by axillary approach

189. Methemoglobinemia caused by
a) Procaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Lignocaine

398 - AIIMS May 2010 Skin Mcqs

185. Which of the following is NOT a primary skin disease?
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Bowen’s disease
c) Psoriasis
d) Lichen planus

186. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Hensen’s disease
c) Weber-Christian disease
d) Urticarial vasculitis

397 - AIIMS May 2010 ENT Mcqs

180. Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea
a) Frontal sinus
b) Ethmoidal sinus
c) Tegmen tympani
d) Maxillary sinus

181. A case of Bell’s palsy presents on day 3. Which of the following is the appropriate
a) Oral steroids alone
b) Oral steroids + antiviral acyclovir
c) Acyclovir + amantadine
d) Intralabyrinthine steroids

182. Endolymph in inner ear produced by
a) Phalangeal cells
b) Stria vascularis
c) Lamina spiralis ossea
d) Basilar membrane

183. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are A/E
a) Cricothyroid
b) Thyrohyoid
c) Hyoepiglottic
d) Cricotracheal

184. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
a) Cochlear aqueduct
b) Endolymphatic sac
c) Vestibular aqueduct
d) Hyrtle fissure

396 - AIIMS May 2010 Opthalmology Mcqs

174. Which of the following does NOT scavenge free radicals in the lens?
a) Vit A
b) Vit C
c) Vit E
d) Catalase

175. Highest refractive index
a) Cornea
b) Anterior surface of lens
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Centre of lens

176. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Lens
d) Cornea

177. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India except?
a) Glaucoma
b) Congenital dacryocystitis
c) Malnutrition
d) Ophthalmia neonatorum

178. A young male presents with h/o unilateral progressive proptosis for many years. Swelling is increased on bending forward and compressible,USG shows retrobulbar echogenicity. What is
the diagnosis?
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Orbital varix
c) Orbital A-V fistula
d) Orbital encephalocele

179. Which of the following ocular conditions is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) Lawrence-Moon-Biedel syndrome
d) Bassen Kornzweig disease

395 - AIIMS May 2010 Obstetrics and Gynaecology Mcqs

158. Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to
a) Back of thigh
b) Gluteal region
c) Anterior surface of thigh
d) Medial surface of thigh

159. A woman with primary infertility with CA-125 level 90 iu. She has bilateral palpable mass. USG shows mass in pelvis. Diagnosis may be
a) Ovarian CA
b) TB
c) Endometrioma
d) Borderline ovarian tumor

160. Causes of primary amenorrhea are A/E
a) Rokitansky syndrome
b) Sheehan syndrome
c) Kallman syndrome
d) Turner syndrome

161. Test for ovarian reserve
a) LH
b) LH/FSH ratio
c) FSH
d) Estradiol

162. Clomiphene citrate – True statement is
a) Euclomiphene is antiestrogenic
b) Pregnancy rate is 3 times as compared to placebo
c) Incidence of twins is 5-6%
d) It has been shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males

163. At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated?
a) 34 weeks
b) 36 weeks
c) 38 weeks
d) 40 weeks

164. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding. After resuscitation most likely complication is
a) Galactorrhoea
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Loss of menstruation
d) Cushing’s syndrome

165. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
a) Tranexemic acid
b) Ethamsylate
c) Combined OCP
d) Progesterone

166. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in A/E
a) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
b) Mento-anterior
c) Extended breech
d) Dichorionic twins – First vertex, second breech

167. A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be
a) Cryosurgery
b) Conization
d) Hysterectomy

168. Lady undergoes total radical hysterectomy for Stage Ib Ca Cervix. It is found that Ca extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix. Next step of management
a) Chemotherapy
b) Radiotherapy
c) Chemoradiotherapy
d) Follow-up

169. All are seen in gestational diabetes except
a) Previous macrosomic baby
b) Obesity
c) Malformations
d) Polyhydramnios

170. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are A/E
a) Corticosteroids
b) Sulphasalazine
c) Methotrexate
d) Hydroxychloroquine

171. Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers
a) Barrier method
b) Combined OCP
c) Lactational amenorrhoea
d) Progesterone only pills

172. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
a) Phosphatidylesterase
b) Acetylcholinesterase
c) Pseudocholinesterase
d) Butyrylcholinesterase

173. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in 1st trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non compliant. Baby was born with hydrocephalus &
intracerebral calcification. Which of these is likely cause
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) CMV
c) Cryptococcus
d) Rubella

394 - AIIMS May 2010 Orthopaedics Mcqs

151. A 68 yr old man came with pain and swelling of right knee. Ahlbeck grade 2 osteoarthritic changes were found on investigation. What is the further management?
a) Conservative
b) Arthroscopic washout
c) High tibial osteotomy
d) Total knee replacement

152. Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s sarcoma

153. Posterior glenohumeral instability is tested by
a) Jerk test
b) Crank test
c) Sulcus test
d) Fulcrum test

154. Mineral of the bone is
a) Calcite
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate

155. 65 yrs old man with H/o of back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. Marked stiffness on examination. Mild restriction of chest movements. On X-ray, syndesmophytes are present. Diagnosis is
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
c) Ankylosing hyperosteosis
d) Lumbar canal stenosis

156. A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained. Next best investigation is
a) ANA
b) RF
c) CPK
d) TSH

157. Synovial fluid – True statements are A/E
a) Secreted by Type A cells
b) Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
c) Contains hyaluronic acid
d) Viscosity is variable

393 - AIIMS May 2010 Surgery Mcqs

134. Most sensitive screening procedure for CA Prostate
a) DRE
b) PSA
c) DRE + PSA
d) Endorectal coil MRI with T1W & T2W images

135. Orchiopexy for undescended testes is done ideally at what age?
a) Neonate
b) 1-2 yrs
c) 5 yrs
d) Puberty

136. Polyp not associated with risk of malignancy
a) Juvenile polyp
b) FAP
c) Peutz Jeghers syndrome
d) Juvenile polyposis syndrome

137. Peutz Jeghers polyps present in
a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Esophagus
d) Jejunum

138. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection
a) Uric acid
b) Triple phosphate
c) Calcium oxalate
d) Xanthine

139. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with
a) Hypokalemic acidosis
b) Hypokalemic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemic acidosis
d) Hyperkalemic alkalosis

140. A man with blunt abdominal trauma with h/o pelvic fracture has presented to ER. He has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs. His bladder is palpable per abdomen. Which of the following is correct?
a) Anuria due to hemorrhagic shock
b) Urethral injury
c) Ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum
d) Bladder rupture

141. Sister Mary Joseph nodule associated with
a) Pancreatic ca
b) Gastric ca
c) Colonic ca
d) Ovarian ca

142. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery & abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which of the following is required?
a) Left medial visceral rotation
b) Right medial visceral rotation
c) Cranial visceral rotation
d) Caudal visceral rotation

143. Best prognostic factor for head injury
a) Age
b) Mode of injury
c) Glasgow coma scale
d) CT finding

144. Most immediate complication of ileostomy in the post-operative period
a) Obstruction
b) Necrosis
c) Diarrhea
d) Prolapse

145. Follicular carcinoma differs from follicular adenoma by
a) Vascular invasion
b) Increased mitotic figures
c) Hurthle cell change
d) Lining of columnar & cuboidal cells

146. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – True are A/E
a) Follicular destruction
b) Increase in lymphocytes
c) Oncocytic metaplasia
d) Orphan Annie eye nuclei

147. Most reliable investigation for Amyloidosis
a) Rectal biopsy
b) Sigmoidoscopy
c) Colonoscopy
d) Gingival biopsy

148. A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
a) USG
b) X-ray KUB
c) Urine routine microscopy
d) Urine cytology for malignant cells

149. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy?
a) Depends on organ injured
b) Always midline
c) Always transverse
d) Depends upon type of injury

150. Which of the following is true about branchial anomalies?
a) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial arch
b) All patients present with stridor at birth
c) Branchial cyst is more common than sinus
d) All branchial sinuses need to be excised

392 - AIIMS May 2010 Paediatrics Mcqs

123. All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except
a) Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
b) Single S2
c) Loud P2
d) Graham Steele murmur

124. Eisenmenger syndrome – True are A/E
a) Pulmonary veins are not distended
b) RV & LV walls come back to normal size
c) Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
d) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries

125. Chang staging is used for
a) Retinoblastoma
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Rhabdomyosarcoma

126. Which is the most common CNS tumor to metastasize outside the brain?
a) Glioblastoma multiforme
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ependymoma
d) Choroid plexus tumor

127. Which of the following is a component of Pentalogy of Fallot
a) ASD
b) PDA
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) LVH

128. A newborn has been brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelle. CT shows midline lesion with hypoechogenesity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis is
a) Vein of Galen malformation
b) Arachnoid cyst
c) Teratoma
d) Encephalocele

129. 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is
a) CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Insulinoma

130. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children
a) Weight
b) Mid-arm circumference
c) Rate of increase of height & weight
d) Head circumference

131. A child presents with failure to thrive with frequent vomiting,diarrhoea,hepatosplenomegaly & abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
a) Adrenal hemorrhage
b) Wolman’s disease
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Addison’s disease

132. Most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume depletion in infant
a) Stroke volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Blood pressure

133. An alert 6 month old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR-45/min, HR-180/min, SBP-85 mm of Hg. Extremities are cold & mottled. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is
a) Early compensated hypovolemic shock
b) Early decompensated hypovolemic shock
c) Late compensated hypovolemic shock
d) Late decompensated shock due to SVT

391 - AIIMS May 2010 Medicine Mcqs

107. Hyperextensibility with normal elastic recoil is a feature of
a) Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c) Cutis laxa
d) Scleroderma

108. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true?
a) Intake of PUFA associated with decreased risk
b) Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta involvement
c) Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
d) Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se

109. Not a cardiovascular complication of HIV/AIDS
a) Cardiac tamponade
b) Recurrent arterial embolism
c) CHF
d) Aortic aneurysm

110. A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG. Fastest way of shifting potassium intracellularly is
a) Calcium gluconate IV
b) Oral resins
c) Insulin + glucose
d) Sodium bicarbonate

111. Features of hypocalcemia are A/E
a) Numbness & tingling
b) Circumoral paresthesia
c) Depressed tendon reflexes
d) Skin irritability & sensitivity

112. A young man back from leisure trip has swollen knee joints & foriegn body sensation in eyes. Llikely cause is
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Behcet’s disease
d) SLE

113. Cause of vasodilatation in spider nevi
a) Estrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Hepatotoxins
d) FSH

114. A patient presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the
vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
a) HBV
b) HCV
c) EBV
d) Parvovirus

115. Rapid infusion of insulin causes
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hyponatremia

116. Digitalis toxicity enhanced by A/E
a) Renal failure
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypomagnesemia

117. True about hemochromatosis
a) Is genetically heterogenous
b) Cannot be treated by phlebotomy
c) Completely penetrant
d) More common in female than male

118. Strawberry gingivitis seen in
a) Myelocytic infiltration
b) Phenytoin toxicity
c) Wegener granulomatosis
d) Klippel Trenaunay syndrome

119. A child presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
a) C3
b) C5a
c) C1 esterase inhibitor
d) C9

120. Test for assessment of absorptive function of colon
a) D-xylose test
b) NBT-PABA test
c) Fecal fat estimation
d) Schilling test

121. All are true about temporal arteritis except
a) Can lead to sudden bilateral blindness
b) More common in females
c) Worsens on exposure to heat
d) Mostly affects elderly

122. A pt presents with acute rheumatic carditis with fever. True statement is
a) Increased troponin T
b) Reduced myocardial contractility
c) Signs of inflammation and necrosis
d) Valve replacement will ameliorate CCF

390 - AIIMS May 2010 Pathology Mcqs

91. Coagulative necrosis seen in
a) TB
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Cryptococcal infection
d) Gangrene

92. Characteristic feature of acute inflammation
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vascular stasis
c) Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
d) Margination of leucocytes

93. Berry aneurysm – Defect lies in
a) Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b) Degeneration of media /muscle cell layer
c) Deposition of mucoid material in media
d) Low grade inflammation of vessel wall

94. Which of the following is associated with aging
a) Reduced cross linkages in collagen
b) Increased free radical injury
c) Somatic mutations in DNA
d) Increased superoxide dismutase levels

95. Caspases are associated with
a) Organogenesis
b) Hydropic degeneration
c) Collagen hyalinization
d) Not recalled

96. Smoking is a causative factor for all the carcinomas except
a) Esophageal carcinoma
b) Laryngeal carcinoma
c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d) Urinary bladder carcinoma

97. Barrett’s esophagus shoes
a) Intestinal dysplasia
b) Intestinal metaplasia
c) Squamous cell metaplasia
d) Columnar cell metaplasia

98. Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects
a) Post-capillary venules
b) Arterioles
c) Veins
d) Medium-sized arteries

99. Psammoma bodies seen in A/E
a) Follicular CA of thyroid
b) Papillary CA of thyroid
c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
d) Meningioma

100. Central organ in apoptosis
a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) ER
d) Golgi body

101. CD marker specific for myeloid series
a) CD34
b) CD45
c) CD99
d) CD117

102. Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is
a) Anticipation
b) Genomic imprinting
c) Germ line mosaicism
d) New mutation

103. Not true about xanthogranulomatous inflammation
a) Associated with TB
b) Yellow granuloma
c) Giant cells seen
d) Foam cells seen

104. All of the following genes are implicated in Carcinogenesis of colon except
a) APC
b) k-ras
c) Beta catenin
d) Mismatch repair

105. Wilm’s tumor associated with A/E
a) Hemihypertrophy
b) Aniridia
c) Hypertension
d) Bilateral polycystic kidney

106. Which of the following is NOT true about FAP?
a) AR inheritance
b) Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
c) Polyps develop in late adulthood
d) Epidermal cysts & osteomas may occur

389 - AIIMS May 2010 Microbiology Mcqs

76. Most sensitive test for Treponema
b) RPR
d) Kahn

77. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile ulcer. On Wright giemsa stain tiny organisms of 2 microns within macrophages seen. What is the causative organism?
a) LGV
b) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c) Neisseria
d) Staph aureus

78. Maltese cross seen on polarizing microscopy in
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Penicillium marneffi
c) Blastomyces
d) Candida albicans

79. Diagnostic of Rabies
a) Guaneri bodies
b) Negri bodies
c) Cowdry A body
d) Cowdry B body

80. HIV pt with malabsotion, fever, chronic diarrohea, with acid fast positive organism. What is the causative agent?
a) Giardia
b) Microsporidia
c) Isospora
d) E.histolytica

81. Congenital toxoplasmosis – False is
a) Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood
b) IgA is more sensitive than IgM for detection
c) Dye test is gold standard for IgG
d) Avidity testing must be done to differentiate between IgA & IgM

82. Malabsorption caused by A/E
a) Giardia
b) Ascaris
c) Strongyloides
d) Capillaria philipensis

83. Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E
a) Bone graft
b) Suture
c) Artificial tissue graft
d) Bronchoscope

84. Arbovirus – True is
a) Yellow fever is endemic in India
b) Dengue has only one serotype
c) KFD was first identified in West Bengal
d) Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes

85. Lymes disease all are true except
a) Borellia burgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
b) Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
c) Polmorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningeal involvement
d) IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis

86. Streptococcus all are true except
a) Streptodornase cleaves dna
b) Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
c) Streptokinase is produced from serotype strep. A,C,K
d) Pyrotoxin A is plasmid mediated

87. Not used in leptospirosis
a) Microscopic agglutination test
b) Dark field illumination
c) Macroscopic agglutination test
d) Weil felix reaction

88. Superantigens true is
a) Directtly attached to variable region of MHC
b) Needs to proccessed and presented to cleft of MHC
c) Not recalled
d) Not recalled

89. CD4+ is not important for which of the following
a) Antibody production
b) Cytotoxicity of T cells
c) Memory B cells
d) Opsonisation

90. Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in which of the following?
a) Excess of antibody
b) Excess of antigen
c) Equivalence of antibody and antigen
d) Antigen-Hapten Interaction

388 - AIIMS May 2010 Pharmacology Mcqs

64. Which is NOT an alkylating agent?
a) 5-FU
b) Chlorambucil
c) Melphalan
d) Cyclophosphamide

65. Which one of the following drugs cause hypomagnesemia by increased excretion?
a) Frusemide therapy
b) Cisplatin
c) Digitalis
d) Aminoglycosides

66. Which is NOT used in treatment of heroin dependence?
a) Disulfiram
b) Buprenorphine
c) Clonidine
d) Lofexidine

67. Dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agents
a) Bone marrow toxicity
b) GI toxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Respiratory problems

68. Opioid agonist are A/E
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Ketamine
d) Methadone

69. Drug NOT used in pulmonary hypertension
a) CCB
b) Endothelin receptor antagonist
c) Alpha blocker
d) Prostacyclin

70. Thalidomide is used in all except
a) HIV induced peripheral neuropathy
b) HIV induced mouth ulcer
c) Behcet's syndrome
d) Erythema nodosum leprosum

71. Oligospermia caused by
a) Methotrexate
b) Hydroxychloroquine
c) Leflunomide
d) D-Penicillamine

72. Which of the following drugs is both anti resoptive and bone formative?
a) Strontium ranelate
b) Calcitonin
c) Ibadronate
d) Teriperatide

73. Drug of choice for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
a) Antihistaminics
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) Dopamine agonists
d) Antacids

74. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring
a) Drug price
b) Unethical practices
c) Drug safety
d) Pharmacology students

75. All of the following drug is CYP3A inhibitor except
a) Erythromycin
b) Itraconazole
c) Ritonavir
d) Saquinavir

387 - AIIMS May 2010 SPM Mcqs

39. Global warming true is
a) CO2 is the major greenhouse gas
b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
c) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
d) Kyoto protocol called for 20%reduction in greenhouse effect

40. Vaccine with maximum efficacy
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) BCG
d) TT

41. NOT seen in fecal pollution
a) Staph
b) Strepto
c) E.coli
d) Clostridium perfringens

42. True about cow's milk are all except
a) Cow's milk contains 80% whey protein and not casein
b) Has more protein than breast milk
c) Has more K+ and Na+ than infant
d) Has less carbohydrates than mothers milk

43. Which of the following about lepromin test is not true?
a) It is negative in most children in first six months
b) It is a diagnostic test
c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive

44. Not spread by louse
a) Epidemic typhus
b) Q fever
c) Relapsing fever
d) Trench fever

45. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals?
a) Cataract
b) Epidemic conjunctivitis
c) Onchocerciasis
d) Trachoma

46. Direct standardisation is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.this is done because of differences in
a) Causes of death
b) Numerators
c) Age distribution
d) Denominators

47. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is
a) High prevalence
b) Low prevalence
c) High sensitivity
d) High specificity

48. Weight of Indian reference man
a) 60
b) 55
c) 50
d) 45

49. Aedes-True are A/E
a) Recurrent biters
b) Eggs can’t survive more than 1 wk in water
c) Transmits Dengue
d) It takes 7-8 days to develop the parasite & transmit the disease

50. Chlorine demand estimated by
a) Horrock’s apparatus
b) Berkefield filter
c) Chlorometer
d) Double pot method

51. STEPS done for
a) Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable disease
b) Surveillance of incidence of non-communicable disease
c) Surveillance of evaluation of treatment of noncommunicable disease
d) Surveillance of mortality from non-communicable disease

52. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Primordial prevention
d) Secondary prevention

53. Incidence can be calculated in
a) Case-control study
b) Prospective study
c) Retrospective study
d) Cross-sectional study

54. A doctor order 6 tests for SLE . Which of the following is needed for inference?
a) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of test
b) Incidence of SLE and predictivity of each test
c) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d) Relative risk of SLE in the patient

55. Mercury is disposed by
a) Controlled combustion
b) Deep burial
c) Safely collect & re-use
d) Chemical treatment

56. Which of the following is used to denote a continuous variable?
a) Simple bar
b) Histogram
c) Line diagram
d) Multiple bar

57. Crude birth rate – NOT true is
a) It is a measure of fertility
b) It is actually a ratio not a rate
c) it is independent of age of population
d) Numerator does not include still births

58. Savlon contains
a) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c) Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon

59. All of the following statements about purification of water are true except
a) Presence of Clostridial spores indicates recent contamination of water
b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize certain contaminants
d) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method & indole production

60. Leprosy involves A/E
a) Uterus
b) Ovary
c) Nerve
d) Eye

61. A pregnant female in first trimester came with sputum positive TB. Treatment of choice
a) Start Cat I treatment immediately
b) Start Cat II treatment immediately
c) Start Cat III treatment immediately
d) Delay treatment till 2nd trimester

62. In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied,Very satisfied,Dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio

63. Chikungunya is transmitted by
a) Aedes
b) Culex
c) Mansonoides
d) Anopheles

386 - AIIMS May 2010 Forensic Medicine Mcqs

33. Incised wounds on genitals are usually
a) Homicidal
b) Self-inflicted
c) Post-mortem artefact
d) Accidental

34. Heat rupture characterised by
a) Irregular margin
b) Clotted blood
c) Regular margin
d) Clotted blood vessels

35. Motorcyclist fracture – True is
a) Ring fracture
b) Sutural separation
c) Comminuted fracture of vault of skull
d) Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves

36. Commonest organ injured in blast injury
a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas

37. Damage produced by a bullet is related to its
a) Mass
b) Velocity
c) Shape
d) Size

38. A child brought with suspected ingestion presenting with dry mouth, dilated pupil ,
difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin. The substance is
a) Anti-cholinergic
b) Sympathetic
c) Cholinergic
d) Alpha blocker

385 - AIIMS May 2010 Biochemistry Mcqs

24. Splicing activity seen in
a) mRNA
b) snRNA
c) tRNA
d) rRNA

25. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA gyrase

26. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Cholesterol
d) Ketone bodies

27. After overnite fasing,levels of glucose tranporters reduced in
a) Brain
b) Muscle
c) Adipocytes
d) Hepatocyte

28. Insulin stimulates A/E
a) Glycolysis
b) Glycogenesis
c) Lipogenesis
d) Ketogenesis

29. Eukaryotic cell membrane contains A/E
a) Cholesterol
b) Triglycerides
c) Carbohydrates
d) Lecithin

30. All of the following are true bout sickle cell trait except
a) Single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b) A single base pair change leads to RFLP
c) Deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d) Offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes

31. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature for all of the following except
a) Hepatic porphyria
b) Niemann Pick disease
c) Von Gierke’s disease
d) Hurler syndrome

32. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives
greenish brown precipitate and blue black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Tyrosinemia type 2
d) Argininosuccinic aciduria

384 - AIIMS May 2010 Physiology Mcqs

16. Appetite is stimulated by A/E
a) Agouti related peptide
b) Melanocyte concentrating hormone
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
d) Neuropeptide Y

17. Capacitation occurs in
a) Uterus
b) Seminal vesicle
c) Epididymis
d) Vas deferens

18. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is
a) Raised blood pressure
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
d) Increased heart rate

19. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by
a) Chief cells
b) Parietal cells
c) Mucus cells
d) B cells

20. Somatomedin mediates
a) Deposition of chondroitin sulphate
b) Lipolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells

21. Hyperaldosteronism associated with all except
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypertension
d) Metabolic acidosis

22. Spinocerebellar tract – Function is
a) Equilibrium
b) Vision
c) Initiation & planning of movements
d) Smoothens & co-ordinates mvt

23. Chemotaxis – Main feature is
a) Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
b) Increase in phagocytosis
c) Increased random motion of neutrophils
d) Increased adhesiveness to intima

383 - AIIMS May 2010 Anatomy Mcqs

1. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of
a) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
b) Palatine division of maxillary nerve
c) Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve
d) Inferior alveolar nerve

2. All the following muscles retracts the scapula EXCEPT
a) Trapezius
b) Rhomboid major
c) Rhomboid minor
d) Levator scapulae

3. Cranial nerve NOT carrying parasympathetic fibres
a) 4th
b) 7th
c) 3rd
d) 9th

4. Prostatic urethra – True are A/E
a) Trapezoid in cross section
b) Elevated round swelling called verumontanum
c) Opening of prostatic ducts
d) Posterior part has urethral crest

5. Morgagni hernia presents most commonly on
a) Left posterior
b) Right anterior
c) Right posterior
d) Left anterior

6. Meralgia parasthetica is due to involvement of
a) Sural nerve
b) Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d) Peroneal nerve

7. Celiac plexus is located
a) Anterolateral & around the aorta
b) Posterolateral & around the aorta
c) Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain

8. Paneth cells – True is
a) Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) High zinc content
c) Foamy cytoplasm
d) Numerous lysozyme granules

9. About sternocleidomastoid tumor all are true except –
a) Always associated with breech
b) Spontaenous resolution in most cases
c) Two-third have palpable neck mass at birth
d) Uncorrected cases develops plagiocephaly

10. The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a) Smell
b) Taste
c) Touch
d) Balance

11. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except?
a. Maxillary sinus
a) Interior of nasal cavity
b) Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
c) Ethmoidal air cells

12. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree
flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?
a) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
b) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medial border of patella
c) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of patella
d) No change in position

13. Pain insensitive structure in brain is
a) Falx cerebri
b) Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
c) Choroid plexus
d) Middle meningeal artery

14. Appendices epiploiceae present in
a) Appendix
b) Cecum
c) Rectum
d) Sigmoid colon

15. Pelvic splanchnic nerve supplies A/E
a) Appendix
b) Rectum
c) Uterus
d) Urinary bladder

Thursday, May 13, 2010

382 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 11

51q: Lice TRANSMITS a/e?
a. Q fever
b. trench fever
c. epidemic typhus
d. relapsing fever

52q: Hyperextensibility with NORMAL elastic recoil is a feature of
a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. cutis laxa
c. scleroderma
d. ???????

53q: capacitation of sperm occurs in?
a. uterus.
b. epididymis.
c. vas deferen
d. ??????

54q: Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made of all except?
a. carbohydrates
b. lecithin
c. triglycerides
d. cholesterol

55q: which of the following doesnt affect free radicals in the lens?
a. vit a
b. vit c
c. vit e
d. catalase.

381 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 10

46q: What is the cause of berry aneurysms?
a. degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b. degeneration of media / muscle cell layer
c. deposition of mucoid material in media
d. low grade inflammation of vessel wall

47q: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal dominant disorder:
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) LMB
d) ????????

48q: which of the following organs will be affected maximally by the effects of a blast (bomb blast)
a. lung
b. liver
c. skeletal tissue
d. nervous system

49q: Leprosy affects all of the following except
a. uterus
b. eyes
c. ovaries
d. nerves

50q: The capacity of a bullet to cause maximum destruction lies in its
a. size
b. shape
c. weight
d. velocity

Monday, May 10, 2010

380 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 9

41q: Pain insensitive structure in brain is
a. Falx cerebri
b. Dural venous sinuses
c. Choroid plexus
d. Middle meningeal a.

42q: Carcinogenesis in colon implicates all of the following genes except
a. APC
b. k-ras
c. beta-catenin
d. mismatch repair genes

43q: Infant wid congestive cardiac failure.. bulging fontanelle with a bruit which can be auscultated.. CT shows midline lesion with dilated lateral ventricles.. diagnosis is..??
a. vein of galen malformation ANS
b. arachnoid cyst
c. teratoma
d. ... ???

44q: 48 yr old woman comes wid b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity present
on MRI mass enhancing dorsal intradural lesion present .. (rest of da description dont remember..) .. diagnosis
a. Intradural lipoma
b. Meningioma
c. Neuroenteric cyst
d. ...

45q: Savlon contains:-
a. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d. Cetrimide + Cetavlon

379 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 8

36q: Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a. Osteosarcoma ANS
b. chondrosarcoma
c. osteoclastoma
d. ewings sarcoma

37q: coagulative necrosis is seen in
a. TB
b. gangrene
c. cryptococcal
d. sarcoidosis

38q: Amyloidosis .. most reliable investigation
a. rectal biopsy
b. ct scan
c. colonoscopy
d. ?????

39q: The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a. smell
b. taste
c. touch
d. balance

40q: A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. what will happen?
a. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds lat border of patella
b. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds medial border of patella
c. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds centre of patella

378 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 7

31q: A 35 yr old lady comes with primary infertility. There is a mass palpable and her CA-125 levels ar 90(units). What's most probable diagnosis?
a. Ca Ovary
b. borderline ca Ovary
c. tuberculosis
d. endometrioma

32q: Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients?
a. GCS
b. CT findings
c. Age of the pt
d. ?????

33q: All of the following r true bout sickle cell anemia except
a. single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b. a single base pair change leads to RFLP ,.. aisa kuch tha??
c. deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end.. due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d. offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes

34q: Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal.. cause/mechanism of inheritance
a. Anticipation
b. Genomic imprinting
c. Germ cell line mosaicism
d. ... ??

35q: Most important form of substance abuse in india
a. tobacco
b. alcohol
c. cannabis
d. opioids

377 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 6

26q: drug causing oligospermia
a. leflunamide
b. d-penicillinamine
c. methotrexate
d. L- asparginase /bleomycin

27q: Infant with repeated vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly (+).. CT shows adrenal gland calcification. What is the diagnosis
a. adrenal hemorrhage
b. cushings
c. wolmans disease
d. ??????????

28q: Incised wounds on genitalia during postmortem indicate
a. Homicidal
b. Self inflicted
c. Accidental
d. ????????

29q: Gestational diabetes mellitus.. what is NOT usually seen
a. past h/o macrosomic baby
b. malformations
c. obesity
d. polyhydramnios

30q: All are causes of primary amenorrhea except
a. rokitansky syn
b. sheehan's syn
c. kallman's syn
d. turner's syn

376 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 5

21q: Paneth cells have
a. High zinc content
b. Numerous lysozyme granules
c. Rich RER
d. ??????

22q: Commonly seen with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
a. hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
b. hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
c. hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
d. hypokalemic metabolic acidosis

23q: boy with blunt abd trauma - h/o pelvic fracture .. has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs.. bladder is palpable.. which of the following is correct?
a. anuria d/t haemorhagic shock
b. urethral injury
c. ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum?
d. bladder rupture

24q: Thalidomide is used in all of the following except
a. HIV associated peripheral neuropathy
b. HIV associated mouth ulcers
c. behcets disease
d. ENL

25q: Most specific marker for myeloid series
a. CD 117
b. CD 99
c. CD 45
d. CD 34

Sunday, May 9, 2010

375 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 4

16q: CYP3A inhibition is caused by all except
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir

*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition. 

17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma

18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum

19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus

20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3

374 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 3

11q: Which of the following is most diagnostic of Rabies?
a. Negri bodies
b. Guarnerii bodies
c. Cowdry B bodies

12q: Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of
a. Sural nerve
b. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d. Peroneal nerve

13q: Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except
a. Dura matter in Anterior fossa
b. Internal nasal cavity
c. Ethmoidal cells
d. Lining of maxillary sinus

14q: What is the most sensitive test for the detection of prostate cancer
a. Per rectal examination
b. Per rectal examination + PSA
c. PSA
d. MRI coil inside rectum

15q: What is the best investigation for Fracture of temporal bone?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography

373 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 2

6q: Which of the following is not used in a 26 year old patient with Sickle cell anemia?
a. IV regional anaesthesia
b. Brachial plexus supraclavicular application block
c. Brachial plexus axillary approach block
d. ??????

7q: Post glenohumeral instability is tested by which of the following
a. Crank test
b. Fulcrum test
c. Jerk test
d. Sulcus test

8q: A 20 year old has a swollen right ankle involvement with nodular painful swelling. He has associated fever and malaise. What is the probable diagnosis
a. Hansen disease
b. Weber christian disease
c. Erythema nodosum

9q: A 35 year old lady with parity = 3, presents with CIN III. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Cryotherapy
c. Conisation
d. Hysterectomy

10q: Faecal contamination of water is indicated by all except
a. Streptococcus
b. Staph.aureus
c. E.coli
d. Clostridium perfringens

372 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 1

1q: Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of which of the following
a. Specific protection
b. Health promotion
c. Secondary protection
d. Primordial prevention

2q: What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a. Imipramine
b. Alprazolam
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Fluoxetine

3q: A 60 year old presents with total painless gross hematuria. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria would be
a. USG
b. KUB X-ray
c. Urine C/E
d. Urine for malignant cells

4q: Portal flow is decreased to lowest in
a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Ether
d. Enflurane

5q: Cryoglobulinemia is associated with
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

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