196. Naltrexone is used in opioid dependence to
a) Prevent respiratory depression
b) Treat withdrawl symptoms
c) Prevent relapse
d) Detoxification of opioid overdose
197. Drug of choice in OCD
a) Fluoxetine
b) Imipramine
c) Alprazolam
d) Chlorpromazine
198. 3 yr old girl has delayed devolpmental milestone, delayed speech, difficulty in concentrating on studies, plays with herself & does not make friends. Diagnosis is
a) Autism
b) ADHD
c) Specific learning disorder
d) Mental retardation
199. Most common substance abuse in India
a) Tobacco
b) Cannabis
c) Alcohol
d) Opium
200. A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is the diagnosis?
a) Binge eating
b) Bulimia nervosa
c) Schizophrenia
d) Anorexia nervosa
Showing posts with label aiims may 2010 complete paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label aiims may 2010 complete paper. Show all posts
Friday, May 21, 2010
400 - AIIMS May 2010 Radiology Mcqs
190. A 48 yr old woman comes with b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural mid-dorsal midline enhancing
lesion. What is the diagnosis?
a) Intradural lipoma
b) Meningioma
c) Neuroenteric cyst
d) Dermoid cyst
191. A patient brought in unconscious state with external injuries. CT is normal with no midline shift and ventricles are normal. Multiple small hemorhages are seen at the base of the brain. Diagnosis is
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Diffuse axonal injuries
c) Concussion
d) Contusion
192. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone
a) CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain X-ray
193. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on usg is not sugestive of malignancy?
a) Hyperechogenesity
b) Hypoechogenesity
c) Non-homogenous
d) Microcalcification
194. Radiological features of left ventricular failure are all except
a) Oligemic lung fields
b) Increased flow in upper lobe veins
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Kerley B-lines
195. Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia
a) Thickened bone matrix
b) Cortical erosion
c) Ground glass appearance
d) Bone enlargement
lesion. What is the diagnosis?
a) Intradural lipoma
b) Meningioma
c) Neuroenteric cyst
d) Dermoid cyst
191. A patient brought in unconscious state with external injuries. CT is normal with no midline shift and ventricles are normal. Multiple small hemorhages are seen at the base of the brain. Diagnosis is
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Diffuse axonal injuries
c) Concussion
d) Contusion
192. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone
a) CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain X-ray
193. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on usg is not sugestive of malignancy?
a) Hyperechogenesity
b) Hypoechogenesity
c) Non-homogenous
d) Microcalcification
194. Radiological features of left ventricular failure are all except
a) Oligemic lung fields
b) Increased flow in upper lobe veins
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Kerley B-lines
195. Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia
a) Thickened bone matrix
b) Cortical erosion
c) Ground glass appearance
d) Bone enlargement
399 - AIIMS May 2010 Anaesthesia Mcqs
187. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow
in the portal vein. Portal flow is
maximally reduced by
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) Enflurane
188. A young boy has sickle cell trait. which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
a) IV regional anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
c) Brachial plexus block by infraclavicular approach
d) Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
189. Methemoglobinemia caused by
a) Procaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Lignocaine
in the portal vein. Portal flow is
maximally reduced by
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) Enflurane
188. A young boy has sickle cell trait. which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
a) IV regional anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
c) Brachial plexus block by infraclavicular approach
d) Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
189. Methemoglobinemia caused by
a) Procaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Lignocaine
398 - AIIMS May 2010 Skin Mcqs
185. Which of the following is NOT a primary skin disease?
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Bowen’s disease
c) Psoriasis
d) Lichen planus
186. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Hensen’s disease
c) Weber-Christian disease
d) Urticarial vasculitis
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Bowen’s disease
c) Psoriasis
d) Lichen planus
186. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Hensen’s disease
c) Weber-Christian disease
d) Urticarial vasculitis
397 - AIIMS May 2010 ENT Mcqs
180. Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea
a) Frontal sinus
b) Ethmoidal sinus
c) Tegmen tympani
d) Maxillary sinus
181. A case of Bell’s palsy presents on day 3. Which of the following is the appropriate
management?
a) Oral steroids alone
b) Oral steroids + antiviral acyclovir
c) Acyclovir + amantadine
d) Intralabyrinthine steroids
182. Endolymph in inner ear produced by
a) Phalangeal cells
b) Stria vascularis
c) Lamina spiralis ossea
d) Basilar membrane
183. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are A/E
a) Cricothyroid
b) Thyrohyoid
c) Hyoepiglottic
d) Cricotracheal
184. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
a) Cochlear aqueduct
b) Endolymphatic sac
c) Vestibular aqueduct
d) Hyrtle fissure
a) Frontal sinus
b) Ethmoidal sinus
c) Tegmen tympani
d) Maxillary sinus
181. A case of Bell’s palsy presents on day 3. Which of the following is the appropriate
management?
a) Oral steroids alone
b) Oral steroids + antiviral acyclovir
c) Acyclovir + amantadine
d) Intralabyrinthine steroids
182. Endolymph in inner ear produced by
a) Phalangeal cells
b) Stria vascularis
c) Lamina spiralis ossea
d) Basilar membrane
183. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are A/E
a) Cricothyroid
b) Thyrohyoid
c) Hyoepiglottic
d) Cricotracheal
184. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
a) Cochlear aqueduct
b) Endolymphatic sac
c) Vestibular aqueduct
d) Hyrtle fissure
396 - AIIMS May 2010 Opthalmology Mcqs
174. Which of the following does NOT scavenge free radicals in the lens?
a) Vit A
b) Vit C
c) Vit E
d) Catalase
175. Highest refractive index
a) Cornea
b) Anterior surface of lens
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Centre of lens
176. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Lens
d) Cornea
177. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India except?
a) Glaucoma
b) Congenital dacryocystitis
c) Malnutrition
d) Ophthalmia neonatorum
178. A young male presents with h/o unilateral progressive proptosis for many years. Swelling is increased on bending forward and compressible,USG shows retrobulbar echogenicity. What is
the diagnosis?
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Orbital varix
c) Orbital A-V fistula
d) Orbital encephalocele
179. Which of the following ocular conditions is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) Lawrence-Moon-Biedel syndrome
d) Bassen Kornzweig disease
a) Vit A
b) Vit C
c) Vit E
d) Catalase
175. Highest refractive index
a) Cornea
b) Anterior surface of lens
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Centre of lens
176. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Lens
d) Cornea
177. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India except?
a) Glaucoma
b) Congenital dacryocystitis
c) Malnutrition
d) Ophthalmia neonatorum
178. A young male presents with h/o unilateral progressive proptosis for many years. Swelling is increased on bending forward and compressible,USG shows retrobulbar echogenicity. What is
the diagnosis?
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Orbital varix
c) Orbital A-V fistula
d) Orbital encephalocele
179. Which of the following ocular conditions is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) Lawrence-Moon-Biedel syndrome
d) Bassen Kornzweig disease
394 - AIIMS May 2010 Orthopaedics Mcqs
151. A 68 yr old man came with pain and swelling of right knee. Ahlbeck grade 2 osteoarthritic changes were found on investigation. What is the further management?
a) Conservative
b) Arthroscopic washout
c) High tibial osteotomy
d) Total knee replacement
152. Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s sarcoma
153. Posterior glenohumeral instability is tested by
a) Jerk test
b) Crank test
c) Sulcus test
d) Fulcrum test
154. Mineral of the bone is
a) Calcite
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
155. 65 yrs old man with H/o of back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. Marked stiffness on examination. Mild restriction of chest movements. On X-ray, syndesmophytes are present. Diagnosis is
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
c) Ankylosing hyperosteosis
d) Lumbar canal stenosis
156. A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained. Next best investigation is
a) ANA
b) RF
c) CPK
d) TSH
157. Synovial fluid – True statements are A/E
a) Secreted by Type A cells
b) Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
c) Contains hyaluronic acid
d) Viscosity is variable
a) Conservative
b) Arthroscopic washout
c) High tibial osteotomy
d) Total knee replacement
152. Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s sarcoma
153. Posterior glenohumeral instability is tested by
a) Jerk test
b) Crank test
c) Sulcus test
d) Fulcrum test
154. Mineral of the bone is
a) Calcite
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
155. 65 yrs old man with H/o of back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. Marked stiffness on examination. Mild restriction of chest movements. On X-ray, syndesmophytes are present. Diagnosis is
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
c) Ankylosing hyperosteosis
d) Lumbar canal stenosis
156. A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained. Next best investigation is
a) ANA
b) RF
c) CPK
d) TSH
157. Synovial fluid – True statements are A/E
a) Secreted by Type A cells
b) Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
c) Contains hyaluronic acid
d) Viscosity is variable
393 - AIIMS May 2010 Surgery Mcqs
134. Most sensitive screening procedure for CA Prostate
a) DRE
b) PSA
c) DRE + PSA
d) Endorectal coil MRI with T1W & T2W images
135. Orchiopexy for undescended testes is done ideally at what age?
a) Neonate
b) 1-2 yrs
c) 5 yrs
d) Puberty
136. Polyp not associated with risk of malignancy
a) Juvenile polyp
b) FAP
c) Peutz Jeghers syndrome
d) Juvenile polyposis syndrome
137. Peutz Jeghers polyps present in
a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Esophagus
d) Jejunum
138. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection
a) Uric acid
b) Triple phosphate
c) Calcium oxalate
d) Xanthine
139. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with
a) Hypokalemic acidosis
b) Hypokalemic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemic acidosis
d) Hyperkalemic alkalosis
140. A man with blunt abdominal trauma with h/o pelvic fracture has presented to ER. He has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs. His bladder is palpable per abdomen. Which of the following is correct?
a) Anuria due to hemorrhagic shock
b) Urethral injury
c) Ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum
d) Bladder rupture
141. Sister Mary Joseph nodule associated with
a) Pancreatic ca
b) Gastric ca
c) Colonic ca
d) Ovarian ca
142. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery & abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which of the following is required?
a) Left medial visceral rotation
b) Right medial visceral rotation
c) Cranial visceral rotation
d) Caudal visceral rotation
143. Best prognostic factor for head injury
a) Age
b) Mode of injury
c) Glasgow coma scale
d) CT finding
144. Most immediate complication of ileostomy in the post-operative period
a) Obstruction
b) Necrosis
c) Diarrhea
d) Prolapse
145. Follicular carcinoma differs from follicular adenoma by
a) Vascular invasion
b) Increased mitotic figures
c) Hurthle cell change
d) Lining of columnar & cuboidal cells
146. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – True are A/E
a) Follicular destruction
b) Increase in lymphocytes
c) Oncocytic metaplasia
d) Orphan Annie eye nuclei
147. Most reliable investigation for Amyloidosis
a) Rectal biopsy
b) Sigmoidoscopy
c) Colonoscopy
d) Gingival biopsy
148. A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
a) USG
b) X-ray KUB
c) Urine routine microscopy
d) Urine cytology for malignant cells
149. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy?
a) Depends on organ injured
b) Always midline
c) Always transverse
d) Depends upon type of injury
150. Which of the following is true about branchial anomalies?
a) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial arch
b) All patients present with stridor at birth
c) Branchial cyst is more common than sinus
d) All branchial sinuses need to be excised
a) DRE
b) PSA
c) DRE + PSA
d) Endorectal coil MRI with T1W & T2W images
135. Orchiopexy for undescended testes is done ideally at what age?
a) Neonate
b) 1-2 yrs
c) 5 yrs
d) Puberty
136. Polyp not associated with risk of malignancy
a) Juvenile polyp
b) FAP
c) Peutz Jeghers syndrome
d) Juvenile polyposis syndrome
137. Peutz Jeghers polyps present in
a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Esophagus
d) Jejunum
138. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection
a) Uric acid
b) Triple phosphate
c) Calcium oxalate
d) Xanthine
139. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with
a) Hypokalemic acidosis
b) Hypokalemic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemic acidosis
d) Hyperkalemic alkalosis
140. A man with blunt abdominal trauma with h/o pelvic fracture has presented to ER. He has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs. His bladder is palpable per abdomen. Which of the following is correct?
a) Anuria due to hemorrhagic shock
b) Urethral injury
c) Ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum
d) Bladder rupture
141. Sister Mary Joseph nodule associated with
a) Pancreatic ca
b) Gastric ca
c) Colonic ca
d) Ovarian ca
142. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery & abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which of the following is required?
a) Left medial visceral rotation
b) Right medial visceral rotation
c) Cranial visceral rotation
d) Caudal visceral rotation
143. Best prognostic factor for head injury
a) Age
b) Mode of injury
c) Glasgow coma scale
d) CT finding
144. Most immediate complication of ileostomy in the post-operative period
a) Obstruction
b) Necrosis
c) Diarrhea
d) Prolapse
145. Follicular carcinoma differs from follicular adenoma by
a) Vascular invasion
b) Increased mitotic figures
c) Hurthle cell change
d) Lining of columnar & cuboidal cells
146. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – True are A/E
a) Follicular destruction
b) Increase in lymphocytes
c) Oncocytic metaplasia
d) Orphan Annie eye nuclei
147. Most reliable investigation for Amyloidosis
a) Rectal biopsy
b) Sigmoidoscopy
c) Colonoscopy
d) Gingival biopsy
148. A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
a) USG
b) X-ray KUB
c) Urine routine microscopy
d) Urine cytology for malignant cells
149. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy?
a) Depends on organ injured
b) Always midline
c) Always transverse
d) Depends upon type of injury
150. Which of the following is true about branchial anomalies?
a) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial arch
b) All patients present with stridor at birth
c) Branchial cyst is more common than sinus
d) All branchial sinuses need to be excised
392 - AIIMS May 2010 Paediatrics Mcqs
123. All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except
a) Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
b) Single S2
c) Loud P2
d) Graham Steele murmur
124. Eisenmenger syndrome – True are A/E
a) Pulmonary veins are not distended
b) RV & LV walls come back to normal size
c) Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
d) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries
125. Chang staging is used for
a) Retinoblastoma
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Rhabdomyosarcoma
126. Which is the most common CNS tumor to metastasize outside the brain?
a) Glioblastoma multiforme
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ependymoma
d) Choroid plexus tumor
127. Which of the following is a component of Pentalogy of Fallot
a) ASD
b) PDA
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) LVH
128. A newborn has been brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelle. CT shows midline lesion with hypoechogenesity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis is
a) Vein of Galen malformation
b) Arachnoid cyst
c) Teratoma
d) Encephalocele
129. 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is
a) CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Insulinoma
130. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children
a) Weight
b) Mid-arm circumference
c) Rate of increase of height & weight
d) Head circumference
131. A child presents with failure to thrive with frequent vomiting,diarrhoea,hepatosplenomegaly & abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
a) Adrenal hemorrhage
b) Wolman’s disease
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Addison’s disease
132. Most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume depletion in infant
a) Stroke volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Blood pressure
133. An alert 6 month old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR-45/min, HR-180/min, SBP-85 mm of Hg. Extremities are cold & mottled. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is
a) Early compensated hypovolemic shock
b) Early decompensated hypovolemic shock
c) Late compensated hypovolemic shock
d) Late decompensated shock due to SVT
a) Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
b) Single S2
c) Loud P2
d) Graham Steele murmur
124. Eisenmenger syndrome – True are A/E
a) Pulmonary veins are not distended
b) RV & LV walls come back to normal size
c) Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
d) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries
125. Chang staging is used for
a) Retinoblastoma
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Rhabdomyosarcoma
126. Which is the most common CNS tumor to metastasize outside the brain?
a) Glioblastoma multiforme
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ependymoma
d) Choroid plexus tumor
127. Which of the following is a component of Pentalogy of Fallot
a) ASD
b) PDA
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) LVH
128. A newborn has been brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelle. CT shows midline lesion with hypoechogenesity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis is
a) Vein of Galen malformation
b) Arachnoid cyst
c) Teratoma
d) Encephalocele
129. 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is
a) CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Insulinoma
130. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children
a) Weight
b) Mid-arm circumference
c) Rate of increase of height & weight
d) Head circumference
131. A child presents with failure to thrive with frequent vomiting,diarrhoea,hepatosplenomegaly & abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
a) Adrenal hemorrhage
b) Wolman’s disease
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Addison’s disease
132. Most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume depletion in infant
a) Stroke volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Blood pressure
133. An alert 6 month old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR-45/min, HR-180/min, SBP-85 mm of Hg. Extremities are cold & mottled. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is
a) Early compensated hypovolemic shock
b) Early decompensated hypovolemic shock
c) Late compensated hypovolemic shock
d) Late decompensated shock due to SVT
387 - AIIMS May 2010 SPM Mcqs
39. Global warming true is
a) CO2 is the major greenhouse gas
b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
c) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
d) Kyoto protocol called for 20%reduction in greenhouse effect
40. Vaccine with maximum efficacy
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) BCG
d) TT
41. NOT seen in fecal pollution
a) Staph
b) Strepto
c) E.coli
d) Clostridium perfringens
42. True about cow's milk are all except
a) Cow's milk contains 80% whey protein and not casein
b) Has more protein than breast milk
c) Has more K+ and Na+ than infant
d) Has less carbohydrates than mothers milk
43. Which of the following about lepromin test is not true?
a) It is negative in most children in first six months
b) It is a diagnostic test
c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive
44. Not spread by louse
a) Epidemic typhus
b) Q fever
c) Relapsing fever
d) Trench fever
45. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals?
a) Cataract
b) Epidemic conjunctivitis
c) Onchocerciasis
d) Trachoma
46. Direct standardisation is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.this is done because of differences in
a) Causes of death
b) Numerators
c) Age distribution
d) Denominators
47. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is
a) High prevalence
b) Low prevalence
c) High sensitivity
d) High specificity
48. Weight of Indian reference man
a) 60
b) 55
c) 50
d) 45
49. Aedes-True are A/E
a) Recurrent biters
b) Eggs can’t survive more than 1 wk in water
c) Transmits Dengue
d) It takes 7-8 days to develop the parasite & transmit the disease
50. Chlorine demand estimated by
a) Horrock’s apparatus
b) Berkefield filter
c) Chlorometer
d) Double pot method
51. STEPS done for
a) Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable disease
b) Surveillance of incidence of non-communicable disease
c) Surveillance of evaluation of treatment of noncommunicable disease
d) Surveillance of mortality from non-communicable disease
52. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Primordial prevention
d) Secondary prevention
53. Incidence can be calculated in
a) Case-control study
b) Prospective study
c) Retrospective study
d) Cross-sectional study
54. A doctor order 6 tests for SLE . Which of the following is needed for inference?
a) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of test
b) Incidence of SLE and predictivity of each test
c) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d) Relative risk of SLE in the patient
55. Mercury is disposed by
a) Controlled combustion
b) Deep burial
c) Safely collect & re-use
d) Chemical treatment
56. Which of the following is used to denote a continuous variable?
a) Simple bar
b) Histogram
c) Line diagram
d) Multiple bar
57. Crude birth rate – NOT true is
a) It is a measure of fertility
b) It is actually a ratio not a rate
c) it is independent of age of population
d) Numerator does not include still births
58. Savlon contains
a) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c) Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
59. All of the following statements about purification of water are true except
a) Presence of Clostridial spores indicates recent contamination of water
b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize certain contaminants
d) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method & indole production
60. Leprosy involves A/E
a) Uterus
b) Ovary
c) Nerve
d) Eye
61. A pregnant female in first trimester came with sputum positive TB. Treatment of choice
a) Start Cat I treatment immediately
b) Start Cat II treatment immediately
c) Start Cat III treatment immediately
d) Delay treatment till 2nd trimester
62. In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied,Very satisfied,Dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
63. Chikungunya is transmitted by
a) Aedes
b) Culex
c) Mansonoides
d) Anopheles
a) CO2 is the major greenhouse gas
b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
c) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
d) Kyoto protocol called for 20%reduction in greenhouse effect
40. Vaccine with maximum efficacy
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) BCG
d) TT
41. NOT seen in fecal pollution
a) Staph
b) Strepto
c) E.coli
d) Clostridium perfringens
42. True about cow's milk are all except
a) Cow's milk contains 80% whey protein and not casein
b) Has more protein than breast milk
c) Has more K+ and Na+ than infant
d) Has less carbohydrates than mothers milk
43. Which of the following about lepromin test is not true?
a) It is negative in most children in first six months
b) It is a diagnostic test
c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive
44. Not spread by louse
a) Epidemic typhus
b) Q fever
c) Relapsing fever
d) Trench fever
45. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals?
a) Cataract
b) Epidemic conjunctivitis
c) Onchocerciasis
d) Trachoma
46. Direct standardisation is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.this is done because of differences in
a) Causes of death
b) Numerators
c) Age distribution
d) Denominators
47. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is
a) High prevalence
b) Low prevalence
c) High sensitivity
d) High specificity
48. Weight of Indian reference man
a) 60
b) 55
c) 50
d) 45
49. Aedes-True are A/E
a) Recurrent biters
b) Eggs can’t survive more than 1 wk in water
c) Transmits Dengue
d) It takes 7-8 days to develop the parasite & transmit the disease
50. Chlorine demand estimated by
a) Horrock’s apparatus
b) Berkefield filter
c) Chlorometer
d) Double pot method
51. STEPS done for
a) Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable disease
b) Surveillance of incidence of non-communicable disease
c) Surveillance of evaluation of treatment of noncommunicable disease
d) Surveillance of mortality from non-communicable disease
52. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Primordial prevention
d) Secondary prevention
53. Incidence can be calculated in
a) Case-control study
b) Prospective study
c) Retrospective study
d) Cross-sectional study
54. A doctor order 6 tests for SLE . Which of the following is needed for inference?
a) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of test
b) Incidence of SLE and predictivity of each test
c) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d) Relative risk of SLE in the patient
55. Mercury is disposed by
a) Controlled combustion
b) Deep burial
c) Safely collect & re-use
d) Chemical treatment
56. Which of the following is used to denote a continuous variable?
a) Simple bar
b) Histogram
c) Line diagram
d) Multiple bar
57. Crude birth rate – NOT true is
a) It is a measure of fertility
b) It is actually a ratio not a rate
c) it is independent of age of population
d) Numerator does not include still births
58. Savlon contains
a) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c) Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
59. All of the following statements about purification of water are true except
a) Presence of Clostridial spores indicates recent contamination of water
b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize certain contaminants
d) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method & indole production
60. Leprosy involves A/E
a) Uterus
b) Ovary
c) Nerve
d) Eye
61. A pregnant female in first trimester came with sputum positive TB. Treatment of choice
a) Start Cat I treatment immediately
b) Start Cat II treatment immediately
c) Start Cat III treatment immediately
d) Delay treatment till 2nd trimester
62. In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied,Very satisfied,Dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
63. Chikungunya is transmitted by
a) Aedes
b) Culex
c) Mansonoides
d) Anopheles
385 - AIIMS May 2010 Biochemistry Mcqs
24. Splicing activity seen in
a) mRNA
b) snRNA
c) tRNA
d) rRNA
25. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA gyrase
26. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Cholesterol
d) Ketone bodies
27. After overnite fasing,levels of glucose tranporters reduced in
a) Brain
b) Muscle
c) Adipocytes
d) Hepatocyte
28. Insulin stimulates A/E
a) Glycolysis
b) Glycogenesis
c) Lipogenesis
d) Ketogenesis
29. Eukaryotic cell membrane contains A/E
a) Cholesterol
b) Triglycerides
c) Carbohydrates
d) Lecithin
30. All of the following are true bout sickle cell trait except
a) Single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b) A single base pair change leads to RFLP
c) Deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d) Offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
31. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature for all of the following except
a) Hepatic porphyria
b) Niemann Pick disease
c) Von Gierke’s disease
d) Hurler syndrome
32. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives
greenish brown precipitate and blue black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Tyrosinemia type 2
d) Argininosuccinic aciduria
a) mRNA
b) snRNA
c) tRNA
d) rRNA
25. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA gyrase
26. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Cholesterol
d) Ketone bodies
27. After overnite fasing,levels of glucose tranporters reduced in
a) Brain
b) Muscle
c) Adipocytes
d) Hepatocyte
28. Insulin stimulates A/E
a) Glycolysis
b) Glycogenesis
c) Lipogenesis
d) Ketogenesis
29. Eukaryotic cell membrane contains A/E
a) Cholesterol
b) Triglycerides
c) Carbohydrates
d) Lecithin
30. All of the following are true bout sickle cell trait except
a) Single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b) A single base pair change leads to RFLP
c) Deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d) Offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
31. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature for all of the following except
a) Hepatic porphyria
b) Niemann Pick disease
c) Von Gierke’s disease
d) Hurler syndrome
32. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives
greenish brown precipitate and blue black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Tyrosinemia type 2
d) Argininosuccinic aciduria
Thursday, May 13, 2010
382 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 11
51q: Lice TRANSMITS a/e?
a. Q fever
b. trench fever
c. epidemic typhus
d. relapsing fever
52q: Hyperextensibility with NORMAL elastic recoil is a feature of
a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. cutis laxa
c. scleroderma
d. ???????
53q: capacitation of sperm occurs in?
a. uterus.
b. epididymis.
c. vas deferen
d. ??????
54q: Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made of all except?
a. carbohydrates
b. lecithin
c. triglycerides
d. cholesterol
55q: which of the following doesnt affect free radicals in the lens?
a. vit a
b. vit c
c. vit e
d. catalase.
a. Q fever
b. trench fever
c. epidemic typhus
d. relapsing fever
52q: Hyperextensibility with NORMAL elastic recoil is a feature of
a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. cutis laxa
c. scleroderma
d. ???????
53q: capacitation of sperm occurs in?
a. uterus.
b. epididymis.
c. vas deferen
d. ??????
54q: Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made of all except?
a. carbohydrates
b. lecithin
c. triglycerides
d. cholesterol
55q: which of the following doesnt affect free radicals in the lens?
a. vit a
b. vit c
c. vit e
d. catalase.
381 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 10
46q: What is the cause of berry aneurysms?
a. degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b. degeneration of media / muscle cell layer
c. deposition of mucoid material in media
d. low grade inflammation of vessel wall
47q: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal dominant disorder:
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) LMB
d) ????????
48q: which of the following organs will be affected maximally by the effects of a blast (bomb blast)
a. lung
b. liver
c. skeletal tissue
d. nervous system
49q: Leprosy affects all of the following except
a. uterus
b. eyes
c. ovaries
d. nerves
50q: The capacity of a bullet to cause maximum destruction lies in its
a. size
b. shape
c. weight
d. velocity
a. degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b. degeneration of media / muscle cell layer
c. deposition of mucoid material in media
d. low grade inflammation of vessel wall
47q: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal dominant disorder:
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) LMB
d) ????????
48q: which of the following organs will be affected maximally by the effects of a blast (bomb blast)
a. lung
b. liver
c. skeletal tissue
d. nervous system
49q: Leprosy affects all of the following except
a. uterus
b. eyes
c. ovaries
d. nerves
50q: The capacity of a bullet to cause maximum destruction lies in its
a. size
b. shape
c. weight
d. velocity
Monday, May 10, 2010
380 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 9
41q: Pain insensitive structure in brain is
a. Falx cerebri
b. Dural venous sinuses
c. Choroid plexus
d. Middle meningeal a.
42q: Carcinogenesis in colon implicates all of the following genes except
a. APC
b. k-ras
c. beta-catenin
d. mismatch repair genes
43q: Infant wid congestive cardiac failure.. bulging fontanelle with a bruit which can be auscultated.. CT shows midline lesion with dilated lateral ventricles.. diagnosis is..??
a. vein of galen malformation ANS
b. arachnoid cyst
c. teratoma
d. ... ???
44q: 48 yr old woman comes wid b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity present
on MRI mass enhancing dorsal intradural lesion present .. (rest of da description dont remember..) .. diagnosis
a. Intradural lipoma
b. Meningioma
c. Neuroenteric cyst
d. ...
45q: Savlon contains:-
a. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d. Cetrimide + Cetavlon
a. Falx cerebri
b. Dural venous sinuses
c. Choroid plexus
d. Middle meningeal a.
42q: Carcinogenesis in colon implicates all of the following genes except
a. APC
b. k-ras
c. beta-catenin
d. mismatch repair genes
43q: Infant wid congestive cardiac failure.. bulging fontanelle with a bruit which can be auscultated.. CT shows midline lesion with dilated lateral ventricles.. diagnosis is..??
a. vein of galen malformation ANS
b. arachnoid cyst
c. teratoma
d. ... ???
44q: 48 yr old woman comes wid b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity present
on MRI mass enhancing dorsal intradural lesion present .. (rest of da description dont remember..) .. diagnosis
a. Intradural lipoma
b. Meningioma
c. Neuroenteric cyst
d. ...
45q: Savlon contains:-
a. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d. Cetrimide + Cetavlon
379 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 8
36q: Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a. Osteosarcoma ANS
b. chondrosarcoma
c. osteoclastoma
d. ewings sarcoma
37q: coagulative necrosis is seen in
a. TB
b. gangrene
c. cryptococcal
d. sarcoidosis
38q: Amyloidosis .. most reliable investigation
a. rectal biopsy
b. ct scan
c. colonoscopy
d. ?????
39q: The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a. smell
b. taste
c. touch
d. balance
40q: A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. what will happen?
a. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds lat border of patella
b. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds medial border of patella
c. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds centre of patella
d.......
a. Osteosarcoma ANS
b. chondrosarcoma
c. osteoclastoma
d. ewings sarcoma
37q: coagulative necrosis is seen in
a. TB
b. gangrene
c. cryptococcal
d. sarcoidosis
38q: Amyloidosis .. most reliable investigation
a. rectal biopsy
b. ct scan
c. colonoscopy
d. ?????
39q: The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a. smell
b. taste
c. touch
d. balance
40q: A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. what will happen?
a. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds lat border of patella
b. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds medial border of patella
c. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds centre of patella
d.......
378 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 7
31q: A 35 yr old lady comes with primary infertility. There is a mass palpable and her CA-125 levels ar 90(units). What's most probable diagnosis?
a. Ca Ovary
b. borderline ca Ovary
c. tuberculosis
d. endometrioma
32q: Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients?
a. GCS
b. CT findings
c. Age of the pt
d. ?????
33q: All of the following r true bout sickle cell anemia except
a. single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b. a single base pair change leads to RFLP ,.. aisa kuch tha??
c. deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end.. due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d. offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
34q: Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal.. cause/mechanism of inheritance
a. Anticipation
b. Genomic imprinting
c. Germ cell line mosaicism
d. ... ??
35q: Most important form of substance abuse in india
a. tobacco
b. alcohol
c. cannabis
d. opioids
a. Ca Ovary
b. borderline ca Ovary
c. tuberculosis
d. endometrioma
32q: Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients?
a. GCS
b. CT findings
c. Age of the pt
d. ?????
33q: All of the following r true bout sickle cell anemia except
a. single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b. a single base pair change leads to RFLP ,.. aisa kuch tha??
c. deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end.. due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d. offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
34q: Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal.. cause/mechanism of inheritance
a. Anticipation
b. Genomic imprinting
c. Germ cell line mosaicism
d. ... ??
35q: Most important form of substance abuse in india
a. tobacco
b. alcohol
c. cannabis
d. opioids
377 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 6
26q: drug causing oligospermia
a. leflunamide
b. d-penicillinamine
c. methotrexate
d. L- asparginase /bleomycin
27q: Infant with repeated vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly (+).. CT shows adrenal gland calcification. What is the diagnosis
a. adrenal hemorrhage
b. cushings
c. wolmans disease
d. ??????????
28q: Incised wounds on genitalia during postmortem indicate
a. Homicidal
b. Self inflicted
c. Accidental
d. ????????
29q: Gestational diabetes mellitus.. what is NOT usually seen
a. past h/o macrosomic baby
b. malformations
c. obesity
d. polyhydramnios
30q: All are causes of primary amenorrhea except
a. rokitansky syn
b. sheehan's syn
c. kallman's syn
d. turner's syn
a. leflunamide
b. d-penicillinamine
c. methotrexate
d. L- asparginase /bleomycin
27q: Infant with repeated vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly (+).. CT shows adrenal gland calcification. What is the diagnosis
a. adrenal hemorrhage
b. cushings
c. wolmans disease
d. ??????????
28q: Incised wounds on genitalia during postmortem indicate
a. Homicidal
b. Self inflicted
c. Accidental
d. ????????
29q: Gestational diabetes mellitus.. what is NOT usually seen
a. past h/o macrosomic baby
b. malformations
c. obesity
d. polyhydramnios
30q: All are causes of primary amenorrhea except
a. rokitansky syn
b. sheehan's syn
c. kallman's syn
d. turner's syn
376 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 5
21q: Paneth cells have
a. High zinc content
b. Numerous lysozyme granules
c. Rich RER
d. ??????
22q: Commonly seen with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
a. hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
b. hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
c. hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
d. hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
23q: boy with blunt abd trauma - h/o pelvic fracture .. has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs.. bladder is palpable.. which of the following is correct?
a. anuria d/t haemorhagic shock
b. urethral injury
c. ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum?
d. bladder rupture
24q: Thalidomide is used in all of the following except
a. HIV associated peripheral neuropathy
b. HIV associated mouth ulcers
c. behcets disease
d. ENL
25q: Most specific marker for myeloid series
a. CD 117
b. CD 99
c. CD 45
d. CD 34
a. High zinc content
b. Numerous lysozyme granules
c. Rich RER
d. ??????
22q: Commonly seen with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
a. hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
b. hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
c. hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
d. hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
23q: boy with blunt abd trauma - h/o pelvic fracture .. has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs.. bladder is palpable.. which of the following is correct?
a. anuria d/t haemorhagic shock
b. urethral injury
c. ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum?
d. bladder rupture
24q: Thalidomide is used in all of the following except
a. HIV associated peripheral neuropathy
b. HIV associated mouth ulcers
c. behcets disease
d. ENL
25q: Most specific marker for myeloid series
a. CD 117
b. CD 99
c. CD 45
d. CD 34
Sunday, May 9, 2010
375 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 4
16q: CYP3A inhibition is caused by all except
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir
c.
d.
*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition.
17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d.
18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum
19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus
d.
20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir
c.
d.
*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition.
17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d.
18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum
19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus
d.
20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3
374 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 3
11q: Which of the following is most diagnostic of Rabies?
a. Negri bodies
b. Guarnerii bodies
c. Cowdry B bodies
d.
12q: Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of
a. Sural nerve
b. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d. Peroneal nerve
13q: Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except
a. Dura matter in Anterior fossa
b. Internal nasal cavity
c. Ethmoidal cells
d. Lining of maxillary sinus
14q: What is the most sensitive test for the detection of prostate cancer
a. Per rectal examination
b. Per rectal examination + PSA
c. PSA
d. MRI coil inside rectum
15q: What is the best investigation for Fracture of temporal bone?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography
a. Negri bodies
b. Guarnerii bodies
c. Cowdry B bodies
d.
12q: Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of
a. Sural nerve
b. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d. Peroneal nerve
13q: Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except
a. Dura matter in Anterior fossa
b. Internal nasal cavity
c. Ethmoidal cells
d. Lining of maxillary sinus
14q: What is the most sensitive test for the detection of prostate cancer
a. Per rectal examination
b. Per rectal examination + PSA
c. PSA
d. MRI coil inside rectum
15q: What is the best investigation for Fracture of temporal bone?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography
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