Sunday, November 20, 2011

470 - PGI Chandigarh November 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 2

6.Pancreatitis is seen in all except
a.intraductal mucinus carcinoma
b.gall stones
c.pancreatic divisum

7.Inflammatory arthritis are all except:
C. Psoriatic arthritis
D. Gout arthritis

8.True about colles fracture:
A. Ventral tilt
B. Dorsalt tilt
C. Ventral displacement
D. Dorsal displacement
E. Shortening

Explanation: A Colles' fracture, also Colles fracture, is a fracture of the distal radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist and hand. The fracture is sometimes referred to as a "dinner fork" or "bayonet" deformity due to the shape of the resultant forearm. For a more detailed discussion see distal radius fracture.
The diagnostic findings in colles' fracture are:
1.Dorsal tilt
2.Radial shortening
3.Loss of ulnar inclination
4.Radial angulation of the wrist
5.Dorsal displacement of the distal fragment
6.Comminution at the fracture site
7.Associated fracture of the ulnar styloid process in more than 60% of cases.

9.Malignant tumors are:
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Chondrosarcoma
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Ewing sarcoma

10.Duret hemorhage seen in..

469 - PGI Chandigarh November 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 1

1.Non-cicatrizing alopecia is seen in
a.alopecia aereata
b.androgenic alopecia

2.Erythroderma is seen in
a.pityriasis rosea
b.pityriasis versicolor
d.lichen planus

3.DNA repair defect seen in
a.xeroderma pigmentosa
b.ataxia telangectasia
c.bloom syndrome
d.lifraumeni syndrome
e.danys drash syndrome

4.Diagnostic in obstructive jaundice is or are
a. urobilinogen absent in urine
b. stercobilinogen absent in urine
c. increased enzyme levels
d. normal acid phosphatase
e. normal alkaline phosphatase

5.Which of the following are B cell markers?
a.CD 20
b.CD 22
c.CD 79a

449 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 21

101. Spondylolisthesis - which of these you would not do :
A. CT scan
C. lumbar region x-ray- AP view
D. lumbar region x-ray - lateral view

I personally think the answer is C. About the other options, CT scan generally gives axial sections of the spine, by which the anterior movement of one vertebra over other is difficult to assess. However, there is 3D imaging option in CT which helps us to image the spine in all the planes (coronal,sagittal etc) by which spondylolisthesis can be detected. The MRI is always the gold standard for any spine pathologies because of its varied techniques and varied planes of visualization. The lumbar spine lateral view X-ray gives us a very clear indication of the spondylolisthesis by easily demonstrating the anterior movement of one vertebral body over other and disturbing the anterior and posterior vertebral lines.AP lumbar region x-ray is the least useful of the options given below, because it is difficult to assess spondylolisthesis, when you are looking at the spine anteroposteriorly or posteroanteriorly. So the answer is C.

102.which is most effective in EDSS in multiple sclerosis?
a.interferon gamma
b.interferon beta
c.glatiramer acetate

103.Which of the following is indicated in prenatal lady with congenital adrenal hyperplasia ? a.fludrocortisone

104.T4 to T3 conversion is blocked by all except?
A. Propanolol
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Methimazole
D. Amiodarone

105.Which of the following has LEAST chance of progression to multiple sclerosis
A. Optic nerve involvement
B. Absence of oligoclonal antibodies in CSF
C. Truncal ataxia
D. Pyramidal involvement

Saturday, November 19, 2011

448 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 20

96. All are true about oxygenase except
a.incorporates one atom of O2
b.incorporates both atoms of O2
c.hydroxylation of drugs
d.carboxylation of steroids

97.In PCR, all of the following are used except :
a.Template DNA
d.DNA polymerase

98.Clay coloured stools passed by a child.Yellowish discoloration of sclera is also noted. Which of these is least likely to be raised :
d.Glutamate dehydrogenase

99.which of these is a wrong match?
a.digoxin - p glycoprotein
b.carvedilol- CYP2P6
c.ca2+ channel blocker- CYP3A4
d.simvastatin - glucoronide conjugation

100.Drug used to prevent HIV transmission from pregnant mother to child

447 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 19

91.Karyotyping of fetus can be done from all except
d.Fetal skin biopsy

92.Most common cause of Addisons disease in india is

93.Ozurdex is
a.0.7% dexamethasone
b.0.7% betamethasone
c.0.3% triamcinolone
d.0.7% triamcinolone

94.Commonest location of cholangiocarcinoma :
c.Around CBD

95.Investigation of choice for zenkers diverticulum
b.Barium swallow
d.Oesophageal manometry

446 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 18

86.NESTROFF test is used in

87.Dilator pupillae is supplied by ganglionic parasympathetic fibers ganglionic sympathetic fibers
c.oculomotor nerve
d.trigeminal nerve

88.Which of the following is a recent direct thrombin inhibitor
a.dazoxiben b.ximelgatran c.fondaparinux d.eptifibatide

89.What is the most common mode of injury in anterior shoulder dislocation
a.abduction and external rotation
b.adduction and internal rotation
c.abduction and internal rotation
d.adduction and external rotation

90.Which of the following is not leukemogenic
c.aplastic anemia
d.myelodysplastic syndrome

445 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 17

81.A child of down's syndrome presents with mental retardation.All of the following are seen except :
a. trisomy 21
b. mosiac 21
c. balanced translocation 21/21
d. deletion 21

82.Which investigation should be avoided in a proven case of renal papillary necrosis?
A. Urine acidification test
B. Sickling test
C. TB-PCR – urine
D. Bacterial culture of urine

83.A known alcoholic presents with flexed metacarpophalangeal joint of little finger at 15 degrees.What should be done?
b.percutaneous fasciotomy
c.subtotal fasciotomy fasciotomy

84.Gallow's traction is done in
a.Fracture femur
b.Fracture tibia
c.Fracture humerus

85.Alzheimer's disease is associated with all of these except :

EXPLANATION: (Read the below lines from Harrison 18th edition) :
The cognitive changes of Alzheimer's disease(AD) tend to follow a characteristic pattern, beginning with memory impairment and spreading to language and visuospatial deficits. Yet, approximately 20% of patients with AD present with nonmemory complaints such as word-finding, organizational, or navigational difficulty. In the early stages of the disease, the memory loss may go unrecognized or be ascribed to benign forgetfulness. Once the memory loss becomes noticeable to the patient and spouse and falls 1.5 standard deviations below normal on standardized memory tests, the term MCI is applied. This construct provides useful prognostic information, because approximately 50% of patients with MCI (roughly 12% per year) will progress to AD over 4 years. Slowly the cognitive problems begin to interfere with daily activities, such as keeping track of finances, following instructions on the job, driving, shopping, and housekeeping. Some patients are unaware of these difficulties (anosognosia), while others remain acutely attuned to their deficits. Changes in environment (such as vacations or hospital stays) may be disorienting, and the patient may become lost on walks or while driving. In the middle stages of AD, the patient is unable to work, is easily lost and confused, and requires daily supervision. Social graces, routine behavior, and superficial conversation may be surprisingly intact. Language becomes impaired—first naming, then comprehension, and finally fluency. In some patients, aphasia is an early and prominent feature. Word-finding difficulties and circumlocution may be a problem even when formal testing demonstrates intact naming and fluency. Apraxia emerges, and patients have trouble performing learned sequential motor tasks. Visuospatial deficits begin to interfere with dressing, eating, or even walking, and patients fail to solve simple puzzles or copy geometric figures. Simple calculations and clock reading become difficult in parallel.

Friday, November 18, 2011

444 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 16

76.A Cricket player hit his thumb catching a ball. For which of the following will you investigate ?
a.Abductor pollicis longus
b.Extensor pollicis brevis
c.Ulna collateral ligament
d.Volar plate

77.An Old man presented with single episode of new onset seizures. Drug of choice is 
c.Sodium valproate

78.Eye pupil is not dilating to 1% pilocarpine. Most probable cause is
a.Adie's pupil
b.Diabetes mellitus occulomotor palsy
c.Pharmacological block
d.Uncal herniation

79.A Girl presents with primary amenorrhea, secondary sexual characters present,no uterus and no ovary,pubic hairs are absent. The most probable diagnosis is
b.Androgen insensitivity
d.Gonadal dysgenesis

80.For which of the following conditions giving Prostaglandins is detrimental
a.Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
b.Pulmonary atresia
c.Obstructive TAPVC
d.Aortic arch interruption

443 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 15

71.Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation test?
a.3.5% sodium citrate
d.Sodium oxalate

72.Adverse(deleterious) effects of hypothermia are all except:
a.Cardiac arrythmia
b.Decreased peripheral resistance
c.Reversible coagulopathy
d.Renal failure

73.Eosinophilia is not seen with?
a.Contrast nephropathy
b.Drug induced nephropathy
c.Atheromatous plaque
d.Polyarteritis nodosa

74.Stack method of dental estimation is used for
c.25-30 years
d.greater than 50 years

75.Lid retraction is caused by

Thursday, November 17, 2011

442 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 14

66.A patient presents with pain over the thumb, index and middle finger. All of the following tests are done except
a.Finkelstein test
b.Tinel test
c.Phalen test
d.Torniquet test

67. Which of the following is not involved in translation in eukaryotes?
b.Peptidyl transferase
c.Aminoacyl tRNA
d.RNA polymerase

68. Ossification centre first appears at –
a.end of 2nd month
b.beginning of 2nd month
c.end of 3rd month
d.beginning of 3rd month

Ossification centres appear over a long period during bone growth, many in embryonic life, some in prenatal life, and others well into the postnatal growing period. Initially microscopic, the ossification centres soon become macroscopic and their growth can then be followed by radiological and other scanning techniques.   Many bones, including carpal, tarsal, lacrimal, nasal, and zygomatic bones, inferior nasal conchae and auditory ossicles, ossify from a single centre. Even in this limited group, centres appear between the eighth intrauterine week and the tenth year, a wide sequence for studying growth or estimating age.
However, most bones ossify from several centres, one of which appears in late embryonic or early fetal life (seventh week to fourth month), in the centre of the future bone.
Ossification progresses from the centres towards the ends, which are still cartilaginous at birth. These terminal regions ossify from separate centres, sometimes multiple, which appear between birth and the late teens, and so they are secondary to the earlier primary centre from which much of the bone ossifies. This is the pattern in long bones, as well as in some shorter elements such as the metacarpals and metatarsals, and in the ribs and clavicles.
From the above explanation i presumed the answer to be END OF 2ND MONTH.

69. A patient presents with proptosis and pain after 4 hrs of injury. A bruise is noted in the eye and frontal area?
a.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
b. Internal carotid artery aneurysm
c. Carotico-cavernous fistula
d.Sphenoid fracture

70.Efavirenz acts through the following mechanism
a.Protease inhibitor
b.Preventing HIV entry into cell
c.Reverse transcriptase inhibitor
d.Integrase inhibitor

Tuesday, November 15, 2011

441 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 13

61.Drug used for non infectious uveitis in LUMINATE
a. cyclosporin
b. infliximab
c. methotrexate
d. voclosporin

62.Percentage of endothelium destroyed in keratoplasty?

63.Azithromycin prophylaxis in trachoma given when prevalence above?

64.Post operative ileus is maximum in:

65.Which retinal layer is most resistant to radiation
b.layers of rods and cones
c.bipolar cell layer
d.ganglion cell layer

440 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 12

56.Marker of bone formation are all except
b.alkaline phosphatase
c.procollagen residue

57.Criteria for primary hyperaldosteronism, all except
a.diastolic hypertension without edema
b.metabolic acidosis present
c.low secretion of renin.
d.low secretion of aldosterone inspite of reduced volume of fluid

58.Bremelanotide used for
a.Erectile dysfunction
c.Prostatic cancer
d.Metastatic renal cancer

59.Post operative ileus is maximum in:

60.According to organ transplantation act 1994 what punishment for doctor if found guilty ?
a.2 yrs
b.more than 5 yrs
c.4 yrs
d.2-5 yrs

439 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 11

51.A 3 year old has eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His mother has a history of Bronchial asthma. Diagnosis should be
a.Atopic dermatitis
b.Contact dermatitis
c.Seborrhic dermatitis
d.Infantile eczematous dermatitis

52.Which of the following is not true about Xenon anaesthesia
a.Non explosive
b.Minimal cardiovascular side effects
c.Slow induction and slow recovery
d.Low blood gas solubility

53.Which of the following in anaesthesia will produce decreased EEG activities
b.Early hypoxia

54.Ultrasound criteria for congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis are all except
a.Food remnants in stomach
b.Pyloric canal length greater than 16mm
c.Thickness of the lesion greater than 4mm

Ultrasonographic signs of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, originally described in 1977 and further defined, are as follows:
1.A MucosalThickness (serosa to mucosa) greater than 3 mm (a correlation between MT and the patient's age exists; the most reliable ultrasonographic sign is an MT greater than 3 mm. Because this measurement can be increased falsely with off-axis imaging, attention to technique is important.)
2.Target sign on transverse images of the pylorus.
3.Pyloric channel length greater than 17 mm
4.Pyloric thickness (serosa to serosa) of 15 mm or greater
5.Failure of the channel to open during a minimum of 15 minutes of scanning
6.Retrograde or hyperperistaltic contractions
7.Antral nipple sign (ie, a prolapse of redundant mucosa into the antrum, which creates a pseudomass. 8.Double-track sign on ultrasonography(ie, redundant mucosa in the narrowed lumen, which creates 2 mucosal outlines).
9.Other findings include reversible portal venous gas; nonuniform echogenicity of the pyloric muscle.

55.In herpes zoster all are seen commonly except?
a. Pseudo dendritic
b. Anterior stromal
c. Endothelial
d. Sclerokeratitis

438 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 10

46.After coming head of breech will have difficulty in delivery in all of the following conditions except
b.Placenta previa
c.Incomplete dilatation of cervix
d.Extension of head

47.Lady with infertility with B/L tubal block at cornua. Best method of management is:
a.Laparoscopy and Hysteroscopy

48.Which of the following is least likely physiological change in pregnancy
a.Increase in intravascular volume
b.Increase in cardiac output
c.Increase in stroke volume
d.Increase in peripheral vascular resistance

49.HRT is useful in all except
c.Vaginal atrophy
d.Coronary heart disease

50.Oculomotor nerve palsy causes all except
c.Outward eye deviation

437 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 9

41.Which is not elevated in a child presenting with jaundice, icterus, pruritis and clay coloured stools.
a.Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase
b.Alkaline phosphatase
d.Glutamate dehydrogenase

42.A 45 year old female complains of progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy. MRI shows intradural enhancing mass lesion. Most likely diagnosis is
a.Dermoid cyst
b.Intradural lipoma
c.Neuroepithelial cyst

43.Which of the following is not a prognostic factor for acute pancreatitis
c.AST elevation
d.Increased serum amylase

44.Following are associated with CV junction anomalies except
a.Basilar invagination
b.Odontoid dysgenesis
c.Ankylosing spondylosis
d.Rheumatoid arthritis

45.Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child

436 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 8

36.HAM test is done for
a.G.P.I anchor protein
b.Complement defect
c.Spectrin defect
d.Mannose binding protein

37.16 year old girl wth primary amenorrhea attends OPD. She has normal sexual development and normal breast but with absent public and axillary hair. Examination shows B/L inguinal hernias.USG shows absent uterus and blind vagina. Diagnosis will be
a.Turner syndrome
b.Mullerian agenesis
c.Star syndrome
d.Androgen insensitivity syndrome

38.A newborn presents with congestive heart failure, on examination has bulging anterior fontanellae with a bruit on auscultation. Transfontanella USG shows a hypoechoic midline mass with dilated lateral ventricles. Most likely diagnosis is
c.Vein of Galen malformation
d.Arachnoid cyst

39.All the following can occur in a neonate for heat production except
b.Breakdown of brownfat with adrenaline secretion
c.Universal flexion like a fetus
d.Cutaneous vasoconstriction

40.The important fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth is
a.Docosahexaenoic acid
b.Palmitic acid
c.Linoleic acid
d.Linolenic acid

435 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 7

31.The most common gene defect in idiopathic steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome

32.Treatment for multiple sclerosis
a.Interferon alpha
b.Interferon beta
d.Interferon gamma

33.Which of the following is not a limb girdle dystrophy
a.Sarcoglycan dystrophy
b.Dystrophin dystrophy
c.Dysferin dystrophy
d.Calpain dystrophy

34.Which of the following exclusively involve neurons
a.Spinocerebellar ataxia
b.Supranuclear palsy
c.Corticobasilar degeneration
d.Multiple system atrophy

35.A young male patient presents with LDL = 600mg/dl, triglycerides = 160mg/dl. What would be the most likely finding on physical examination
a.Tendon xanthoma
b.Lipemia retinalis
c.Eruptive tuberous xanthomas

434 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 6

26.A young male patient presented with urethral discharge. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be the best for culture
a.McCoy cell line
b.Thayer martin medium
d.Levinthal medium

27.With reference to Bacteroides fragilis, the following statements are true except
a.B.fragilis is the same frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
b.B.fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
c.The lipopolysaccaride formed by B.fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
d.Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia

28.A child had pustular lesion on leg. On gram staining gram positive cocci are seen. To establish the diagnosis of Group A Streptococcal erythroderma, the test used is
a.Bile solubility test
b.Catalase test
c.Optochin sensitivity
d.Bacitracin sensitivity

29.A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is
a.Staphylococcus aureus
b.Viridans streptococci
c.Enterococcus faecalis
d.Coagulase negative staphylococcus

30.In acute inflammation due to the contraction of endothelial cell cytoskeleton, which of the following results
a.Delayed transient increase in permiability
b.Early transient increase
c.Delayed permanent increase
d.Early permanent increase

433 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 5

21.Using a new technique, Hb was estimated in a blood sample. The test was repeated for 10 times. The reports were : 9.5, 9.2, 9.4, 9.6, 9.7, 9.9, 10.2, 10.3, 10.5, 12.1. Accurate value of Hb was estimated by standard tests to be 10.2. The new technique has
a.High validity and high reliability
b.Low validity and low reliability
c.High validity and low reliability
d.Low validity and high reliability

22.In a study in UK, an association was found between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in deaths due to asthma. This is an example of
a.Ecological study
b.Cohort study
c.Case reference study
d.Experimental study

23.Which epidemiological study gives the most accurate result
a.Meta analysis
b.Cross-sectional study
c.Randomized control trial with double blinding
d.Cohort study

24.The following drug is not useful for MRSA

25.An elderly male presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, sputum cultured on charcoal yeast medium, the organism is
b.Moraxella catarrhalis
d.Burkholderia cepacia

Monday, November 14, 2011

432 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 4

16.Chymotrypsinogen is a

17.Anticoagulant used to estimate glucose from a sample sent from PHC is
b.Calcium oxalate
c.Potassium oxalate + NaF
d.Sodium Citrate

18.The 40nm gap in between the tropocollagen molecule in collagen which serve as the site of bone formation is occupied by which of the following
b.Ligand moiety

19.You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know :
a.Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test
b.Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test
c.Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d.Relative risk of SLE in this patient

20.Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in
a.Causes of death
c.Age distributions

431 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 3

11.In India, syndromic management is done for
a.Chancroid and chancre
b.Chancroid and herpes genitalis
c.Chancroid,Chancre and herpes genitalis
d.Chancre and herpes genitalis

12.Which of the following is not a part of superficial perineal pouch?
a.Posterior scrotal nerves
b.Sphincter urethrae
c.Ducts of bulbourethral glands
d.Bulbospongiosus muscle

13.Mizuo phenomenon is seen in
a.Oguchi's disease
b.Fundus apunctaneus
c.Fundus amaculateus

14.Mean arterial pressure is calculated as:

15.Same aminoacid is coded by multiple codons due to following :
b.Frame shift mutation

Sunday, November 13, 2011

430 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 2

6.Which is true about octreotide?
a.Stimulates growth hormone
b.Used in secretory diarrhea
c.Used orally
d.Contraindicated in acromegaly

Currently, the most widely used somatostatin analog is octreotide (SANDOSTATIN), an 8-amino-acid synthetic derivative of somatostatin that has a longer half-life and binds preferentially to SSTR2 and SSTR5 receptors. Typically, octreotide (100 g) is administered subcutaneously three times daily; bioactivity is virtually 100%, peak effects are seen within 30 minutes, serum half-life is approximately 90 minutes, and duration of action is approximately 12 hours. The goal of treatment is to decrease GH levels to less than 2 ng/ml after an oral glucose tolerance test and to bring IGF-1 levels to within the normal range for age and gender. Depending on the biochemical response, higher or lower octreotide doses may be used in individual patients. In addition to its effect on GH secretion, octreotide can decrease tumor size—although tumor growth generally resumes after octreotide treatment is stopped. Octreotide also has significant inhibitory effects on thyrotropin secretion, and it is the treatment of choice for patients who have thyrotrope adenomas that oversecrete TSH and who are not good candidates for surgery. Gastrointestinal side effects—including diarrhea, nausea, and abdominal pain—occur in up to 50% of patients receiving octreotide. In most patients, these symptoms diminish over time and do not require cessation of therapy. Approximately 25% of patients receiving octreotide develop gallstones, presumably due to decreased gallbladder contraction and gastrointestinal transit time. In the absence of symptoms, gallstones are not a contraindication to continued use of octreotide. Compared to somatostatin, octreotide reduces insulin secretion to a lesser extent and only infrequently affects glycemic control. The need to inject octreotide three times daily poses a significant obstacle to patient compliance. A long-acting, slow-release form (SANDOSTATIN LAR) is a more convenient alternative that can be administered intramuscularly once every 4 weeks; the recommended dose is 20 or 30 mg. The long-acting preparation is at least as effective as the regular formulation and is used in patients who have responded favorably to a trial of the shorter-acting formulation of octreotide. Like the shorter-acting formulation, the longer-acting formulation of octreotide generally is well tolerated and has a similar incidence of side effects (predominantly gastrointestinal and/or discomfort at the injection site) that do not require cessation of therapy.

7.Regular drinking of which of the following prevents UTI?
a.Grape juice
b.Raspberry juice
c.Cranberry juice
d.Orange juice

8.Following artery damage will cause least effect on body while doing surgery?
a.Superior Mesenteric artery
b.Inferior Mesenteric artery
c.Coeliac axis
d.Renal artery

9.Liver plate includes all except
a.Hilar plate
b.Cystic plate
c.Umbilical plate
d.Ductal plate

10.Dopamine, Norepinephrine and Serotonin; all have which of the following type of receptors?
a.2 pass
b.6 pass
c.7 pass
d.4 pass

429 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 1

1.Which of the following drugs is not used in Multiple Sclerosis?
a.IFN 1alpha
b.IFN 1beta
c.Glatiramer acetate

Here is a list of FDA approved therapies for Multiple Sclerosis:

GA - Glatiramer acetate
MTX - Mitoxantrone
NTZ - Natalizumab
FGM - Fingolimod
CLD - Cladribine
IFN B - Interferon Beta

-Mycophenolate mofetil (250 mg bid gradually increasing to 1000 mg bid), is used in the treatment of Neuromyelitis Optica; which is a clinical variant of Multiple Sclerosis.

2.Flaying seen in what type of lacerated wound ?
b.Shearing force

3.Type D personality were recently found to be at risk for
a.Coronary artery disease
c.Personality disorder

4.If 4 nucleotide repeats code for an amino acid. What is the number of amino acids coded possible: 

5.Vision 2020 founding members are all except
d.International Agency For prevention of Blindness

Sunday, May 22, 2011

428 - PGIMER May 2011 mcqs with answers - part 1

1) Cardiac tamponade true is
a.kussumal sign positive
b.widened mediastinum
c.steep y descent absent
d.eletrical alterans
e.muffled heart sounds

answer: b,c,d,e.

2. Milk borne diseases are which of the following
b.Enteric infections
c.Streptococcus pyogenes
e.Q fever

Answer: All are true.

3. Which of the following are seen in acute hepatitis B
a. HBs Ag
b. Anti HBe
c. IgG anti HBc
d. IgM anti HBc


4. Ulnar nerve injury leads to
a.loss of sensation of thenar eminence
b.loss of sensation of hypothenar eminence
c.wrist drop
d.radial deviation on attempted flexion

answer: b,d.

5. POEMS syndrome consists of
a. Polyneuropathy
b. Oesophageal dysmotility
c. Endocrinopathy
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Sclerodactyly


Saturday, May 21, 2011

427 - AIIMS May 2011 Complete paper with answers

1. What is "cardiac polyp" ?
1. Acute infarct
2. Cardiac aneurysm
3. Benign tumour
4. Fibrinous clot in the chamber
Ans-4 -?

2. Condition promoting adipocere formation
1. Dry and hot
2. Hot and humid `
3. Dry & optimum
4. Moist & optimum
Ans-2 -?

3. Enlarged pulsating liver with ascites occurs in:
1. Mitral regurgitation
2. Tricuspid regurgitation
3. CCF
4. AR

4. In civil negligence, onus of proof is with
1. Judicial first degree magistrate
2. Police not below the level of sub inspector
3. Doctor
4. Patient

5. According to European laryngeal Society, Subligamentous cordectomy is classified as
1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type IV

6. The technique of laproscopic cholecystectomy was first described by?
1. Erich Muhe
2. Phillip Moure
3. Lanchenback
4. Eddie Reddick

7. Percutaneous vertebroplasty is indicated in all except
1. Tuberculosis
2. Metastasis
3. Osteoporosis
4. Hemangioma

8. Degrees awarded by Indian universities are mentioned in
1. Schedule I of MCI act
2. Schedule II of MCI act
3. Part 1 of schedule III
4. Part 2 of schedule III
(twisted repeat of AI2006)

9. During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Antero-lateral

10. A 30yr old lady P2L0 with menorrhagia. what is the treatment of choice
1. Mirena
2. Combined OCP`s
3. Trans cervical resection of endometria(TCRE)
4. Hysterectomy

11. Ideal Contraceptive for lactating women
1. POP
2. Barrier
3. Lactation amenorrhea

12. Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally
1. Barrier
2. OCP`s
4. Inj. DMPA

13. Ideal contraceptive for a newly married couple is
1. OCP
2. Barrier
4. Natural methods

14. Apo B48 & Apo B100 is synthesized in intestinal cells by
1. RNA splicing
2. Allelic exclusion
3. Uridine deletion
4. Upstream repression
Ans-1-?(RNA editing vs RNA splicing)
(twisted repeat from AI2002)

15. Maximum postprandial contractility is seen in
1. Ascending colon
2. Descending colon
3. Sigmoid colon
4. Transverse colon

16. A man working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odor in breath & transverse Mees lines on nails. What is diagnosis
1. Arsenic poisoning
2. Lead poisoning
3. Mercury poisoning
4. Cadmium poisoning

17. Formication & delusion of persecution occurs together in abuse of
1. LSD
2. Cocaine
3. Canabis
4. Amphetamine

18. Incidence is determined by
1. Prospective study
2. Case control study
3. Cross sectional study
4. Retrospective study

19. A lactating woman has sputum positive TB. The neonate is 3 months old. What is the recommended chemoprophylaxis
1. INH 3mg/kg for 3 months
2. INH 5mg/kg for 3 months
3. INH 3mg/kg for 6 months
4. INH 5mg/kg for 6 months

20. Regarding ACE inhibitor which of the following is true
1. Inhibits Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
2. t 1/2 of Enalapril is more than Lisinopril
3. Omission of prior diuretic dose decreases the risk of postural hypotension
4. It is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction

21. A Patient with cystic fibrosis develops acute exacerbation of respiratory tract infection/pneumonia & admitted to hospital. Which of the following will be cultured
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa(non mucoid strain)
2. Burkholderia capecia
3. Aeromonas
4. Plesiomonas

22. Hyperkalemia with tall peaked waves on ECG. Fastest acting drug for lowering S. Potassium concentration
1. Calcium gluconate
2. Glucose plus insulin
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Calcium carbonate

23. Radiological features of L ventricular failure are all except
1. Kerley B lines
2. Cardiomegaly
3. Oligemic lung fields
4. Increased flow in Upper lobe veins

24. A 10 month old baby previously normal becomes unconscious on crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose was 30mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis
1. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
2. Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
3. Hyperinsulism
4. Cushings syndrome
(repeat)(more clarification needed)

25. In case of Renal cell carcinoma following are seen except
1. Polycythemia
2. Cushings syndrome
3. Malignant hypertention
4. Amyloidosis

26. CSF pressure primarily determined by ?
1. CSF production
2. CSF reabsorption
3. CNS blood flow
4. Blood pressure

27. Most important prognostic factor for colorectal carcinoma?
1. Tumor size & characteristics
2. Tumor site
3. LN status
4. Vascular invasion

28. Investigation Of Choice For Recurrent GIST ?
1. MRI
2. PET
3. USG

29. Which Is Not A Pure Beta Particle Emitter ?
1. Samarium 135
2. Strontium 89
3. Yttrium 90
4. Phosphorus 32
(Review of Radiology- Sumer Sethi, 5th edition. Pg 122)
(beta + gamma)

30. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora?
1. Pectin
2. Lignin
3. Starch
4. Glucose
Ans-2 (AI 2009 RPT)

31. Root of mesentery crossed by
1. Horizontal part of duodenum
2. Left gonadal vessels
3. Left ureter
4. Superior mesenteric artery
(Nov 2004-Q6- twisted repeat)

32. Histopathological features of fat necrosis in a new born closely resembles?
1. Steroid induced lipid necorsis
2. Lupoid necrosis
3. Erythema induratum
4. Lipodermatosclerosis

33.Gene duplication has the greatest role in the evolution of
1. mRNA
2. t RNA
3. hnRNA
4. ribosomal RNA

34. Laudanosine is a metabolite of
1. Cis-atracurum
2. Atracurium
3. Pancuronium
4. Succinylcholine
Ans-1 & 2 - ???
(both have laudanosine as metabolite)

35. Which does not form border of triangle of auscultation
1. Trapezius
2. Scapula
3. Latissmus dorsi
4. Serratus anterior

36. 30yr woman presents with primary infertility and mass. CA 125 level 90u/L. what is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Ovarian ca
2. Borderline ovarian tumor
3. TB
4. Endometrioma

37. All are true about incontinentia pigmenti except?
1. X linked dominant disorder
2. 100% ophthalmic involvement
3. Skin pigmentation present

38. Ovarian reserve is measured by
1. LH
2. FSH
4. Estrogen

39. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by
3. Confocal microscopy
4. Electron microscopy
(Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching)

40. Muscle rigidity due to action of opioid on which of the following receptors?
1. mu
2. kappa
3. delta
4. lambda

41. Axillary neurovascular bundle sheath derived from?
1. Prevertebral fascia
2. Pretracheal fascia
3. Clavipectoral fascia
4. Axillary sheath

42. In a subclavian artery block at outer border of 1st rib, all of the following arteries help in maintining the circulation to upper limb except?
1. Subscapular artery
2. Superior thoracic artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Suprascapular artery

43. Spleen projects into folowing space of peritoneal cavity
1. Paracoloic gutter
2. Infracolic compartment
3. Left subhepatic space
4. Greater sac

44. Which of the following is a terminal group of Lymph node for colon
1. Paracoloc
2. Epicolic
3. Preaortic
4. Ileocolic

45. Triplet DNA is due to
1. Hoogsteen pairing
2. Palindromic sequences
3. Large no. of guanosine repeats
4. Polypyramidine tracts
Ans- 1

46. Which of the following may not worsen angina?
1. Dipyridamole
2. Sumatriptan
3. Oxyfedrine
4. Thyroxine

47. During arteriography dissection most commonly in?
1. Gastroduodenal artery
2. Coeliac trunk
3. Superior mesenteric artery
4. Inferior mesenteric artery
Ans – ?

48. A 7 day old baby was brought with respiratory distress and shock. Baby was discharged in a healthy state 2 days back. Diagnosis ?
1. Aortopulmonary window
2. Hypoplastic LV
3. Large VSD
4. Ebsteins anomaly

49. Healthy thinking is characterized by all except
A. Continuity
B. Constancy
C. Clarity
D. Organization
Ans -B

50. Blood supply of sternocleidomastoid muscle is from all except?
1. Post auricular artery
2. Occipital artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Superior thyroid artery

51. Reflex hallucinations occurs in?
1. Kinesthesia
2. Paraesthesia
3. Hyperaesthesia
4. Synaesthesia
Ans - 4

(Visit )

52. Local Scarring and limb hypoplasia in a newborn is seen due to?
1. Toxoplasma
2. T.pallidum
3. Varicella
4. Herpes
Ans-3 (congenital varicella not perinatal varicella )

53. Patency of ductus arteriosus is necessary in all except?
1. Persistent truncus arteriosus
2. Hypoplastic left heart
3. Pulmonary stenosis
4. Transposition of great vessels with intact ventricular septum

54. Acetyl CoA cannot be converted directly into?
1. Glucose
2. Ketone bodies
3. Fatty acids
4. Cholesterol
Ans - 1

55. Side effects of cyclosporine are all except
1. Pulmonary edema
2. Hirsutism
3. Renal impairment
(may not be from this exam- please verify)

56. Which is NOT true about angiography?
1. Common femoral artery is routinely catheterised
2. Single wall puncture is indicated in those with normal coagulation profile
3. Femoral artery is catheterised at medial third of femoral head
4. Seldinger technique is used both for femoral artery and vein

57. Retraction of scapula is not done by
1. Rhomboidius major
2. Rhomboidius minor
3. Trapezius
4. Levator scapulae

58. Upper limb weight is transmitted to axial skeleton by all except?
1. Coracoacromial ligament
2. Claviculoclavicular [interclavicular] ligament
3. Costoclavicular ligament
4. Acromioclavicular ligament
Ans-4 or 2 -???

59. Net protein utilization all except
1. Defined as nitrogen retained by total nitrogen consumed x100
2. Good for estimating protein quality

60. Female child with linear verrucuous plaque and vacuolation of keratinocytes in granulosa and spinosum. What is the diagnosis?
A. Linear darriers
B. Linear verrucuous hyperkeratosis
C. ??nevus
D. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis

61. Non neoplastic lesions simulating bone tumor are all except?
1. Fibrous dysplasia
2. Bone island
3. Bone infarct
4. Hurler syndrome

62. Variant of Giant cell tumor is?
1. Ossifying fibroma
2. Non ossifying fibroma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Chondroblastoma

63. Infraclavicular pulmonary lesion in TB?
1. Gohns focus
2. Assman focus
3. Simons focus
4. Puhl sign

64. Survival of non operable Gall Bladder carcinoma
1. 4-6m
2. 8-10m
3. 1y
4. 12-24m

65. Dietary management of hypoglycemia in a patient taking both insulin & acarbose?
1. Sucrose
2. Glucose
3. Maltose
4. Starch

66. All are true about exenatide except?
1. Glucagon like peptide analogue
2. Used in type 1 diabetes mellitus
3. Administered subcutaneously
4. Decreases glucagon level

67. False regarding Pioglitazone
1. Activates PPAR-Gamma
2. Acts by inducing transcription of gene that catabolize carbohydrate & lipid metabolism in the absence of insulin
3. Contra indicated in diastolic heart dysfunction
4. Metabolized in liver

68. Histone acetylation causes?
1. Heterochromatin
2. Euchromatin
3. Methylation of cystine
4. DNA replication

69. Which is not a congenital myopathy?
1. Central core disease
2. Nemaline myopathy
3. Centronuclear (myotubular) myopathy
4. Z and B myopathy

70. Not true about mucinous cystadenoma pancreas
1. Microcystic adenoma
2. Lined by columnar epithelium
3. Pre malignant
4. Focus of ovarian stroma in it

71. Gleason score grading false is
1. Gleason score range between 1-10
2. Higher grade has got worse prognosis
3. Helps in staging the tumor
4. Grade determines further management
(repeat)(it is from 2-10)

72. True statement regarding the kidney is?
1. Clearance will be more than GFR means the substance is secreted into the tubule
2. Descending limb is permeable to solutes
3. Fluid coming from the descending limb is hypotonic
4. Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR if there is tubular secretion

73. Lambda phage
1. Causes mad cow disease
2. Lytic and lysogenic phase cannot be inter converted
3. In lytic phase the DNA gets integrated to bacterial DNA and it causes lysis of the cell
4. In lysogenic phase, it gets integrated to the bacterial DNA and remains dormant until activated

74. Best way to teach a mentally retarded child
1. CBT
2. Cognitive reconstruction
3. Self learning
4. Contingency
(repeat)(controversial repeat)

75. Function of CD4 T cells is all except?
1. Antibody production
2. Cytotoxicity of T cells
3. Memory B cells
4. Opsonisation

76. Thrombosis least seen in
1. PNH
2. DIC
3. Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia
4. ITP

77. Anti phospholipid syndrome not seen?
1. Recurrent abortions
2. Thrombosis
3. Pancytopenia
4. Anticardiolipin/lupus anticoagulant

78. Not seen in Gestational Diabetes?
1. Previous macrosomic baby
2. Congenital malformation
3. Polyhydramnios
4. Obesity

79. 5 yr old male child presents with pubic hair development, phallic enlargement BP-130/90. Which will be helpful-
1. 17 hydroxyprogesterone
2. Aldosterone
3. Renin
4. 11 deoxy cortisol

80. False about hepatic duct is?
1. Left hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure
2. Caudate lobe drains only into left hepatic duct
3. Right hepatic duct formed by V and VII segments
4. Left hepatic duct crosses segment IV

81. A 3 month old female child comes with history of hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Apart from cardiac malformations and dehydration nothing else could be found what would you like to investigate
1. 17 hydroxy progesterone
2. Renin
3. Aldosterone
4. ADH

82. Steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome in a child not responding to prednisolone. Best management?
1. Oral cyclophosphamide X 3 months
2. Oral mycophenolate x 6 months
3. Iv cyclosporine X 3 months
4. Iv cyclophosphomide X 6 months
(steroid dependence vs steroid resistant)

83. 17 yr old female with bosselated, non blanching hyperpigmented plaque on cheek present since birth. Management?
1. Pulsed laser
2. Nd YAG
3. Ruby laser
4. Erbium laser

84. CAP in LAC operon is
1. Positive regulator
2. Negative regulator
3. Repressor
4. Constitutive expression

85. Alpha thalassemia is due to
1. Deletion of beta genes
2. Deletion of alpha genes
3. Increase in alpha/delta chains
4. Insertion of Amino acids in alpha chains

(Visit )

86. Non stress test was done in a 36-38 week fetus was non reactive. What is the next step?
1. Do a biophysical profile
2. Repeat NST after an hour
3. Induction of labor
4. Caesarean section

87. True regarding brucella a/e
1. Brucella abortus is capnophilic
2. Pasteurization kills it
3. Occasional transmission by aerosols
4. Test done by 2ME confirms diagnosis

88. Revascularization best for-
1. Stunned heart
2. Hibernating heart
3. Mixed viable and scarred myocardium
4. Non ischemic viable myocardium

89. Extended release drug systems (microwick & microcatheter) used for ?
1. Drug delivery to round window
2. Drooling of saliva
3. Frey's syndrome
4. Epistaxis

90. Acrodermatitis enteropathica not true
1. Autosomal Recessive
2. Serum Zn levels are low
3. Triad of dermatitis, dementia and diarrhoea
4. Zn supplementation improves the condition

91. A child presents with faliure to thrive with frequent vomiting, diarrhea, hepatic splenomegaly and abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
1. Adrenal haemorrage
2. Wolmans disease
3. Pheochromocytoma
4. Addisons disease
Ans –2

92. Comet tail artefacts seen in which gall bladder disease
1. Adenomatous polyp
2. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
3. Ca gall bladder
4. Cholesterosis

93. Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) includes all of the following groups except?
1. Shock
2. Ischemia
3. Neurogenic injury
4. Energy of injury

94. Australian collaborative trial on steroid use in neonates
1. Neurodegenerative illness is more in steroid patients
2. Neonates taking CS have decreased head circumference
3. Health of neonates on CS is same as those of those not on CS
4. Results are similar to that with placebo
Ans- ???

95. GOLD STANDARD TEST for insulinoma
1. 72 hr fasting test
2. Plasma insulin levels
3. C-peptide levels
4. Low glucose levels < 30 mg/dl Ans-1 96. overexpressed in GIST 1. CD117 2. CD34 3. CD21 4. S100 Ans-1 97. What is the mode of treatment for a 2 cm sized papillary carcinoma thyroid in left lobe? 1. Total thyroidectomy + radical LN neck dissection 2. Near total thyroidectomy + radical LN neck dissection 3. Only total thyroidectomy 4. Left hemithyroidectomy Ans-2 97. Trochlear nerve all true except 1. Longest intracranial course. 2. Arise from dorsum of brainstem. 3. Supply ipsilateral superior oblique. 4. enters orbit through sup. orbital fissure outside annulus of Zinn Ans-3 [snip]. Abscess in axillary region is safely drained by which approach? 1. Medial 2. Posterior 3. Lateral 4. Floor Ans-1 or 4-?? 99. Octreotide is not useful in? 1. Insulinoma 2. Glucaganoma 3. Carcinoid tumor 4. Glioma Ans-4-? 100. Gold standard investigation for GERD- 1. 24 hr pH monitoring 2. Endoscopy 3. Manometry 4. Esophagogram Ans-1 101. Sphincter of Oddi has 1. 3 sphincters 2. 2 3. 4 4. 5 Ans-3 (BAILEY) 102. Cis atracurium is better than atracurium because 1. Rapid onset 2. Short duration of action 3. Less cardiac depression 4. Less histamine release Ans-4 103. Bleomycin causes the following in lungs 1. Destruction of type 1 pneumocytes 2. Destruction of type 2 pneumocytes 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Destruction of endothelial cells Ans-2 104. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central chemoreceptors is 1. Increased H+ 2. Increased CO2 3. Increased O2 4. Decreased CO2 Ans-1-?(explanation needed for CO2 vs H+) 105. After laparoscopic cholecystectomy specimen sent for histopathology shows ca gallbladder stage 1a. Management is? 1. Excision of all port sites 2. Follow up 3. Chemotherapy & Radiotherapy 4. Extended resection Ans-1 106. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except? 1. Monochorionic monoamniotic 2. Mentoanterior 3. Extended breech 4. Dichorionic twins with first vertex and second breech Ans-1 107. True regarding animals that are chronically exposed to cold 1. Increased sympathetic stimulation 2. Increased vagal action 3. Increased insulin levels in blood 4. Decrease blood supply to adipose tissue Ans-??? 108. True about non typhoid salmonella? 1. Invasive in infants 2. Blood culture more sensitive than stool in adults 3. Poultry acts as a source of infection 4. Fluoroquinolone resistance is seen in some clinical reports Ans-?? 109. Gall bladder polyps have risk of malignancy if 1. Polyp is associated with gall stones 2. Polyp size > 5 mm
3. >65 years
4. Increasing size

110. All are true regarding carcinoma pancreas except?
A. 75% cases have p53 mutation
B. 5 year survival rate after pancreatico duodenectomy is 10-15%
C. Stage III cancer median survival is 3-6 months
D. Increased risk in hereditary pancreatitis

111. A pregnant gets Chicken pox 3 days before delivery of the baby. What is the baby’s prognosis?
1. No risk to mother or child
2. Intrapartum antiviral therapy required
3. Fetopathic effects seen
4. At risk of fetal varicella syndrome

112. Which among the following is not a feature of Horner’s syndrome?
1. Ptosis
2. Miosis
3. Heterochromia iridis
4. Apparent exophthalmos

113. True regarding myocardial O2 demand?
1. Inversely related to heart rate
2. Has constant relation to external cardiac work
3. Correlates with duration of systole
4. Is negligible at rest

114. All of the following is involved in development of carcinoma colon except?
1. APC
2. Beta catenin
3. K Ras
4. Mismatch repair genes

115. Which among the following is false regarding familial adenomatous polyposis?
1. Autosomal recessive inheritance
2. Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
3. Polyps develop in late adulthood
4. Epideral cyst may occur with osteoma

116. All are true about diazoxide EXCEPT:
1. Anti-hypertensive
2. Causes severe hypoglycemia
3. Used in treatment of insulinomas
4. Acts by ATP mediated K+ channel opening in beta cell membrane

117. Vertical crest at the junction of the internal auditary canal?
1. Bill’s bar
2. Ponticulus
3. Cog
4. Falciform crest

118. True regarding ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle is?
1. FSH increases aromatase activity
2. Peak inhibin activity
3. Increased steroidogenesis
3. Activin level is high

119. All are true regarding cystic fibrosis except?
1. It is caused by CFTR gene mutation
2. Defect lies in Calcium channel
3. Autosomal Recessive
4. Mutation in delta f508 mutation

120. All are true regarding streptococci except?
1. Group A and C are hemolytic
2. Pyrogenic toxin is plasmid mediated
3. Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
4. Streptdornase digests nucleic acids

121. All are true regarding mesothelioma except?
1. Bilaterally symmetrical
2. Associated with asbestos exposure
3. Histopathalogy shows bimodal trend
4. Occurs in late middle age

122. A person having chest pain and sudden palpitations with heart rate of 150/min and regular rhythm. Diagnosis?
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. Idioventricular rhythm
3. SVT
4. AF with heart block

(Visit )

123. Cotrimoxazole used in all except
1. UTI
2. Chancroid
3. Prostatitis
4. Typhoid

124. According to Enneking system, not true regarding an active benign lesion is
1. Intracapsular
2. Margin of reactive bone
3. Wide rim of reactive bone
4. Extended curettage is treatment
(thin rim of rective bone)(Campbell)

125. Regarding Ifosfamide, all are true except?
1. It is a nitrogen mustard
2. Metabolised by liver
3. More neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide.
4. Chloracetaldehyde is its metabolite

126. Most common cause of death in a patient with thrombolytic therapy?
1. Myocardial rupture
2. Reperfusion arrhythmia
3. Intracranial haemorrhage
4. Cardiogenic shock

127. A male child presents with Fanconi anemia & hypercalciuria. All are true regarding Dent’s disease except?
1. Proteinura
2. Hypercalciuria
3. Father will have the same disease
4. Rickets is present

128. Central dot sign seen in
1. Caroli disease
2. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
3. Liver hematoma
4. Budd chiari syndrome

129. Most comon cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is
1. Arterial thrombosis
2. Venous thrombosis
3. Embolism
4. Non occlusive ischemia

130. A term male baby, with birth weight 3.5 kg, developed respiratory distress at birth, not responded to administration of surfactant. Echocardiogram was normal. X ray chest shows ground glass appearance. There is history of death of a female sibling at 1 month of age. What is the diagnosis?
2. Meconium aspiration
3. Neonatal alveolar proteinosis
4. 2–Methylacyl CoA Racemase Deficiency
(repeat)(complex question)

131. Which of the following is not true about JRA?
1. Fever
2. Uveitis
3. Rheumatoid nodules
4. Raynaud’s phenomenon

132. A 14 yr old girl on exposure to cold has pallor of extremities followed by pain and cyanosis and rash over metacarpophalangeal joints. She is prone to develop:
1. SLE
2. Scleroderma
3. Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Histiocytosis

133. A 9 yr old girl has difficulty in combing hair and climbing upstairs. Gowers sign is positive. What is the next investigation to be performed?
1. ESR
2. RA factor
3. Creatine kinase
4. EMG

134. BRCA1 gene is located on chromosome number?
1. 13
2. 11
3. 17
4. 22

135. Which among the following is false in barium meal ?
1. Ileum is featureless
2. Colon has haustrations
3. Jejunum is feathery
4. Distal part of duodenum has a cap

136. About RCT all true except
1. Baseline characteristics are comparable
2. Bias eliminated by double blinding
3. Sample size depends on type of study
4. Dropouts are excluded from the study

137. Not true about breast milk
1. Max output at 12 months
2. Co-efficient of iron absorption is 70%
3. Ca utilization more than cows milk
4. Breast milk protien is reference protein

138. True about cluster sampling all except
1. Sample size same as simple random
2. It is two stage sampling
3. Cheaper than other methods
4. It is a method for rapid assessment

139. Which is true about BCG?
1. Distilled water is used as diluent
2. Site for injection is cleaned with spirit
3. Mantoux test positive in 6 weeks
4. WHO recommends Danish 1331 for vaccine production

140. Incineration not done for
1. Cytotoxic drugs
2. Waste sharps
3. Human anatomical waste
4.Cotton contaminated by blood

141. Which of the following statements regarding DDT is false?
1. Pyrethrum has synergistic action
2. It is a contact poison
3. Immediately kills the prey
4. Residual effect lasts 18 months

142. Following are larval control measures except?
1. DDT
2. Paris green
3. Gambusia fish
4. Intermittent irrigation

143. Goals of national population policy are all except?
1. Decrease IMR to below 30/1000 live births
2. Reduce MMR to below 100/100000 live births
3. Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy
4. Bring down TFR to replacement levels by 2015

144. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by all except
1. Amylodosis
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Addison’s disease
4. Diabetes mellitus

(Visit )

145. True statement regarding clomiphene citrate is?
1. Enclomiphene is an anti estrogenic
2. Increases pregnancy rate 3 times
3. Incidence of twin pregnancy is 5%
4. Shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in RCT
Ans-1-(other options are also almost true)

146. Following modification occurs in Gs subunit which leads to watery diarrhea
1. ADP ribosylation
2. ATP-ADP transfer
3. Phosphorylation
4. Dephosphorylation

147. Late expanding stage of population in India is due to?
1. Birth rate stationary death rate continues to fall
2. Death rate declines faster than birth rate
3. Birth rate declines, death rate same
4. Birth rate is less than birth rate

148. Which does not cause hypoglycemia?
1. Acarbose
2. Glimepride
3. Sulfonylurea
4. Nateglinide

149. Regarding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis, all are true except?
1. Follicular destruction
2. Increase in lymphocytes
3. Oncocytic metaplasia
4. Orphan Annie eye nuclei

150. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true?
1. Intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids associated with decreased risk
2. Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta
3. Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
4. Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se

151. Berry aneurysm defect lies in:
1. Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
2. Degeneration of media/muscle cell layer
3. Deposition of mucoid material in media
4. Low grade inflammation of vessel wall

152. All the following statements about purification of water are true except
1. Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination
2. Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100ml sample of drinking water
3. Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
4. Coliforms may be dtected by multiple tube method and indole production at 44 degrees

153. True about sickle cell disease are all except
1. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine
2. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar residue with a polar residue
3. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
4. RFLP results from a single base change

154. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by?
1. DNA polymerase
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA topoisomerase
4. DNA gyrase

155. Fish is the source of all except?
1. Iron
2. Iodine
3. Vitamin A
4. Phosphorus

156. Most probable route for transmission of meningitis from CNS to inner ear?
1. Cochlear aqueduct
2. Vestibular aqueduct
3. Endolymphatic sac
4. Hyrtle fissure

157. All of the following drugs will worsen megaloblastic anemia except
1. Alcohol
2. Phenytoin
3. Methotrexate
4. Chloroquine
(Chloroquine-rarely aplastic anemia)

158. Most common site of cholangiocarcinoma
1. Distal biliary duct
2. Hilum
3. Intrahepatic duct
4. Multifocal

159. In case of an obstructed labor with mother dehydrated, febrile, and an IUD fetus in cephalic presentation. What is the management?
1. Craniotomy
2. Decapitation
3. Cesarean section
4. Forceps delivery
(repeat question with controversy-is CS done for dead baby)

160. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa is caused by a mutation of?
1. Alpha 6 integrin
2. Collagen 7
3. Laminin 4
4. Keratin 14

161. In “bounce off” test of knee joint, end feel is described as all except?
1. Bony
2. Empty
3. Springy
4. Firm

162. Nitrogen narcosis occurs due to?
1. …
2. Increased affinity of neurons for nitrogen
3. Inhibits enzyme dismutase
4. large production of NO

163. True about prolactinoma in pregnancy all except ?
1. Most common pituitary tumors, hardly cause any effect
2. Increasing level of prolaction show bad prognosis
3. In pregnancy size increases
4. Size of about macro adenoma

164. Not a side effect of naloxone?
1. Hypertension
2. Seizures
3. Pulmonary edema

165. Non progressing contraction of esophagus is
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quarternary

166. True about shunt vessels:
1. Play a role in thermoregulation
2. Role in nutrition distribution
3. Present in all vital organs
4. No autonomic nervous regulation

167. A lady comes for antenatal checkup in 1st trimester and has no other complaints except lymphadenopathy. Spiramycin was prescribed but there is no improvement. However the baby was born with hydrocephalus and cerebral calcification. Most probable cause?
1. CMV
2. Toxoplasmosis
3. Rubella
4. HSV

168. Fine reticulate pigmentation with palmar pitting is seen in?
1. Cockayne syndrome
2. Blooms syndrome
3. Dowling Degos syndrome
4. Thompson Edmund syndrome

169. 12 yr female with 3+proteinuria, lipiduria and hyaline casts but no hematuria. Which of the following is true?
1. Low C3 levels expected
2. No deposits of IgG and C3
3. Nephritic syndrome
4. IgA nephropathy

170. Drugs not used in pregnancy are all except
1. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
2. Angiotensin receptor blockers
3. Aldosterone
4. Propylthiouracil

171. A patient with clinically significant diabetic macular edema with non progressive diabetic retinopathy was treated with Macular grid photocoagulation. The patient still has vitreo macular traction. What is the preferred treatment?
1. Intravitreal bevacizumab
2. Pars plana vitrectomy
3. Repeat macular grid photocoagulation
4. Augmented macula photocoagulation

(Visit )

172. Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with?
1. Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P.
2. Independent of corticothalamic inputs
3. Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors
4. Essentially silent in sleep

173. Protein losing enteropathy diagnosis, all used except?
1. Tc albumin
2. Tc dextran
3. Tc transferrin
4. Tc 99 Sotisumab
Ans- 4

174. Which is not true about disinfectants?
1. Ethylene dioxide is an intermediate level disinfectant
2. Phenols are useful for treatment of organic wastes
3. Glutaraldehyde is sporocidal
4. Hypochlorite is virucidal

175. Methotrexate used in all except
1. Post transplant
2. Carcinoid tumour
3. Psoriasis
4. Sickle cell anemia

176. In India maximum maternal mortality is due to
1. Hemorrhage
2. Anemia
3. Abortion
4. Sepsis

177. Commonest histological finding in benign hypertension
1. Necrotising arteritis
2. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
3. Loss of internal elastic lamina
4. Fibrinoid necrosis

178. Child presents with a history of respiratory infections. His sweat chloride is 36,41 meq/l on 2 occasions. What other test you do to exclude diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
1. CT Chest
2. Nasal potential diferance
3. Fat in stool in next 72 hours
4. DNA analysis for ?508 mutation

179. Which of the following agent can be used for sickle cell anaemia
1. Hydroxyurea
2. Cysplatin
3. Methotrexate
4. Busulphan

180. Protective for carcinoma colon
1. Low protein diet
2. Low fat diet
3. Low selenium diet
4. High fibre diet

181. False about vaccines
1. Thiomersal is used as preservative in DPT vaccine
2. Kanamycin is used as preservative in measles vaccine
3. Neomycin is used as preservative in BCG vaccine
4. Magnesium chloride used to stabilize OPV

182. Baby born at 33 wks on examination at 42wks with ROP both eyes in 12 clock hours position stage 2 zone 1 plus disease, how will u manage the patient ?
1. Examine the patient after 1 week
2. Laser photocoagulation of avascular retina of both eyes
3. Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up of other eye
4. Vitreoretinal surgery

183. In international prognostic factor which of following not include in lymphoma?
1. Patients Age & Performance Status
2. LDH
3. Serum albumin, hemoglobin
4. Extranodal involvement

184. Side effects of Tamoxifen a/e?
1. Venous thrombosis
2. Endometrial carcinoma
3. Osteoporosis
4.Causes cancer in opposite breast

185. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on
1. Lean body mass
2. Adipose tissue
3. Resting heart rate
4. Exercise

186. Among the following all are steroid hormones that act on cytosolic receptors except one which is a peptide hormone that acts on nuclear receptor
1. Thyroxine
2. Epinephrine
3. GH

187. Lyme disease all true except
1. B.borgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
2. Infection progresses despite of good humoral mediated immunity
3. IgA intrathecally confirms diagnosis
4. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes in CSF suggest meningitis
(controversial repeat- polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis not leucocytosis in the AIIMS exam options)

188. Acellular pertussis vaccine composed of?
1. Pertactin, endotoxin, fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin
2. Pertactin, Pertussis toxin, fimbriae, endotoxin
3. Pertactin, Pertussis toxin, fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin
4. Fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin, endotoxin, pertussis toxin

189. Positive hepatojugular reflux seen in?
1. TR
2. Decreased afterload
3. LVF
4. PS

190. All true about high tibial osteotomy except?
1. Can correct varus over 30 degress
2. Deformity recurs after a long time
3. Done though cancellous bone
4. Done in case of unicompartmental disease
(answer contributed by nisha_s22)

191. A woman complaints of a severe headache that she has never experienced with photophobia and neck stiffness. Diagnosis?
1. SAH
2. Migraine
3. Meningitis
(may not be from this exam- please verify)

192. A 50 yr old man complains of crushing sternal pain, following which patient dies of myocardial infarction. 4 days later what will be the appearance at infarct site
1. Granulomatous inflammation
2. Fibroblasts and collagen
3. Neurophilic infiltration surrounding coagulative necrosis

193. 4 weeks infant comes to casualty with h/o vomiting after feeds grossly dehydrated. Next management
1. Immediate surgery
2. Fluid management first surgery can be delayed

194. False about congenital rubella
1. Ig G is diagnostic
2. Most commonly associated with CVS anomalies, cataract and hearing loss
4. High risk if infected after 16 weeks

195. True about ESBL all except
1. Sensitive to carbepenem
2. The basis of testing on the basis of 3rd class cephalosporins
3. Amsler classification is based on culture characteristics

196. Topical mitomycin is used for?
1. Surgery for laryngeal subglotic stenosis

197. Medullary carcinoma thyroid treatment?
1. Surgery only
2. Combined chemoradiation
3. Surgery f/b radiation therapy
4. Radioiodine ablation
(answer contributed by nisha_s22)

198. Cognitive model
1. Beck
2. Ellis
3. Kreplin

199. Angiotensin II causes all except
1. Stimulates release of ADH
2. Increases thirst.
3. Vasodilation
4. Stimulates aldosterone release.
Ans - 3
(replaced HPV question as that was probably not from this exam)
(again thanks to nisha_s22)

200. Which is true ?
1. Goitre in 5 percent of population is endemic goitre
2. In thyroid storm, the clinical features are primarily due to increased thyroxine
3. Propylthiouracil is contraindicated in pregnancy
4. ??
(harrison 17e, page2240)

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