Previous Medical PostGraduation Entrance Papers' Mcqs with Answers

1. Which is a branch from trunk of brachial plexus ?
1. SupraScapular Nerve
2. Long Thoracic Nerve
3. Axillary Nerve
4. Nerve to Subclavius Muscle
Answer 1. SUPRASCAPULAR NERVE

2. Autorikshaw run over an 8-year-old, tyre mark over leg is called?
A. Patterned bruise
B. Imprint abrasion
C. Contusion
D. Ectopic bruise
References : Given below
Answer is B. Imprint abrasion
Krishan Vij ,Text Book of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, Principles and Practice, 2008, 4thEdn, Pages 282-283.
Pressure Abrasions (Crushing Abrasions / Imprint Abrasions): When the impact is vertical to the skin surface, the epidermis gets crushed and pressure type of abrasions result and the imprint of the impacting object may be produced. These may be seen in manual strangulation (abrasions produced by fingernails) and in hanging, where the weave of the ligature material may be reproduced.
Patterned Abrasions: Patterned abrasions occur when the force is applied at or around right angle to the surface of skin, as already mentioned……The classical example of this is seen in traffic accidents when tyre of a motor car passes over the skin leaving the pattern when the skin has been squeezed into the grooves of the rubber tread.
Reddy.K.S.N,The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 2006, 25th Edn, Pages 156-157.
Patterned bruising is also seen in motor car accidents.
Answer: Imprint Abrasion is to be preferred as most appropriate alternate to Patterned Bruise, since,
1. Imprint abrasion and patterned abrasion are the same.
2. Patterned abrasion (imprint abrasion) is the classical example of tyre mark
3. Tyre will produce patterned bruise usually, if in association with abrasions

3. Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in all except ( REPEAT )
1) Hippocampus
2) Brain
3) Liver
4) Kidney
Answer 3) Liver

4. Which is not autoimmune disease?
1. SLE
2. Grave’s Disease
3. Myasthenia Gravis
4. Sickle Cell Disease
Answer 4. Sickle Cell Disease

5. A 40 year female underwent surgery. Post operatively she told the anaesthetist that she was aware of per-operative agents. Individual intraoperative awareness is evaluated by
1. Bispectral Index
2.
Answer 1. Bispectral Index
Bispectral index (BIS) is one of several recently developed technologies which purport to monitor depth of anesthesia. BIS monitors can replace or supplement Guedel's classification system for determining depth of anesthesia. Titrating anesthetic agents to a specific bispectral index during general anesthesia in adults (and children over 1 year old) allows the anesthetist to adjust the amount of anesthetic agent to the needs of the patient, possibly resulting in a more rapid emergence from anesthesia. Use of the BIS monitor may reduce the incidence of intraoperative awareness in high risk procedures or patients[1] and may also have a role in predicting recovery from severe brain injury

6. Most common cause of death in schizophrenia patient
1. Homicide
2. Depression
3. Suicide
4. Due to Antipsychotic side effects
Answer C ) Suicide

7. All are pneumatic bones except
1) Frontal
2) Mandible
3) Ethmoidal
4) Mastoid
Answer 2 ) Mandible

8. Clue Cells are found in
A) Candida
B) Bacterial Vaginosis
C) Trichomonas Vaginalis
D) Chlamydial infection
B) Bacterial Vaginosis

9. Nerve involved in supracondylar fracture
1. Radial nerve
2. Median nerve
3. Ulnar nerve
4. Anterior interosseous nerve
Answer 4. Anterior interosseous nerve

10. Pain in ethmoidal disease travels through
1. Nasociliary Nerve
2. Lacrimal Nerve
3. Frontal Nerve

11. Punett Square is used for
1. Genotype
2. Collecting datas in one group
3.
4.Inheritance pattern
1. Genotype
The Punnett square is a diagram that is used to predict an outcome of a particular cross or breeding experiment. It is named after Reginald C. Punnett, who devised the approach, and is used by biologists to determine the probability of an offspring having a particular genotype.

12. A teenage girl complaints of pain over the knee. The pain increase while starting to stand from sitting position and while walking upstairs. What is the likely diagnosis?
1. Chondromalacia of patella
2. Patellar Fracture
3. Torn Meniscus
4. Bipartite Patella
Answer ) 1. Chondromalacia of patella
Chondromalacia patellae means "soft cartilage under the knee cap," a presumed cause of pain at the front of the knee. This condition often affects young .The pain of chondromalacia patellae is typically felt after prolonged sitting, like for a movie, and so is also called "movie sign" or "theater sign".

13. Blount’s disease is present as (Repeat from ADrPlexus Mock series 3 on Dec 30,2010 ) Q.No 107
1. Genu recurvatum
2. Genu varum
3. Genu Valgum
4.
Answer 3. Genu Varum

14. Diet Recommendations all except
1. Cholesterol intake should be 100 gm/1000 kcal/day
2. To avoid alcohol consumption
3. Salt intake should be less than 5gm/day
4. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet
Answer 4. Saturated fat is about 10% of whole diet

15. People are separated into certain sub groups. People are selected randomly from sub groups. What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3. Quota Sampling
4. Cluster Sampling
Answer 2. Stratified Sampling

16. Which pass through Foramen Magnum ?
1. Vertebral artery
2. Hypoglossal Nerve
3. Internal Carotid artery
4. Sympathetic chain
Answer 1. Vertebral artery
Spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem, vertebral arteries.
Jugular Foramen or Vernet's syndrome is characterized by the paresis of 9th–11th (with or without 12th) cranial nerves together.
1- HYPOGLOSSAL CANAL - hypoglossal nerve

2- INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY - passes thru both carotid canal and foramen lacerum

3- GREATER PALATINE FORAMEN - anterior palatine nerve

4- LESSER PALATINE FORAMEN - posterior palatine nerve

5- NASOPALATINE NERVE - incisive foramen

6- SUPRA ORBITAL FORAMEN OR NOTCH - supraorbital nerve

7- SUPRA ORBITAL FISSURE - inferior opthalmic vein

8- INFRA ORBITAL FORAMEN - infra orbital nerve

9- ZYGOMATIC NERVE - infra orbital fissure

10- ZYGOMATICO FACIAL FORAMEN - zygomatico facial branch of the sixth nerve

11- OPTIC CANAL - central retinal vein

12 - FORAMEN ROTUNDUM - maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve

13- FORAMEN OVALE - Mandibular nerve, Accessory meningeal artery, Lesser petrosal nerve and Emissary veins (mnemonic : MALE).

14- FORAMEN SPINOSUM - middle meningeal artery

15- JUGULAR FORAMEN - 9 , 10 , 11 th cranial nerves

16- MASTOID FORAMEN - meningeal branch of occipital artery

17- TYMPANO MASTOID FISSURE - auricular branch of vagus ( vidian r alderman n )

18- FACIAL NERVE - stylomastoid foramen

19- CHORDA TYMPANI NERVE - petro tympanic fissure.

17. Which is not a neural tumor ?
1. Ependymoma
2.Neuroblastoma
3. Gangliocytoma
4. Ganglioglioma
Answer CONTROVERSIAL
REF Cotran, Ramzi S.; Kumar, Vinay; Fausto, Nelson; Nelso Fausto; Robbins, Stanley L.; Abbas, Abul K. (2005). Robbins and Cotran pathologic basis of disease. St. Louis, Mo: Elsevier Saunders. pp. 1406.
Ganglioglioma is a tumour that arises from ganglion cells in the central nervous system.
The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes equated with ganglioglioma. However, it is also sometimes equated with ganglioneuroma. The term "gangliocytoma" is sometimes used to imply that the tumor is entirely neuronal.

18. Which is rave drug?
1. Cannabis
2. Cocaine
3. Heroin
4. Ecstacy
Answer 4. Ecstasy
There are a variety of substances that have been connected with Rave Clubs. This is a brief list of some of the drugs by slang names and some of their effects:
Ecstasy – Hallucinogen/Stimulant Ecstasy is a synthetic drug that is similar to methamphetamine and the hallucinogen mescaline. Ecstasy can produce a significant increase in heart rate and blood pressure and a sense of alertness. The stimulant effects, which enable users to dance for extended periods, may also lead to dehydration, hypertension, and heart or kidney failure. Ecstasy can cause brain damage. It is one of the most widely used of the club drugs.
Ephedrine – Stimulant This substance is sold over-the-counter at convenience stores, some food stores, and mail order. It is sold often as ‘Herbal Ecstasy’ and is touted as a ‘safe’ and ‘legal’ form of Ecstasy. Ephedrine is in the Amphetamine family and can cause heart attacks, seizures, agitation, palpitations, and other health problems. Ephedrine is a common weight-loss substance. The FDA has proposed restrictions on ephedrine after it received more than 800 reports of harmful effects to people, among them coronary problems that could put patients at risk for heart attacks, strokes and death.
Ketamine – Hallucinogen Ketamine is an animal tranquilizer used by vets in pet surgery. Users say the effects of Ketamine are similar to PCP. Ketamine is usually snorted and is frequently used in combination with other drugs like ecstasy, heroin and cocaine. The high lasts anywhere from 30-minutes to about 2-hours. Special K or powdered Ketamine, emerged as a recreational drug in the 1970s and was known as “Vitamin K’ in the underground club scene in the 1980s. It has since resurfaced as “Special K” in the 1990s rave scene.
GHB – Depressant This substance comes in a liquid form and looks like water and has a salty taste. GHB is used as a “club drug” for effects similar to those of Rohypnol, also known as “date rape drugs.” Coma and seizures can occur following of GHB and when combined with methamphetamine.
Mixing GHB with alcohol could be a deadly combination. Excessive use of GHB can result in loss of consciousness (G-hole), tremors, irregular and depressed respiration and coma.
Methcathinone – Stimulant Known on the street as Khat or cat it produces an amphetamine like effect. The drug produces a burst of energy and feeling of invincibility, accompanied by a state of well being and euphoria. Effects include paranoia, hallucinations, nervousness and anxiety. Physical effects can be pounding heart, headaches stomachaches, and shakes. Khat is most often snorted, but may also be injected with a needle or taken orally by mixing with a beverage such as a soft drink.
LSD – Hallucinogen LSD induces abnormalities in sensory perceptions. Effects are unpredictable depending on the amount taken, on the surroundings in which the drug is used, and on the user’s personality, mood, and expectations. It can be in the form of a tablet, capsule, liquid, or on pieces of blotter paper that have absorbed the drug and is typically taken by mouth. Effects come on within 30 to 90 minutes after taking and can include physical effects of dilated pupils, higher body temperature, increased heart rate and blood pressure, sweating, loss of appetite, sleeplessness, dry mouth, and tremors.
Magic Mushrooms – Hallucinogen The effects of Mushrooms or “Shrooms” are similar to LSD. They include illusions and hallucinations, distorted perception of time and distance. It is ingested orally in the form of tablets or powder. Trips or episodes can consist of psychosis, convulsions, flashbacks, and possible death.
Methamphetamine – Stimulant Methamphetamine affects many areas of the central nervous system. The drug is often made in clandestine laboratories from relatively inexpensive over-the-counter ingredients. Diverse groups, including young adults who attend raves, in many regions of the country, are using it. It is available in many forms, and can be smoked, snorted, injected, or orally ingested. Methamphetamine use is associated with serious health consequences, including memory loss, aggression, violence, psychotic behavior, and potential cardiac and neurological damage. Abusers typically are agitated, have excited speech, decreased appetite, and increased physical activity levels.

19. All are indoor air pollutants except
1. Radon
2. Carbon Monoxide
3. Nitrogen oxide
4. Mercury
Answer 3) Nitrogen Oxide

20. Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate
1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth
4.
Answer 1. 1. Total Number of Live birth

21. Cadeveric transplant is done for A/E
1. blood vessels
2. liver
3. lung
4. bladder
Answer 4. Bladder
and this is why you have to read prospectus back page with specific links
The major donor organs and tissues are heart, lungs, liver, pancreas, kidneys, eyes, heart valves, skin, bones, bone marrow, connective tissues, middle ear, blood vessels. Therefore one donor can possibly give gift of life to many terminally ill patients who would not survive otherwise.

22. Not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea
1. kallman syndrome
2. turner syndrome
3. sheehan syndrome
4. rokitansky syndrome
Answer 3. sheehan syndrome

23. 32 yr male a known hypertensive planned for cholecystectomy . which of following is contraindicated
1. propofol
2. ketamine
3. midazolam
4.
ANS 2. Ketamine
Ketamine causes a rise in intracranial pressure and should not be used in patients who have sustained a recent head injury.
The blood pressure rises by about 25% (on average the systolic pressure rises by 20-30 mmHg) and the heart rate is increased by about 20% - the overall effect is therefore to increase the workload of the heart.
The pressure within the eyeball (intra-ocular pressure) rises for a short time following administration.
All pressures are increased.

24. One of the drug is contraindicated in Patients with lithium toxicity
1.diuretics
2. beta blocker
3. ccb
4.
Answer 1. Diuretics
Diuretics acting distally to the proximal tubule, such as thiazides and spironolactone, do not directly affect the fractional excretion of lithium (although they may affect serum lithium levels indirectly through their effects on volume status). Reabsorption of lithium is increased and toxicity is more likely in patients who are hyponatremic or volume depleted, both of which are possible consequences of diuretic therapy.

25. Most common tumor causing superior Vena cava syndrome.
1. Malignant Lymphoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Non small cell carcinoma.
4.
ANS Small cell Carcinoma
Nearly 95% of superior vena cava syndrome cases are attributed to cancer, with the most common cause being small cell lung cancer, followed by squamous cell lung cancer, adenocarcinoma of the lung, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and large cell lung cancer.

26. Which virus crosses placenta least likely ( ADrPlexus Q )
1. rubella
2. herpes simplex
3. HIV
4. Hepatitis B
ANS 4. Hepatitis B
HBV is a large virus and does not cross the placenta, hence it cannot infect the fetus unless there have been breaks in the maternal-fetal barrier, e.g. via amniocentesis.

27. Deoxygenated Blood is carried in all blood vessels except
1. umbilical artery
2. umbilical vein
3. pulmonary artery
4. right ventricle
Answer 2. Umbilical vein

28. A patient with Solitary kidney having 4 cm solitary exophytic mass in lower pole. Management is
1.Partial nephrectomy
2. Radical nephrectmy with dialysis
3. Radical nephrectomy with immediate renal transplant
4. Observation
ANS. Partial nephrectomy

29. Which is present in Pentology of fallot :
1. ASD
2. VSD
3. Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
4. Pulmonary stenosis
Answer 1. ASD

30. All are true about Nesidioblastosis except ?
1. Hypoglycemic Episodes are seen
2. Occurs in adults more than child
3. Histopathology shows Hyperplasia of Islet cells
4. Diazoxide is used in treatment
Answer 2. Occurs in adults more than child
Nesidioblastosis is hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia attributed to excessive function of pancreatic beta cells with an abnormal microscopic appearance. The abnormal histologic aspects of the tissue included the presence of islet cell enlargement, islet cell dysplasia, beta cells budding from ductal epithelium, and islets in apposition to ducts.Most common age group 2 – 3 years.

31. Epileptogenic
1. Desflurane
2. Sevoflurane
3. Ether
4. Halothane
Ref : A practice of anesthesia for infants and children By Charles J. Coté
Answer 2. Sevoflurane

32. Contraceptive to be avoided in epilepsy
1. OCP
2. Condoms
3. IUD
4. Post Coital Pill
ANS. OCP
The morning after pill can be used in women with epilepsy after unprotected sexual intercourse. A higher dose is recommended in patients taking hepatic enzyme inducing drugs
- 1st dose – Levenorgestrol 1.5mgs (2 tablets)
- 2nd dose 12 hours later – Levenorgestrol 0.75mgs (1 tablet)

33. NARP syndrome is seen in
1. mitochondrial
2. glycogen storage
3. lysosomal
4. lipid storage
Answer 1. Mitochondrial Disorder
Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa, is a condition related to changes in mitochondrial DNA.
Mutations in the MT-ATP6 gene cause neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa.
The MT-ATP6 gene is contained in mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondria are structures within cells that convert the energy from food into a form that cells can use. Although most DNA is packaged in chromosomes within the nucleus, mitochondria also have a small amount of their own DNA (known as mitochondrial DNA or mtDNA).

34. Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in
1. Kimura disease
2. kikuchi disease
3. hodgkin disease
4. castelman disease
Answer 2. Kikuchi Disease
Kikuchi disease ai also called histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis or Kikuchi-Fujimoto disease, is an uncommon, idiopathic, generally self-limited cause of lymphadenitis. The most common clinical manifestation of Kikuchi disease is cervical lymphadenopathy. Several viral candidates have been proposed, including cytomegalovirus, Epstein-Barr virus,16 human herpesvirus, varicella-zoster virus, parainfluenza virus, parvovirus B19, and paramyxovirus.

35. A tennis player gets hurt by a ball in his eye, he complaints of decreased vision? what may be the cause for the condition?
1 optic neuritis
2 pars planitis
3 . Avulsion of the Vitreous base
4 . equatorial edema
Shall Discuss Most Probable 3. Avulsion of the Vitreous base
Chapter 12 BLUNT INJURY OF THE EYE
Blunt injuries: the eye wall does not have a full thickness wound. Open globe or penetrating injuries: the eye wall has a full thickness wound. A blunt force causes a globe rupture and a sharp object causes a laceration at the site of impact. Lacerations may be penetrating with a single entrance wound, or a perforating with an entrance and exit wound.
Symptoms and signs suggestive of globe rupture include pain, deceased visual acuity (a normal visual acuity is rarely present in a globe rupture), extensive subconjunctival haemorrhage (often involving 360 degrees of bulbar conjuctiva), a deep or shallow anterior chamber, hyphaema, low IOP (however IOP can be normal or high), irregular pupil, iridodialysis, cyclodialysis, lens subluxation, commotio retinae, retinal tears, vitreous haemorrhages, obvious corneal or scleral lacerations or intraocular contents may be outside the orbit.
Direct blows to the eye transmit energy to the adjacent tissues as they produce compression,
shearing, and tensile strains. The resultant great shearing forces are usually strongest at the posterior border of the vitreous base, and a linear tear of the retina may result. If traction is strongest at the anterior border of the vitreous base, the nonpigmented ciliary epithelium is torn. Strong traction at both the anterior and posterior borders may produce vitreous base avulsion, which is pathognomic of ocular

36. Aprepitant is all except
1. Agonist at Neurokinin receptor
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450
Answer 1. Agonist at NK1
Aprepitant is an antiemetic chemical compound that belongs to a class of drugs called substance P antagonists (SPA). It mediates its effect by blocking the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor.

37. Buprenorphine is a
1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor
2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
4. It is antagonist at Kappa receptor
Answer 1. . Partial agonist at MU Receptor

38. Local Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is not used in
1. Spinal
2. Epidural
3. Digital finger block
4. Skin Anaesthesia
Answer 3. Digital Finger Block
The toxicity of LA is related to the amount and speed of their absorption into the systemic circulation !
Vasoconstrictor ingredient (e.g., adrenaline, felypressin) is often added to LA with the aim to reduce the absorption of LA into the systemic circulation.
Effects of vasoconstrictors:
- increase in the effect of LA (increased concentration)
- decrease in the toxicity of LA (decreased absorption)
- increase in the duration of the effect of LA
Vasoconstrictors must not be used for producing ring-block of an extremity (e.g. finger or toe) because they may cause prolonged ischaemia and gangrene.

39. All are true about Erlotinib except
1. Used in Non Small Cell Carcinoma
2. It is a small peptide acting as EGRF antagonist
3. Food decreases absorption
4. It causes skin rashes
Answer 3. Food decreases absorption
Explanation : Food enhances the oral absorption and bioavailability of erlotinib.

40. Sparrow marks are seen in following condition
1. gunshot injuries
2. stab injry of face
3 vitriolage
4 windshield glass injury
Answer 4 windshield glass injury

41. All are supplied by the anterior division of Mandibular nerve except:
1. lateral pterygoid
2. medial pterygoid
3. temporalis
4. masseter
Answer 2: medial pterygoid
The nerve to medial pterygoid is a direct branch of the mandibular trunk.

42. 39. All of the following decrease bone resorption in osteoporosis except?
1.Alendronate
2.Etidronate
3.Strontium
4.Teriparatide
Answer 4. Teriparatide
Teriparatide increases both bone formation and bone resorption

43. Onodi Cells & Haller Cells are associated with the following structures respectively?
1.Optic Nerve & Orbital floor
2.OPTIC NERVE & INTERAL CAROTID ARTERY
3.ICA & optic Nerve
4.ORBITAL FLOOR & ICA
Answer 1. OPTIC NERVE & ORBITAL FLOOR

44. Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all except
1) Common Bile Duct
2) duodenum first part
3) Aorta
4) IVC
Answer 2. Duodenum First part
Posterior Surface.—The posterior surface is in relation with the inferior vena cava, the common bile duct, the renal veins, the right crus of the diaphragm, and the aorta.

45. About yaws all are true except
1. caused by t. pertenue
2. transmitted non-venerally
3. Secondary yaw can involve bones
4. Last stages involve heart & nerves
Answer 4. Last stages involve heart & nerves
Yaws, like syphilis, has been classified into the following 4 stages:
Primary stage: The initial yaws lesion develops at the inoculation site.
Secondary stage: Widespread dissemination of treponemes results in multiple skin lesions similar to the primary yaws lesion.
Latent stage: Symptoms are usually absent, but skin lesions can relapse.
Tertiary stage: Bone, joint, and soft tissue deformities may occur.

46. Mifepristone is used in
1. Hydatiform Mole
2. Abortion
3. Ectopic
4.
Answer 2. Abortion
Medical abortion using mifepristone plus prostaglandin is the most effective method of abortion at gestations of less than 7 weeks. Mifepristone is contraindicated in the presence of an intrauterine device (IUD), as well as with ectopic pregnancy, adrenal failure, hemorrhagic disorders, inherited porphyria, and anticoagulant or long-term corticosteroid therapy.

47. Patient had cicatrical alopecia with grey pigmentation around hair follicles.What will you look for?
1. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa
2. Nail dystrophy
3. Arthritis
4. Discoid Plaques in the face
Answer 1. Whitish lesion in the buccal mucosa

48. How to differentiate ASD from VSD in X-ray
1. Enlarged Left atrium
2. Pulmonary congestion
3. Aortic shadow
Answer 1. Enlarged Left atrium

49. Specific Compliance of lung is decreased by all except
1. Chronic Bronchitis
2. Pulmonary fibrosis
3. Pulmonary Congestion
4. Decreased Surfactant
Answer 1. Chronic Bronchitis
Emphysema / COPD may be associated with an increase in pulmonary compliance due to the loss of alveolar and elastic tissue

50. All are features of digitalis toxicity except
1. Ventricular Bigeminy
2. Regularisation of AF
3. Delayed conduction across AV
4. Biventricular tachycardia
Answer CONTROVERSIAL AIIMS. HELP US WITH OPTIONS
Digoxin toxicity is especially suggested by paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with AV block and accelerated junctional rhythm in the presence of atrial fibrillation, so-called “regularization of atrial fibrillation. Prolonged PR intervals (greater than 0.20 second) may represent a conduction delay through the atria or AV junction due to digitalis toxicity or heart block.Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia is particularly characteristic of severe digitalis toxicity. The combination of increased (atrial) arrhythmogenesis and inhibited atrio-ventricular conduction (for example paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with A-V block - so-called "PAT with block") is said to be pathognomonic (i.e. diagnostic) of digoxin toxicity.

51. A patient was started haloperidol for schizophrenia before four days. Now the patient complaints of severe spasm of neck on one sidefor the past 2 hours. what is the likely diagnosis?
1. akathisia
2. Acute dystonia
3. malignant hyperthermia
4. tardive dyskinesia.
Answer: 2. Acute dystonia

52. Diaphragm develops from all except
1.pleuroperitoneal membrane
2.septum transversum
3.musculature of dorsal wall
4.cervical somites
Answer: 4.cervical somites

53. Sterile pyuria is seen in
1.chronic pyelonephritis
2.wilms”s tumour
3.tuberculosis
4.cystitis
Answer: tuberculosis

54. Haematological syndromes is seen in radiation doses of
1.5 rad
2.100 rad
3. 200 rad
4.
Answer: 3. 200
The hematologic syndrome is associated with radiation doses in the range of 150 to 600 rad (1 .5 to 6 Gy).

55. Best test to identify metastatic bone lesion is
1.ct scan
2.mri
3.bone scan
4.x ray
Answer. Bone scan

56. Which is the commonly used fixative in histopathological specimen
1.glutaraldehyde
2.formaldehyde
3.alcohol
4.picric acid
Answer: 2.formaldehyde
The most common fixative for light microscopy is 10% neutral buffered formalin (4% formaldehyde in phosphate buffered saline).

57. All are given in total parenteral nutrition except
1.carbohydrates
2.fat
3.fibre
4.micronutrients
Answer:fibre

58. About parvovirus B19 all are true except
1. spread by respiratory route
2.has affinity for erythrocyte p antigen
3.causes transient aplastic crisis
4.about only 10%of cases it crosses the placenta
Answer: Ref Harrison 17th edition p 1116/1117 , Greenwood microbiology 6th e p 452
The risk of transplacental infection is 30%

59. In patients receiving isoniazid theraphy which of the following micronutrients to be supplemented
1. Vitamin B12
2. pyridoxine
3.
4.
Answer.pyridoxine

60. Which of the following is used to diagnose intraoperative myocardial infarction
1.
2.
3.transesophagial echocardiogram
4.ecg
Answer: Please Help us with correct options

71 pt with solitary kidney hving 4 cm exophytic mass in lower pole. best management
partial nephrectomy
rdical nephrctmy with dialysis
radical witth immediate renal transplant
observation

72 NARP syndrome is seen in
mitochondrial
glycogen storage
lysosomal
lipid storage

73 hallmark of acute inflammation ??
vasoconstriction
stasis
vasodilation and increase in permeability
leucocytic margination

74 ONODI CELLS & HALLER CELLS are associated with the following structures respectively?
a.OPTIC NERVE & ORBITAL FLOOR
b.OPTIC NERVE & INTERAL CAROTID ARTERY
c.INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY& OPTIC NERVE
d.ORBITAL FLOOR & INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY

75 amp b causes def of
na
ca
k
mg

76 injury to common peronel n all except ??
loss of senstion over sole
foot drop
injury to neck of fibula
loss of dorsiflex of toe

77 Nerve involved most commonly in supracondylar fracture
Radial nerve
Median nerve
Ulnar nerve
Ant int nerve

78 definitive airway a/e:
nasotracheal tube
orotracheal tube
lma
cricothyroidectomy

76 not a cause of primary amoenorrhoea
kallman syndrome
turner syndrome
sheehan syndrome
rokitansky syndrome

79 a 65 yrs old lady presenting wth swollen n painful knee...having grade III osteoarthritic changes..wats the best management for her
1.conservative
2.arthroscopic washing
3.partial knee replacement
4.total knee replacement

80 which is the integrase inhibitor used in treatment of hiv??
raltegrase
indinavir
lopinavir

81 A 6 year old child presents with pain in hip in femoral triangle region. X-ray does not reveal any abnormality. What is the next step?
A. USG
B. MRI
C. Aspiration
D. Traction

82 Pasteurised milk is tested mostl commonly by:

a. phosphatase test
b. coliform test
c. catalase test

84 Anaesthetic agent with vasoconstrictor C/I in:
a. finger block
b. spinal block
c. epidural block
d. regional Anaesthesia

85 a rickshaw runover thigh of child ..tyre marks over thigh represents ??
patterned bruise
imprint abrasion
ectopic abrasion

86 prophylaxis of migraine a/e
propranolol
flunarizine
topiramate
levacetarem

87 early sign of magnesium toxicity
1.depression of deep tendon reflexes
2.respiratory depression
3.cardiac arrest
4.decrease urine output

88 all are actions of muscarinic antagonist except.
a. decreses gastric secretion
b. prolongs a-v conduction
c. decreses resp secretions
d.contraction of radial muscles of iris

89 all are seen in argyl robertson pupil except.
near reflex normal
direct reflex absent
consensual reflex normal
vision normal

89 Branch of trunk of brachial plexus
a. suprascalpur
b. long thoracic n
c.ant. Thoracic
d. nerve to sub clavius.

90 tolerance in opioids develops to all except
miosis
analgesia
euphoria
??

91 diaphragm develops from a/e:
septum transversum
dorsal mesocardium
pleuroperitoneal membrane
cervical myotomes
2 ecg is poor in detecting ischaemia in areas supplied by
lad
lt circumflex
lca
rca

93 The primary action of NO in git is?
A. Vasodilatation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. GI smooth muscle relaxation
D. Secretomotor

94 Which is not seen in digoxin toxicity?
A. Biventricular tachycardia
B. Proxysmal atrial tachycardia with ectopics
C. Ventricular bigeminy
D. Regularisation of AF

95 Which of the following does not cause indoor air pollution?
A. CO
B. Nitrogen dioxide
C. Radon
D. Mercury vapor

96 All are true about pheochromacytoma except?
A. 90% are malignant
B. 95% occur in the abdomen
C. They secrete catecholamines
D. They arise from sympathetic ganglions

Q 97 Most important and hazardous agent that can be used in bioterrorism:
A. Plague
B. Small pox
C. TB
D. Clostridium botulinum

[snip] True about epidural opioids are all except?
A. Acts on dorsal horn cell
B. Itching
C. Nausea & vomiting
D. Respiratory depression

Q99 Most common site of stricture formation after TURP?
A. Navicullar foss
B. Bulb
C. Prostatic membranous urethra
D. Bladder neck

Q100 Intraoperative myocardial infarction is best diagnosed by:
A. ECG
B. Invasive arterial pressure
C. Central venous pressure
D. Trans esophageal echocardiogram

Q101 Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon seen in
A. Psoriasis
B. Lichen planus
C. Vitiligo
D. Plane warts

1 02 ova albumin antigen was injected into a rabbit. What antibody will it produce initially?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD

103 a 50 yr lady has history of sprained ankle 2 months back followed by recovery. She now complains of severe pain in that ankle with inability to flex that foot. Physician notes edema and shiny skin in local examination. What is the probable diagnosis:
a. Fibromyalgia
b. Complex regional pain syndrome 1
c. Complex regi...

104 About yaws all are true except:
A. Caused by Treponema pertenue
B. Transmitted non-venerally
C. Secondary yaws can involve bones
D. Last stages involve heart and nerves

105 Weight gain in pregnancy is related to all except?
A. Ethnicity
B. Smoking
C. Socioeconomic status
D. Pre conceptional weight

106 Which virus among the following is least likely to cross placenta?
A. Rubella
B. Herpes simplex
C. HIV
D. HBV

107 A fire breaks out during laser vocal cord surgery. What is not to be done?
A. Pouring sterile water
B. Removing endotracheal tube
C. 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic gases
D. Treatment with steroid & antibiotic

108 A patient with history of discharge from right ear for past 1 year presented with severe ear ache. The discharge was cultured and the organism was found to be gram positive cocci. The least likely cause is?
A. Psuedomonas
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Staphylococcus
D. Haemophilus influenzae

109 Which among the following is the most common tumour associated with neurofibromatosis in a child?
A. Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Acute monocytic leukemia
D. Acute myeloid leukemia

110 Common carotid artery is palpated at which site?
A. Upper border of cricoid cartilage
B. Upper border of thyroid cartilage
C. Hyoid bone
D. ???

111 A 5 year old boy while having dinner suddenly becomes aphonic and is brought to the casulty for the complaint of respiratory difficulty. What should be the appropriate management?
A. Cricothyroidotomy
B. Emergency tracheostomy
C. Humidified oxygen
D. Heimlich maneuver

112 Which among the following is the most common fungal infection seen in immuno competent patients?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mucor

113 A teenaged girl complains of pain in knee on climbing stairs and on getting up after sitting for a long time. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. Chondromalacia
B. Plica syndrome
C. Bipartite patella
D. Patello-femoral osteoarthritis

114 cause of premature death in schizophrenia?
a)homicide
b)suicide
c)toxicity of antipsychotic drug
d)hospital acquired infection

115 Which of the following is not an adverse effect of thalidomide?
A. Diarrhoea
B. Teratogenicity
C. DVT
D. Peripheral neuropathy

116 Superior vena caval syndrome is most commonly caused by?
A. Lymphoma
B. Small cell lung ca
C. Non small cell lung ca
D. Secondary tumours

117 Which of the following is a contraindication for medical treatment in gallstones?
A. Radio opaque stones
B. Radiolucent stones
C. Normal functioning gall bladder
D. Small stones

18 lines of blashchko --
lymphatic
blood vessel
nerve
line of development

119 deoxy blood flow thru a/e:
umbilical a
umbilical vein
pulm a
right ventricle

120 best test for hcg ?
radioimmunoassay
elisa
latex test

121 aortic knuckle shadow on pa x ray..obliterated by consolidation of which portion of lung?
upper lingula
lower lingula
apex of lower lobe
post part ofupper lobe

122 Tetracycline used in prophylaxis of ?
cholera
brucellosis
leptospirosis

123 basal matabolic closely associated with ?
a.lean body mass
b.body surface area
c.body mass index
d.

124 maximal water absorption of water in git?
a jejunum
b colon
c ileum
d ??

125 pentology of fallot has which one of following extra entities:
a. asd
b. vsd
c. rvh
d. pulmonary stenosis

126 free radicals in cells produced by a/e
glut peroxidase
NO synthase
superoxide dismutase

127 all of done in management of shoulder dystocia except
a. fundal pressure
b. suprapubic press
c. mc roberts
d. woods

128 Which one of the following is not neuron tumour
a.ependymoma
b.gangliocytoma
c.ganglioglioma
d.??

129 In L5 root involvement, which among the following is not affected?
A. Thigh adduction
B. Knee flexion
C. Knee extension
D.great Toe extension

Q130 Which among the following is not a cause of fasting hypoglycemia?
A. Glucagon excess
B. Glucose 6 phospatase deficiency
C. Ureamia
D. Glycogen synthase deficiency

131 McKeon's theory on reduced prevalence of TB?
A. Increased awareness and knowledge
B. Medical advancement
C. Behavioural modification
D. Social and environmental factor

132 A child presents with abdominal pain only during passage of stools. No other symptoms like vomiting or blood in stools. There are no signs of intestinal obstruction. Most probable diagnosis is?
A. Rectal polyp
B. Intusseception
C. Meckels diverticulum
D. NEC

Q133 A man presents with a maculopapular rash. He gives a history of previous painless rash. Infection is due to?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Chlamydia
C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

Q134 Meglitinides - all are true except:
a. decreases post parendial hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia less common than sulfonylureas
c. it decreases insulin resistance
d. it acts by releasing insulin

Q135 Cleavage of which complement is involved in both -classical and alternate pathway a. C1
b. C2
c. C3
d. C4

Q136 what is not asso. with mestruation..?
1. hormone
2. vaginal cytology
3. estrus profile
4. cervical changes

Q137 best treatment option for genuine stress incontinence?
a. burch colposuspenssion
b. kelly's
c. sling operation
d.free vaginal tapping

Q138 Xanthogranulomatous inflammation all are true except ?
A. presence of foamy macrophage
B. presence of tuberculous infection
C. multinucleatd giant cell
D. yellow nodule

Q139 Posterior relations of head of pancreas are all except?
A. Common bile duct
B. First part of duodenum
C. right crus of diaphragm
D. Inferior vena cava

140 All are true about blood coagulation except.
1 factor 10 in doth intrinsic and extrinsic
2 extrinsic is activated by contact with plasma and -fly charged protein ans
3 calcium is very important ion for coagulation
4 intrinsic can be activated in vitro.

Q141 Late onset endophthalmitis after intraocular lens implantation caused by
a)staph epidrmidis
b)pseudomonas
c) strptococcus pyogenes
propionibacter acne

142 Which of the following is not a contraindication for pregnancy?
A. WPW syndrome
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Eisenmenger syndrome
D. Marfan syndrome with aortic root dilatation

Q143 which one of the following is a cardio protective fattyacid
a.stearic,
b.palmitic
c.oleic
d.w3 fatty acids

Q144 Which one of the following is not seen in floor of 3rd ventricle
a.optic stalk
b.mammilary body
C.occulomotor nerve
d.infundibulum

145 Which among the following not a component of hypogastric sheth?
A. Broad ligament
B. Transverse cervical ligament
C. lateral ligament
d.??

146 Child brought to casualty with reports of violent shaking by parents. Most likely injury?
A. Long bone #
B. Ruptured spleen
C.subdural hematoma
D.skull bone #

147 arthropod transmitted virus diseases not found in india
1.west nile fever
2.dengue
3.yellow fever
4.

148 open neural tube defects detected by increase in which of the following –

acetylcholinesterase
pseudocholinestrase
AFP

149 Which of the following is true abt HDI A/E?
a) LIFE EXPECTANCY AT BIRTH
b) LIFE EXPECTANCY AT 1 YEAR
c) EDUCATION
d) GDP in us $

150 most potent activator of T cells?
1. B cells
2. follicular dendritic cells
3. mature dendritic cells
4. macrophages

151 Following abt Phagocytosis all true A/e
a.<0.5 mcm
b.>0.5 mcm
c.Phagosome+lysosome=phagolysosome
d. d.amoeba n other unicellular org make their living out of it

152 APL Ab syndrome which Ab seen?
a.beta 1 microglobulin
b.ANA
c. anti centromere
d.

153 poor prognostic factor for ALL?
a.hyperdiploidy
b.t(9;22) t(4;11)
c.2-8 yrs
d.tlc <50000

154 Pearson's skewness coefficients
a.(Mean-median)/sd
b.Median-mean/sd
c.Sd/mean-median
d.Sd/median-mean

155 scarring alopecia with perifollicular greying .wth mucous mem n facial rashes /annular plaques?
1.d l e
2.lichen planus
3.psorisis
4.

156 With delirium tremens,not seen:
a.visual hallucination
b.unconsciousness
c.coarse tremors
d.opthalmoplegia

157 A patient wth intestinal infection 7 days later presented with amoebic liver abscess..5cmX5cmX6cm deep liver abscess on right side Rx of choice
a.Mz and antibiotics is choice
b.Repeated aspiration and antibiotics
c.Surgical drainage is best for above mentioned patient wth antibiotics
d.Resection of liver

158 drug of choice for central Diab insipidus?
a.desmopressin
b.leuprolide
c.thiazide

159 first structure to b fixed after Amputation is
a.Bone fixing
b.arterial repair
c.venous repair
d.nerve repair

160 fallopian tube immotility seen in:
a.churg strauss syndr
b.kartaganers syndr
c.noonans syndr
d.turner syndrome

161 Epileptic potential is present in
A. Desflurane
B. Halothane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Ether

162 which one is known as signature fracture?
1.depressed skull fracture
2.penetrating fracture
3.counter coup
4. # along the suture line

163 A 7 yr old child with craniopharyngioma got cranial surgery done following which pituitary got damaged.which hormone shld b replaced first-
1.hydrocort
2.thyroxine
3.growth hormone
4.

164 A 45 yr old lady presented with dub & usg finding of 8mm endometrium.which is next best investigation to conclude diagnosis?
1.endometrial histopathology
2.hysterectomy
3.ocp
4.follow up

Q165 Which one of the following is earliest to be diagnosed by USG?
a.anencephaly
b.prosencephaly
c.meningocele
d.spina bifida

166 .A 5 yr ol child presented wth ballooning of perpuce while micturationperpuce adhesion were there.whts the best treatment for him
a.adhesiolysis and dilatation
b.circumscision
c.dorsal slit
d.conservative

167 False about HDL?
a.can oxidise LDL
b.decreased levels fail to clear LDL
c.best predictor for CAD
d

168 A poison Illuminous, translucent, waxy
1. Yellow phosphorus
2.arsenic
3.thalium
4.?

170 Gene for expession of protein.yield max production of enzyme.is ensured by introduction of following gene by virus
a.Promoter gene
b.Initiator signal
c.transln and transcription termination signal
d.

171 Body plethysmography pressure findings when pt breathes aginst closed glottis in lungs n recordings respectively
1.bothdecreased
2.both increased
3.lungs increases n recording decreased
4.in boxincrease lung decrease

172. cartilage for growth plate is:
a.fibrous
b.prim cartilagenous
c.sec cartilagenous
d.plane jt

173 Not a predisposer for atherosclerotic plaque formation?
a.ApoE
b.alpha-macroglobulin
c.oxidised LDL
d.?

174. 7 mo child with cough ending in spasm.which is best way to sample?
a.Nasophayngeal swab
b.Cough sputum culture
c.tracheal aspirate
d.??

175 Unilateral undescended testis . ideal age of operation
a.6 months
b.12 months
c.24 months
d.36 months

176Following are true Carbohydrate antigen
a.Memory
b.poly clonal response
c.?
d. t cell stimulation

177 Aflatoxin produced by which of the fungal species?
a.aspergillus flavus
b.aspergillus niger
c. candida
d??

178 A 3.8 kg baby of a diabetic mother developed seizure 16 hr after birth ...
1.hypoglycemia
2.hypocalcemia
3. intraventricular hemorrhage
4. ??

179 girl presenting with occipital headache assoc wid ataxia vertigo.also similar complaints in mother ?
a.vestibular neuronitis
b.basillar migraine
c.
d.
180 18yr male with hemetemesis & melena and splenomegaly ....
1.NCPF
2.CIRRHOSIS
3.MALARIA with dic
4.extra hepatic portal venous obstruction

181 Pregnancy induced cholestasis marker... is
a.Bilirubin
b.Bile salts
c.Sgot or sgpt
d.Alp

182 ph 7.5 pco2 30.po2 102 is partially ,compensated by
met acidosis
met alkalosis
resp acidosis
resp alkalosis

183 pulmonary toxicity is seen with
1. bleomycin
2.cisplatin
3.methotrexate
4.actinomycin d

184 A female wid depressed mood,loss of appetite n no interest in surrounding wid insomnia specially wid time lag in iniating n wakes up 1 hr early for 1 yr aftr her husband death is diagnosed as a case of depression..most appropiate treatment
a.start wid a SSRI
b.two antideprassant combined therapy
c.no treatmnt as
D start antidepressant according to side affect profile

Q185 A pt comes with history of unresponsive fever n cough. xray pneumonia, gram positiv and partially acid fast branchin filaments 'grows on sheep blood agar'
1.actinomycosis
2.nocardiosis
3.aspergillus
4.

186 not a disorder of protein misfolding?
1.alzeimer
2.TB
3.cystic fibrosis
4.cjd

Q187 70yr old with intemittent jerks of recent origin, EEG showing b/L periodic spikes, diagnosis?
a)Hepes simplex encephalitis
b)Lewy body dementia
c)Alzheimer's
d)CJD

Q188 15 DAYS old baby comes with ca: 5 po4 :9 pth 30 (n=10-60) & seizures
1.psuedo hypo para thyroid
2.Vit d def
3.Hyperparathyroidism
4.HIE

Q189 most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children
1.hsv
2.enterovirus
3.mumps
4.listeria

q is pulm compliance decreased in all except
A)pulm congestion
B)pulm fibrosis
C)decreased surfactant
D)chronic bronchitis

191 all of the following true abt erlotinib except
1. tyrosine kinase inhibitor
2. food delays its absorption
3. rashes s/e
4. used in non small cell ca lung when not responded to other chemotherapeutic agents

192 People are separated into certain sub groups. People are selected randomly from sub groups. What type of sampling is done?
1. Random sampling
2. Stratified Sampling
3.cluster sampling
4.systemic sampling

Q194 capsule virulence in a/e -
1.nisseria memingitis
2.pneumococcus
3.bordetella pertussis
4.streptococcus

Q195 superior oblique palsy-
a.horizontal and down
b.horizontal and up
c.vertical and dwn
d.vertical and up

Q196 muscle of dorsal aorta develops frm
a.paraxial
b.intermediate
c.lateral plate
d.

197 Uretheral Crest is seen in
a. bulbar urtehera
b. prostatic urethera
c. membranous urethera

198 Site not affected in posterior cerebral artery infarct is?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Thalamus
D. Cortex

199 Visceral larva migrans seen in
1.strongyloides
2.ancylostoma
3.toxocara canis

200. psammoma bodies seen in all except
1.follicular ca thyroin
2.papillary ca thyroid
3.cystadenoca
4.meningioma

201 Denominator in Maternal Mortality rate
1. Total Number of Live birth
2. Total Number of Married Women
3. Total Number of Birth
4.

202 a tennis player gets hurt by a ball, he complaints of decreased vision.what may be finding s/o this trauma
1 optic neuritis
2 pars planitis
3 vitrious detachment/ avulsion
4 equatorial edema

203 A 35 year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, repeated ptosis and east fatiguability. The best test to diagnose her condition is:
1) Muscle biopsy
2) CPK
3) Edrophonium test
4) EMG

204 For Pcod all r true except
1 high lh/fsh
2 high dheas
3 very high prolactin
4 raised lh
205 most imp prognostic factor in Cong Dia Hernia

a.pulmonary ht
b.timing of surgery
c.size

206 dental numbering is done by all except
a.FDI two digit system
b.anatomic n diagramatic charting
c.pamer notation
d.??

207 Sterile Pyuria present in...
a.Tb
b. Chronic hydronephrosis??
c. Wilm's tumour
d. Neuroblastoma

208 parvovirus b19 a/e
a.<10 % transmitted by blood/placenta
b.Resp route
c.its a dna virus
d.affects erythroid progenitor cells

209 a mother with 33weeks gestation with sle. drugs not to be administered
1. sulfadiazine
2. hydroxychloroquine
3.prednisolone
4.methotrexate

209 mifepristone used in

a.molar
b.threatened abortion
c.fibroid
Ectopic pregnancy

210 hematuria in 55 yr old man for past 5 years.. 5 episodes lasting for 4 -5 days.wat will b next best inv to come to diagnosis?
a.urine exam nd microscopy
b.x ray kub
c.abdominal usg
d.

211 during TURP surgeon takes care to dissect above verumontenum so as not to injure the
1.external urethral sphincter
2.urethral crest
3.prostatic utricle
4.? d is sphincter vesicae

212 least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in female child---
a.placental steroid sulfatase
b.fetal aromatase
c.wt4 mutation
d.cah

213 medical treatment for variceal bleed
a.octreotide
b.pantaprazole
c.
d.
214 lady 25 yr old presents with high tsh and low t4 .which is most common cause for her illness
1.hashimotos
2.graves
3. pit macroadenoma
4. pseudohypothyroidism...

215 vit k carboxylates
1.aspartate
2.glutamate
3.
4.
216 false about C.diphtheriae:
a.toxin producn chromosome mediated
b.org cnfd by toxin production
c? toxic to heart and neuron
d?

217 stab injury with omentum protrusion in umbilical area ,vitals stable.immediate next step
1.fast
2.laparotomy
3.suturing with wound exploration
4.cect

218 The shaded area in graph (showing diabetic cut off n diabetic n non diabetic distribution) is
a] true +ve
b] true –ve
c] false +ve
d] false –ve

219 man with maculopapular rash with prev h/o painless rash n genital painless ulcer.diagn is:
a.treponema pallidum
b.chlamydia
c.c.granulomatis
d.H.ducreyi

220 false about strep pneumoniae?
a.capsule aids in infection
b.commonest cause of o.media and pneumonia
c. least likely cause of meningitis
d.bile sensitive

221 a schizophrenic pt started on haloperidol since 2 days comes with c/o torticollis,orofaciolingual movements. what is the diagnosis
1. acute dystonia
2.tardive dyskinesia
3.parkinsonism
4.akithisia

222 no carrier state is seen in?
1.measels
2.typhoid
3. diptheria.
4.polio

223 Pt. wt hypothyrodism wt IHD . Wt's d Rx ?
1.low dose of levothyroxin
2. normal dose
3.no levothyroxin
4.thyroid extract

224 a primigravida in 1st trimester had sputum positive 4 afb..treatment
a) deferred to 2nd trimester
b) cat1
c)cat2
d)cat3

225 A patient had head injury with opening of eyes with stimulation to pain, inappropriate words, and moving limbs what is the score:
a. 10
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14

226 Which of the following is true?

a. Acetylcholinesterase inhibited by malathion can be reversed with increasing levels of acetylcholinesterase
b. Sulphonilamide inhibits folate reductase irrevesibly.
c. flouoroacetate competetively inhibits aconitase
ethenol inhibit aldehd dehydrogenase when used in methanol poisoning

227 Secondary hemorrhage after how many days of tonsillectomy?
1: 24 hrs
2: 6 days
3: 12 days
4:12 hrs
228 Aprepitant is all except
1. Agonist at NK1
2. Crosses Blood Brain Barrier
3. Ameliorate Nausea Vomiting of chemotherapy
4. Metabolized by CYP450

229 Buprenorphine is a

1. Partial agonist at MU Receptor
2. Partial agonist at Kappa Receptor
3. Full Agonist at Mu Receptor
... antagonist at mu..

230 blood chimerism is maintained by??
a) monochorionin dizygotic
b)dichorionic dizygotic
c) vaninshin twins
d) singleton preganancy
231 crp stands for??
1.capsular polysaccharide in pneumococcus
2.
3.
4.
232 features of bstructive azoospermia??
1.high fsh high testosterone
2.low fsh high testosterone
3.normal fsh normal testosterone
4.

233 principle mediator of apoptosis?
1.nucleus
2.lysosome
3.mitochondria
4.?

234 regarding Leptospirosis.true is
a.rats only reservoir
b.fluroquinolones r doc
c.person to person transmission
d. oro fecal transmission

235 5 year old child and burned are of the size of palm is equal to
1. 1%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4.

236 Q:All are true about ranalozine except?
a)causes hypotension
b)1st line antianginal
c)hyoglycemic
D?

237 true abt sodium fluoride in treatment of otosclerosis?
1.inhibits osteblastic activity
2.used in active phase of otosclerosis when schwartz sign positive
3. has proteolytic activity(bone enzymes)
4.
238 wat is true abt ranula
1.epulis
2.swelling in floor of mouth
3.
4.
239 A 6 week old male infant was brought in a state of dehydration and shock . Na levels were low 124 k levels 7 meq per l , hyper pigmentation present with normal genitalia . Diagnosis ?
1.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
2.adrenal hmg n shock
3.Acute gastroenteritis with dehydration
4.

240 In pseudohyperparathyroidism what is true ?
1.Gain of function mutation
2.Decreased conversion of gtp to gmp
3.Decreased inositol tri phosph production
4.no response due to increase c amp

241 all true except selective estrogen receptor downregulator (serd), fulvestrant
1. Used for breast cancer
2. is selective oestrogen antagonist
3. Is slower acting, safer, more effective than SERM
‎4.given as once a month dose

242 which drug not used to control bleeding while delivery of a woman with heart disease ?
1.methylergometrime
2.carboprost
3.syntocin
4.misoprostol

243 not a autoimmune disease outta following??
1.sle
2.myasthenia fravis
3.sickle cell disease
4.graves disease

244 treatment wth INH leads to deficiency of ?
1.thiamine
2.niacin
3.pyridoxine
4.pantothenic acid

245 surgeon removes a part of liver to the left of falciform legiment. which segment the surgeon has removed
1. 1 & 4a
2. 2 & 3
3. 1 & 4b
4.
246 diminished kidney function which is done

1.N acetylcysteine
2.fenoldopam
3.low osmolar contrast
...
247 a patient had running nost and pain over medical aspect of eye foll that the patient developed, chemosis,protosis,diplopia of right eye on abduction with congestion of optic disc. what is the prbable diagnosis?
1.acute ethmoidal sinusitis
2.orbital cellulitis
3.cavernous sinus thrombosis
4.orbital apex syndrome

248 which one of the folloeing not used in diagnosis of insulinoma ?
1.fasting glucose test
2. d xylose
3. c peptide levels
4. insulin /glucose ratio

249 A young lady presents with fever , dysuria and pain abdomen . Uncomplicated acute cystitis was diagnosed . Which of these is false ?
1.Nitrate test positive
2.e coli ct was < 10 power 3
3.1 pus cell per 7 field
4.1 bacilli per field

250 pt with malaria, given primaquine develops hemolysis, diagnosis?
1.g 6 pd def
2.glucose 6 phosphate
3.
4.

251. Best investigation for bone metastases?
a.MRI
b.CT
c.bone scan
d. x ray

252. CT least accurate for:
a. 1 cm of aneurysm in hepatic artery
b.1 cm of lymph node inpara-aortic region
c.1 cm of pancreas mass in tail

Previous Medical PostGraduation Entrance Papers' Mcqs with Answers

Tuesday, January 11, 2011

410 - ALL INDIA (AIPGE) 2011 Mcqs with answers

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