6. All of the following are true about Scalaneus anterior muscle EXCEPT:
a. It is attached to the tubercle of second Rib
b. It is anterior to the transverse cervical artery.
c. It is pierced by the Phrenic nerve.
d. It separates the subclavian vein from the subclavian artery.
7. which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis
a. riboflavin
b. thiamine
c. niacin
d. panthotheic acid
8. which one of the pair not correct :
a. supportive care - acute viral hepatitis B
b. antiviral drugs - chronic viral hepatitis B
c. supportive care - chronic viral hepatitis B
d. antiviral drugs - acute viral hepatitis B
9. which of the following is maternally disomic
a. klinefelter syndrome
b. prader willi syndrome
c. angelman syndrome
d. turners
10. 40 year old man met motor vehicle catastrophe came to hospital in an hour with severe maxillo facial trauma PR 120 / min BP - 100 / 70 mm hg spo2 - 80% with oxygen . which was the immediate management
a. intravenous acess
c. orotracheal intubation
c. naso tracheal intubation
d. tracheostomy
Tuesday, November 16, 2010
408 - AIIMS November 2010 Mcqs - part 1
1. Which of the following attains adult size before birth?
a. Ear Ossicles
b. Maxilla
c. Mastoid
d. Parietal bone
2. 2. Spanish WINDLASS technique is a form of which type of execution?
a. garrotting
b. mugging
c. bansdola
d. hanging
3. A teen age girl with moderate acne also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be?
a. Oral isotretinoin
b. Oral acitretin
c. Oral minocycline
d. Cyproterone acetate
4. A woman has consumed several tabs of Amitryptiline. All of the following can be used as a part of her management except
a. Sodium bicarbonate infusion
b. Gastric lavage
c. Use Atropine as an antidote
d. Diazepam for seizure control
5. Frontal Sinus can be best visualised by :
a. Caldwell's view
b. Water's view
c. Towne's view
d. Schuller's view
a. Ear Ossicles
b. Maxilla
c. Mastoid
d. Parietal bone
2. 2. Spanish WINDLASS technique is a form of which type of execution?
a. garrotting
b. mugging
c. bansdola
d. hanging
3. A teen age girl with moderate acne also complaining of irregular menses. Drug of choice will be?
a. Oral isotretinoin
b. Oral acitretin
c. Oral minocycline
d. Cyproterone acetate
4. A woman has consumed several tabs of Amitryptiline. All of the following can be used as a part of her management except
a. Sodium bicarbonate infusion
b. Gastric lavage
c. Use Atropine as an antidote
d. Diazepam for seizure control
5. Frontal Sinus can be best visualised by :
a. Caldwell's view
b. Water's view
c. Towne's view
d. Schuller's view
Thursday, July 1, 2010
407 - NIMS MCH Neurosurgery Paper Mcqs - 2
2Q: Which of the following are the components of PQLI ?
a. Life expectancy at age one, literacy rate and Infant mortality rate
b. Life expectancy at birth, literacy rate and infant mortality rate
c. Life expectancy at age one, literacy rate and income
d. Life expectancy at birth, literacy rate and income
3Q: Why are nitrites used in Cyanide poisoning ?
a. Because they produce methemoglobin
b. ?????????????
c. ?????????????
d. ?????????????
4Q: Which of the following act without affecting the plasma potassium levels in Hyperkalemia ?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin and glucose
c. Sodium Bicarbonate
d. resin enema
5Q: Which of the following is least stable?
a. Jefferson's fracture
b. Type I odontoid fracture
c. Type II odontoid fracture
d. Type III odontoid fracture
a. Life expectancy at age one, literacy rate and Infant mortality rate
b. Life expectancy at birth, literacy rate and infant mortality rate
c. Life expectancy at age one, literacy rate and income
d. Life expectancy at birth, literacy rate and income
3Q: Why are nitrites used in Cyanide poisoning ?
a. Because they produce methemoglobin
b. ?????????????
c. ?????????????
d. ?????????????
4Q: Which of the following act without affecting the plasma potassium levels in Hyperkalemia ?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin and glucose
c. Sodium Bicarbonate
d. resin enema
5Q: Which of the following is least stable?
a. Jefferson's fracture
b. Type I odontoid fracture
c. Type II odontoid fracture
d. Type III odontoid fracture
406 - NIMS MCH Neurosurgery Paper Mcqs - 1
1q: Observe the following picture of functional divisions of cerebellum :
Which of the following correctly represent the functions of the parts 1,2,3 of the cerebellum respectively
A. Motor planning, Motor execution and eye movements
B. Motor execution, Motor planning and eye movements
C. Eye movements, Motor planning and Motor execution
D. Eye movements, Motor execution and Motor planning
EXPLANATION :
*The part 1 in the figure shows the SPINOCEREBELLUM which has the medial and lateral descending tracts, and these are responsible for the Motor execution function.
*The part 2 in the figure denotes the CEREBROCEREBELLUM which are connected to the motor and premotor areas of the cerebrum and help in Motor planning.
*The part 3 in the figure denotes the VESTIBULOCEREBELLUM (Flocculonodular lobe) which helps in balance and eye movements.
*Shown below is the actual figure from which the question has been made :
A. Motor planning, Motor execution and eye movements
B. Motor execution, Motor planning and eye movements
C. Eye movements, Motor planning and Motor execution
D. Eye movements, Motor execution and Motor planning
EXPLANATION :
*The part 1 in the figure shows the SPINOCEREBELLUM which has the medial and lateral descending tracts, and these are responsible for the Motor execution function.
*The part 2 in the figure denotes the CEREBROCEREBELLUM which are connected to the motor and premotor areas of the cerebrum and help in Motor planning.
*The part 3 in the figure denotes the VESTIBULOCEREBELLUM (Flocculonodular lobe) which helps in balance and eye movements.
*Shown below is the actual figure from which the question has been made :
Wednesday, May 26, 2010
405 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 4
16) larva seen in stool??
a) ankylostoma
b) strongyloids
c) enterobius vermicularis
d) ascaris
e) Loa loa
17) stains used in amyloidosis
a) congo red
b) thioflavin
c) Reticulin
d) Grams iodine
18) which metastases to heart
a) ca breast
b) ca stomach
c) ca lung
d) Ca prostate
19) Sampters triad
a) bronchiatesis
b) asthma
C) aspirin sensitivity
d) nasal polyposis
20) true about p53
a) proapoptotic
b) tumor supressor protein ( not gene )
c) protooncogene
d) protein kinase inhibitor
a) ankylostoma
b) strongyloids
c) enterobius vermicularis
d) ascaris
e) Loa loa
17) stains used in amyloidosis
a) congo red
b) thioflavin
c) Reticulin
d) Grams iodine
18) which metastases to heart
a) ca breast
b) ca stomach
c) ca lung
d) Ca prostate
19) Sampters triad
a) bronchiatesis
b) asthma
C) aspirin sensitivity
d) nasal polyposis
20) true about p53
a) proapoptotic
b) tumor supressor protein ( not gene )
c) protooncogene
d) protein kinase inhibitor
404 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 3
11q) Which substance not deposited in liver
a) lipofuschin
b) pseudomelanin
c) bile pigment
d) iron
12) Rotator cuf formd by a/e
a) Supraspinats
b) Infraspinatus
c) t.minor
d) t.major
e) subscapularis.
13) regarding H1N1 in pregnancy
1)oseltamavir is used
2)H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy
3)should start t/t only aftr confirmation
4)
14) about gliobastoma tre are??
a) 3rd decade
b) 4th decade
c) 5th decade
d) tumor of post fossa
e) supratentorial
15) A person driving a vehicle met with an accident he was on certain medications which of the following might be the drugs he might be taking
1) fluoxetine
2) fexofenadine
3) tramadol
4) buspirone
a) lipofuschin
b) pseudomelanin
c) bile pigment
d) iron
12) Rotator cuf formd by a/e
a) Supraspinats
b) Infraspinatus
c) t.minor
d) t.major
e) subscapularis.
13) regarding H1N1 in pregnancy
1)oseltamavir is used
2)H1N1 more dangerous in pregnancy
3)should start t/t only aftr confirmation
4)
14) about gliobastoma tre are??
a) 3rd decade
b) 4th decade
c) 5th decade
d) tumor of post fossa
e) supratentorial
15) A person driving a vehicle met with an accident he was on certain medications which of the following might be the drugs he might be taking
1) fluoxetine
2) fexofenadine
3) tramadol
4) buspirone
403 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 2
6q: CO2 retention seen in?
a)lung failure
b)respiratory failure
c)high altitude
d)ventilator failure
e)pulmonary edema
7q: True about vaccum extraction of fetus?
a)can be used in non dilated cervix
b)can be used in dilated cervix
c)face presentation
d) applied 3cm post. To Ant fontanel
e) applied 3cm ant. To post fontanel
8q: true abour radial nerve??
a)branch of posr cord
b)nerve of extensor compartment
c) c7 t1
d) ant interosi.. nerve is branch of it
9q: anterior triangle consist of?
a)submental trngle
b)carotid triangle
c)supraclavicular triangle
d)digastric
e)muscular
10q: seen in common peronel nerve injury?
a)inversion anability
b)loss of srnsation of sole
c)foot drop
d)loss of extension of great toe
a)lung failure
b)respiratory failure
c)high altitude
d)ventilator failure
e)pulmonary edema
7q: True about vaccum extraction of fetus?
a)can be used in non dilated cervix
b)can be used in dilated cervix
c)face presentation
d) applied 3cm post. To Ant fontanel
e) applied 3cm ant. To post fontanel
8q: true abour radial nerve??
a)branch of posr cord
b)nerve of extensor compartment
c) c7 t1
d) ant interosi.. nerve is branch of it
9q: anterior triangle consist of?
a)submental trngle
b)carotid triangle
c)supraclavicular triangle
d)digastric
e)muscular
10q: seen in common peronel nerve injury?
a)inversion anability
b)loss of srnsation of sole
c)foot drop
d)loss of extension of great toe
402 - PGI Chandigarh May 2010 Mcqs - part 1
1q: Which are not the flexors of forearm?
1)pronater teres
2)brachialis
3)coracobrachialis
4)anconeus
5)Flexor polic. longus
2q: non coding RNAs are
1)siRNA
2)miRNA
3)tRNA
4)mRNA
5)rRna
3q: The state where CPR is higher than the national value
a)west bengal
b)maharashtra
c)Rajasthan
d)MP
4q: glycophospholipids made up of...
1) glucose
2) glycerol
3) sphingosine
4) fatty acids
5) ????
5q: what all are seen in borellia burgdorferi ?
1)erythema chronicum migrans
2)acrodermatitis atrophicans
3)lymphocyte cutis
4)????
1)pronater teres
2)brachialis
3)coracobrachialis
4)anconeus
5)Flexor polic. longus
2q: non coding RNAs are
1)siRNA
2)miRNA
3)tRNA
4)mRNA
5)rRna
3q: The state where CPR is higher than the national value
a)west bengal
b)maharashtra
c)Rajasthan
d)MP
4q: glycophospholipids made up of...
1) glucose
2) glycerol
3) sphingosine
4) fatty acids
5) ????
5q: what all are seen in borellia burgdorferi ?
1)erythema chronicum migrans
2)acrodermatitis atrophicans
3)lymphocyte cutis
4)????
Friday, May 21, 2010
401 - AIIMS May 2010 Psychiatry Mcqs
196. Naltrexone is used in opioid dependence to
a) Prevent respiratory depression
b) Treat withdrawl symptoms
c) Prevent relapse
d) Detoxification of opioid overdose
197. Drug of choice in OCD
a) Fluoxetine
b) Imipramine
c) Alprazolam
d) Chlorpromazine
198. 3 yr old girl has delayed devolpmental milestone, delayed speech, difficulty in concentrating on studies, plays with herself & does not make friends. Diagnosis is
a) Autism
b) ADHD
c) Specific learning disorder
d) Mental retardation
199. Most common substance abuse in India
a) Tobacco
b) Cannabis
c) Alcohol
d) Opium
200. A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is the diagnosis?
a) Binge eating
b) Bulimia nervosa
c) Schizophrenia
d) Anorexia nervosa
a) Prevent respiratory depression
b) Treat withdrawl symptoms
c) Prevent relapse
d) Detoxification of opioid overdose
197. Drug of choice in OCD
a) Fluoxetine
b) Imipramine
c) Alprazolam
d) Chlorpromazine
198. 3 yr old girl has delayed devolpmental milestone, delayed speech, difficulty in concentrating on studies, plays with herself & does not make friends. Diagnosis is
a) Autism
b) ADHD
c) Specific learning disorder
d) Mental retardation
199. Most common substance abuse in India
a) Tobacco
b) Cannabis
c) Alcohol
d) Opium
200. A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is the diagnosis?
a) Binge eating
b) Bulimia nervosa
c) Schizophrenia
d) Anorexia nervosa
400 - AIIMS May 2010 Radiology Mcqs
190. A 48 yr old woman comes with b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity & mild impairment of respiratory movements. MRI shows an intradural mid-dorsal midline enhancing
lesion. What is the diagnosis?
a) Intradural lipoma
b) Meningioma
c) Neuroenteric cyst
d) Dermoid cyst
191. A patient brought in unconscious state with external injuries. CT is normal with no midline shift and ventricles are normal. Multiple small hemorhages are seen at the base of the brain. Diagnosis is
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Diffuse axonal injuries
c) Concussion
d) Contusion
192. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone
a) CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain X-ray
193. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on usg is not sugestive of malignancy?
a) Hyperechogenesity
b) Hypoechogenesity
c) Non-homogenous
d) Microcalcification
194. Radiological features of left ventricular failure are all except
a) Oligemic lung fields
b) Increased flow in upper lobe veins
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Kerley B-lines
195. Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia
a) Thickened bone matrix
b) Cortical erosion
c) Ground glass appearance
d) Bone enlargement
lesion. What is the diagnosis?
a) Intradural lipoma
b) Meningioma
c) Neuroenteric cyst
d) Dermoid cyst
191. A patient brought in unconscious state with external injuries. CT is normal with no midline shift and ventricles are normal. Multiple small hemorhages are seen at the base of the brain. Diagnosis is
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b) Diffuse axonal injuries
c) Concussion
d) Contusion
192. Investigation of choice for a lesion of temporal bone
a) CT
b) MRI
c) USG
d) Plain X-ray
193. Which of the following feature of thyroid nodule on usg is not sugestive of malignancy?
a) Hyperechogenesity
b) Hypoechogenesity
c) Non-homogenous
d) Microcalcification
194. Radiological features of left ventricular failure are all except
a) Oligemic lung fields
b) Increased flow in upper lobe veins
c) Cardiomegaly
d) Kerley B-lines
195. Characteristic radiological feature of fibrous dysplasia
a) Thickened bone matrix
b) Cortical erosion
c) Ground glass appearance
d) Bone enlargement
399 - AIIMS May 2010 Anaesthesia Mcqs
187. The volatility of an anesthetic agent is directly proportional to lowering the flow
in the portal vein. Portal flow is
maximally reduced by
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) Enflurane
188. A young boy has sickle cell trait. which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
a) IV regional anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
c) Brachial plexus block by infraclavicular approach
d) Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
189. Methemoglobinemia caused by
a) Procaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Lignocaine
in the portal vein. Portal flow is
maximally reduced by
a) Ether
b) Halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) Enflurane
188. A young boy has sickle cell trait. which of the following anaesthesia is contraindicated?
a) IV regional anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block by supraclavicular approach
c) Brachial plexus block by infraclavicular approach
d) Brachial plexus block by axillary approach
189. Methemoglobinemia caused by
a) Procaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Lignocaine
398 - AIIMS May 2010 Skin Mcqs
185. Which of the following is NOT a primary skin disease?
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Bowen’s disease
c) Psoriasis
d) Lichen planus
186. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Hensen’s disease
c) Weber-Christian disease
d) Urticarial vasculitis
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Bowen’s disease
c) Psoriasis
d) Lichen planus
186. 25 yr old male having fever & malaise since 2 weeks, arthritis of ankle joint and tender erythematous nodules over the shin. Diagnosis is
a) Erythema nodosum
b) Hensen’s disease
c) Weber-Christian disease
d) Urticarial vasculitis
397 - AIIMS May 2010 ENT Mcqs
180. Most common site for CSF rhinorrhoea
a) Frontal sinus
b) Ethmoidal sinus
c) Tegmen tympani
d) Maxillary sinus
181. A case of Bell’s palsy presents on day 3. Which of the following is the appropriate
management?
a) Oral steroids alone
b) Oral steroids + antiviral acyclovir
c) Acyclovir + amantadine
d) Intralabyrinthine steroids
182. Endolymph in inner ear produced by
a) Phalangeal cells
b) Stria vascularis
c) Lamina spiralis ossea
d) Basilar membrane
183. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are A/E
a) Cricothyroid
b) Thyrohyoid
c) Hyoepiglottic
d) Cricotracheal
184. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
a) Cochlear aqueduct
b) Endolymphatic sac
c) Vestibular aqueduct
d) Hyrtle fissure
a) Frontal sinus
b) Ethmoidal sinus
c) Tegmen tympani
d) Maxillary sinus
181. A case of Bell’s palsy presents on day 3. Which of the following is the appropriate
management?
a) Oral steroids alone
b) Oral steroids + antiviral acyclovir
c) Acyclovir + amantadine
d) Intralabyrinthine steroids
182. Endolymph in inner ear produced by
a) Phalangeal cells
b) Stria vascularis
c) Lamina spiralis ossea
d) Basilar membrane
183. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are A/E
a) Cricothyroid
b) Thyrohyoid
c) Hyoepiglottic
d) Cricotracheal
184. Infection of CNS spreads in inner ear through
a) Cochlear aqueduct
b) Endolymphatic sac
c) Vestibular aqueduct
d) Hyrtle fissure
396 - AIIMS May 2010 Opthalmology Mcqs
174. Which of the following does NOT scavenge free radicals in the lens?
a) Vit A
b) Vit C
c) Vit E
d) Catalase
175. Highest refractive index
a) Cornea
b) Anterior surface of lens
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Centre of lens
176. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Lens
d) Cornea
177. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India except?
a) Glaucoma
b) Congenital dacryocystitis
c) Malnutrition
d) Ophthalmia neonatorum
178. A young male presents with h/o unilateral progressive proptosis for many years. Swelling is increased on bending forward and compressible,USG shows retrobulbar echogenicity. What is
the diagnosis?
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Orbital varix
c) Orbital A-V fistula
d) Orbital encephalocele
179. Which of the following ocular conditions is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) Lawrence-Moon-Biedel syndrome
d) Bassen Kornzweig disease
a) Vit A
b) Vit C
c) Vit E
d) Catalase
175. Highest refractive index
a) Cornea
b) Anterior surface of lens
c) Posterior surface of lens
d) Centre of lens
176. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in
a) Aqueous humor
b) Vitreous humor
c) Lens
d) Cornea
177. All are important causes of childhood blindness in India except?
a) Glaucoma
b) Congenital dacryocystitis
c) Malnutrition
d) Ophthalmia neonatorum
178. A young male presents with h/o unilateral progressive proptosis for many years. Swelling is increased on bending forward and compressible,USG shows retrobulbar echogenicity. What is
the diagnosis?
a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Orbital varix
c) Orbital A-V fistula
d) Orbital encephalocele
179. Which of the following ocular conditions is autosomal dominant in inheritance?
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) Lawrence-Moon-Biedel syndrome
d) Bassen Kornzweig disease
395 - AIIMS May 2010 Obstetrics and Gynaecology Mcqs
158. Pain of ovarian carcinoma is referred to
a) Back of thigh
b) Gluteal region
c) Anterior surface of thigh
d) Medial surface of thigh
159. A woman with primary infertility with CA-125 level 90 iu. She has bilateral palpable mass. USG shows mass in pelvis. Diagnosis may be
a) Ovarian CA
b) TB
c) Endometrioma
d) Borderline ovarian tumor
160. Causes of primary amenorrhea are A/E
a) Rokitansky syndrome
b) Sheehan syndrome
c) Kallman syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
161. Test for ovarian reserve
a) LH
b) LH/FSH ratio
c) FSH
d) Estradiol
162. Clomiphene citrate – True statement is
a) Euclomiphene is antiestrogenic
b) Pregnancy rate is 3 times as compared to placebo
c) Incidence of twins is 5-6%
d) It has been shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males
163. At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated?
a) 34 weeks
b) 36 weeks
c) 38 weeks
d) 40 weeks
164. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding. After resuscitation most likely complication is
a) Galactorrhoea
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Loss of menstruation
d) Cushing’s syndrome
165. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
a) Tranexemic acid
b) Ethamsylate
c) Combined OCP
d) Progesterone
166. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in A/E
a) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
b) Mento-anterior
c) Extended breech
d) Dichorionic twins – First vertex, second breech
167. A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be
a) Cryosurgery
b) Conization
c) LEEP
d) Hysterectomy
168. Lady undergoes total radical hysterectomy for Stage Ib Ca Cervix. It is found that Ca extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix. Next step of management
a) Chemotherapy
b) Radiotherapy
c) Chemoradiotherapy
d) Follow-up
169. All are seen in gestational diabetes except
a) Previous macrosomic baby
b) Obesity
c) Malformations
d) Polyhydramnios
170. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are A/E
a) Corticosteroids
b) Sulphasalazine
c) Methotrexate
d) Hydroxychloroquine
171. Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers
a) Barrier method
b) Combined OCP
c) Lactational amenorrhoea
d) Progesterone only pills
172. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
a) Phosphatidylesterase
b) Acetylcholinesterase
c) Pseudocholinesterase
d) Butyrylcholinesterase
173. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in 1st trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non compliant. Baby was born with hydrocephalus &
intracerebral calcification. Which of these is likely cause
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) CMV
c) Cryptococcus
d) Rubella
a) Back of thigh
b) Gluteal region
c) Anterior surface of thigh
d) Medial surface of thigh
159. A woman with primary infertility with CA-125 level 90 iu. She has bilateral palpable mass. USG shows mass in pelvis. Diagnosis may be
a) Ovarian CA
b) TB
c) Endometrioma
d) Borderline ovarian tumor
160. Causes of primary amenorrhea are A/E
a) Rokitansky syndrome
b) Sheehan syndrome
c) Kallman syndrome
d) Turner syndrome
161. Test for ovarian reserve
a) LH
b) LH/FSH ratio
c) FSH
d) Estradiol
162. Clomiphene citrate – True statement is
a) Euclomiphene is antiestrogenic
b) Pregnancy rate is 3 times as compared to placebo
c) Incidence of twins is 5-6%
d) It has been shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males
163. At what gestational age should a pregnancy with cholestasis of pregnancy be terminated?
a) 34 weeks
b) 36 weeks
c) 38 weeks
d) 40 weeks
164. A lady with placenta previa delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding. After resuscitation most likely complication is
a) Galactorrhoea
b) Diabetes insipidus
c) Loss of menstruation
d) Cushing’s syndrome
165. Which of the following treatments for menorrhagia is not supported by evidence?
a) Tranexemic acid
b) Ethamsylate
c) Combined OCP
d) Progesterone
166. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in A/E
a) Monochorionic monoamniotic twins
b) Mento-anterior
c) Extended breech
d) Dichorionic twins – First vertex, second breech
167. A 35 yr old P3+0 is observed to have CIN grade III on colposcopic biopsy. Best treatment will be
a) Cryosurgery
b) Conization
c) LEEP
d) Hysterectomy
168. Lady undergoes total radical hysterectomy for Stage Ib Ca Cervix. It is found that Ca extends to lower part of body of uterus and upper part of cervix. Next step of management
a) Chemotherapy
b) Radiotherapy
c) Chemoradiotherapy
d) Follow-up
169. All are seen in gestational diabetes except
a) Previous macrosomic baby
b) Obesity
c) Malformations
d) Polyhydramnios
170. A pregnant female at 35 wks of pregnancy is diagnosed with SLE. Drugs that can be used to treat are A/E
a) Corticosteroids
b) Sulphasalazine
c) Methotrexate
d) Hydroxychloroquine
171. Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers
a) Barrier method
b) Combined OCP
c) Lactational amenorrhoea
d) Progesterone only pills
172. The presence of increased levels of which of the following in amniotic fluid is an indicator of open neural tube defect in the fetus?
a) Phosphatidylesterase
b) Acetylcholinesterase
c) Pseudocholinesterase
d) Butyrylcholinesterase
173. A pregnant lady had no complaints but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in 1st trimester. She was prescribed spiramycin but she was non compliant. Baby was born with hydrocephalus &
intracerebral calcification. Which of these is likely cause
a) Toxoplasmosis
b) CMV
c) Cryptococcus
d) Rubella
394 - AIIMS May 2010 Orthopaedics Mcqs
151. A 68 yr old man came with pain and swelling of right knee. Ahlbeck grade 2 osteoarthritic changes were found on investigation. What is the further management?
a) Conservative
b) Arthroscopic washout
c) High tibial osteotomy
d) Total knee replacement
152. Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s sarcoma
153. Posterior glenohumeral instability is tested by
a) Jerk test
b) Crank test
c) Sulcus test
d) Fulcrum test
154. Mineral of the bone is
a) Calcite
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
155. 65 yrs old man with H/o of back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. Marked stiffness on examination. Mild restriction of chest movements. On X-ray, syndesmophytes are present. Diagnosis is
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
c) Ankylosing hyperosteosis
d) Lumbar canal stenosis
156. A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained. Next best investigation is
a) ANA
b) RF
c) CPK
d) TSH
157. Synovial fluid – True statements are A/E
a) Secreted by Type A cells
b) Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
c) Contains hyaluronic acid
d) Viscosity is variable
a) Conservative
b) Arthroscopic washout
c) High tibial osteotomy
d) Total knee replacement
152. Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a) Osteosarcoma
b) Chondrosarcoma
c) Osteoclastoma
d) Ewing’s sarcoma
153. Posterior glenohumeral instability is tested by
a) Jerk test
b) Crank test
c) Sulcus test
d) Fulcrum test
154. Mineral of the bone is
a) Calcite
b) Hydroxyapatite
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
155. 65 yrs old man with H/o of back pain since 3 months. ESR is raised. Marked stiffness on examination. Mild restriction of chest movements. On X-ray, syndesmophytes are present. Diagnosis is
a) Ankylosing spondylitis
b) Degenerative osteoarthritis of spine
c) Ankylosing hyperosteosis
d) Lumbar canal stenosis
156. A lady presents with right knee swelling. Aspiration was done in which CPPD crystals were obtained. Next best investigation is
a) ANA
b) RF
c) CPK
d) TSH
157. Synovial fluid – True statements are A/E
a) Secreted by Type A cells
b) Follows Non-Newtonian fluid kinetics
c) Contains hyaluronic acid
d) Viscosity is variable
393 - AIIMS May 2010 Surgery Mcqs
134. Most sensitive screening procedure for CA Prostate
a) DRE
b) PSA
c) DRE + PSA
d) Endorectal coil MRI with T1W & T2W images
135. Orchiopexy for undescended testes is done ideally at what age?
a) Neonate
b) 1-2 yrs
c) 5 yrs
d) Puberty
136. Polyp not associated with risk of malignancy
a) Juvenile polyp
b) FAP
c) Peutz Jeghers syndrome
d) Juvenile polyposis syndrome
137. Peutz Jeghers polyps present in
a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Esophagus
d) Jejunum
138. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection
a) Uric acid
b) Triple phosphate
c) Calcium oxalate
d) Xanthine
139. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with
a) Hypokalemic acidosis
b) Hypokalemic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemic acidosis
d) Hyperkalemic alkalosis
140. A man with blunt abdominal trauma with h/o pelvic fracture has presented to ER. He has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs. His bladder is palpable per abdomen. Which of the following is correct?
a) Anuria due to hemorrhagic shock
b) Urethral injury
c) Ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum
d) Bladder rupture
141. Sister Mary Joseph nodule associated with
a) Pancreatic ca
b) Gastric ca
c) Colonic ca
d) Ovarian ca
142. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery & abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which of the following is required?
a) Left medial visceral rotation
b) Right medial visceral rotation
c) Cranial visceral rotation
d) Caudal visceral rotation
143. Best prognostic factor for head injury
a) Age
b) Mode of injury
c) Glasgow coma scale
d) CT finding
144. Most immediate complication of ileostomy in the post-operative period
a) Obstruction
b) Necrosis
c) Diarrhea
d) Prolapse
145. Follicular carcinoma differs from follicular adenoma by
a) Vascular invasion
b) Increased mitotic figures
c) Hurthle cell change
d) Lining of columnar & cuboidal cells
146. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – True are A/E
a) Follicular destruction
b) Increase in lymphocytes
c) Oncocytic metaplasia
d) Orphan Annie eye nuclei
147. Most reliable investigation for Amyloidosis
a) Rectal biopsy
b) Sigmoidoscopy
c) Colonoscopy
d) Gingival biopsy
148. A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
a) USG
b) X-ray KUB
c) Urine routine microscopy
d) Urine cytology for malignant cells
149. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy?
a) Depends on organ injured
b) Always midline
c) Always transverse
d) Depends upon type of injury
150. Which of the following is true about branchial anomalies?
a) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial arch
b) All patients present with stridor at birth
c) Branchial cyst is more common than sinus
d) All branchial sinuses need to be excised
a) DRE
b) PSA
c) DRE + PSA
d) Endorectal coil MRI with T1W & T2W images
135. Orchiopexy for undescended testes is done ideally at what age?
a) Neonate
b) 1-2 yrs
c) 5 yrs
d) Puberty
136. Polyp not associated with risk of malignancy
a) Juvenile polyp
b) FAP
c) Peutz Jeghers syndrome
d) Juvenile polyposis syndrome
137. Peutz Jeghers polyps present in
a) Rectum
b) Colon
c) Esophagus
d) Jejunum
138. Renal calculi associated with Proteus infection
a) Uric acid
b) Triple phosphate
c) Calcium oxalate
d) Xanthine
139. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis associated with
a) Hypokalemic acidosis
b) Hypokalemic alkalosis
c) Hyperkalemic acidosis
d) Hyperkalemic alkalosis
140. A man with blunt abdominal trauma with h/o pelvic fracture has presented to ER. He has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs. His bladder is palpable per abdomen. Which of the following is correct?
a) Anuria due to hemorrhagic shock
b) Urethral injury
c) Ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum
d) Bladder rupture
141. Sister Mary Joseph nodule associated with
a) Pancreatic ca
b) Gastric ca
c) Colonic ca
d) Ovarian ca
142. In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal artery, superior mesenteric artery & abdominal aorta in a case of trauma, which of the following is required?
a) Left medial visceral rotation
b) Right medial visceral rotation
c) Cranial visceral rotation
d) Caudal visceral rotation
143. Best prognostic factor for head injury
a) Age
b) Mode of injury
c) Glasgow coma scale
d) CT finding
144. Most immediate complication of ileostomy in the post-operative period
a) Obstruction
b) Necrosis
c) Diarrhea
d) Prolapse
145. Follicular carcinoma differs from follicular adenoma by
a) Vascular invasion
b) Increased mitotic figures
c) Hurthle cell change
d) Lining of columnar & cuboidal cells
146. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis – True are A/E
a) Follicular destruction
b) Increase in lymphocytes
c) Oncocytic metaplasia
d) Orphan Annie eye nuclei
147. Most reliable investigation for Amyloidosis
a) Rectal biopsy
b) Sigmoidoscopy
c) Colonoscopy
d) Gingival biopsy
148. A 60 yr old chronic smoker presents with painless gross hematuria of 1 day duration. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria
a) USG
b) X-ray KUB
c) Urine routine microscopy
d) Urine cytology for malignant cells
149. In blunt trauma abdomen what should be the approach for doing laparotomy?
a) Depends on organ injured
b) Always midline
c) Always transverse
d) Depends upon type of injury
150. Which of the following is true about branchial anomalies?
a) Mostly arises from 2nd branchial arch
b) All patients present with stridor at birth
c) Branchial cyst is more common than sinus
d) All branchial sinuses need to be excised
392 - AIIMS May 2010 Paediatrics Mcqs
123. All are signs of impending Eisenmenger except
a) Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
b) Single S2
c) Loud P2
d) Graham Steele murmur
124. Eisenmenger syndrome – True are A/E
a) Pulmonary veins are not distended
b) RV & LV walls come back to normal size
c) Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
d) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries
125. Chang staging is used for
a) Retinoblastoma
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Rhabdomyosarcoma
126. Which is the most common CNS tumor to metastasize outside the brain?
a) Glioblastoma multiforme
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ependymoma
d) Choroid plexus tumor
127. Which of the following is a component of Pentalogy of Fallot
a) ASD
b) PDA
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) LVH
128. A newborn has been brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelle. CT shows midline lesion with hypoechogenesity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis is
a) Vein of Galen malformation
b) Arachnoid cyst
c) Teratoma
d) Encephalocele
129. 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is
a) CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Insulinoma
130. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children
a) Weight
b) Mid-arm circumference
c) Rate of increase of height & weight
d) Head circumference
131. A child presents with failure to thrive with frequent vomiting,diarrhoea,hepatosplenomegaly & abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
a) Adrenal hemorrhage
b) Wolman’s disease
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Addison’s disease
132. Most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume depletion in infant
a) Stroke volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Blood pressure
133. An alert 6 month old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR-45/min, HR-180/min, SBP-85 mm of Hg. Extremities are cold & mottled. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is
a) Early compensated hypovolemic shock
b) Early decompensated hypovolemic shock
c) Late compensated hypovolemic shock
d) Late decompensated shock due to SVT
a) Increased flow murmur across tricuspid & pulmonary valve
b) Single S2
c) Loud P2
d) Graham Steele murmur
124. Eisenmenger syndrome – True are A/E
a) Pulmonary veins are not distended
b) RV & LV walls come back to normal size
c) Dilatation of central pulmonary artery
d) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary arteries
125. Chang staging is used for
a) Retinoblastoma
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ewing’s sarcoma
d) Rhabdomyosarcoma
126. Which is the most common CNS tumor to metastasize outside the brain?
a) Glioblastoma multiforme
b) Medulloblastoma
c) Ependymoma
d) Choroid plexus tumor
127. Which of the following is a component of Pentalogy of Fallot
a) ASD
b) PDA
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) LVH
128. A newborn has been brought with seizures refractory to treatment and a continuous bruit through the anterior fontanelle. CT shows midline lesion with hypoechogenesity and dilated lateral ventricles. Diagnosis is
a) Vein of Galen malformation
b) Arachnoid cyst
c) Teratoma
d) Encephalocele
129. 6 weeks old female baby found unconscious suddenly in the crib. She was previously healthy. Normal blood pressure, hyperpigmentation of genitals, blood glucose 30 mg/dl. Diagnosis is
a) CAH due to 21-alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
c) Cushing’s syndrome
d) Insulinoma
130. Best indicator of growth monitoring in children
a) Weight
b) Mid-arm circumference
c) Rate of increase of height & weight
d) Head circumference
131. A child presents with failure to thrive with frequent vomiting,diarrhoea,hepatosplenomegaly & abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
a) Adrenal hemorrhage
b) Wolman’s disease
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Addison’s disease
132. Most sensitive indicator of intravascular volume depletion in infant
a) Stroke volume
b) Heart rate
c) Cardiac output
d) Blood pressure
133. An alert 6 month old child is brought with vomiting & diarrhea. RR-45/min, HR-180/min, SBP-85 mm of Hg. Extremities are cold & mottled. Capillary refilling time is 4 secs. Diagnosis is
a) Early compensated hypovolemic shock
b) Early decompensated hypovolemic shock
c) Late compensated hypovolemic shock
d) Late decompensated shock due to SVT
391 - AIIMS May 2010 Medicine Mcqs
107. Hyperextensibility with normal elastic recoil is a feature of
a) Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c) Cutis laxa
d) Scleroderma
108. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true?
a) Intake of PUFA associated with decreased risk
b) Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta involvement
c) Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
d) Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se
109. Not a cardiovascular complication of HIV/AIDS
a) Cardiac tamponade
b) Recurrent arterial embolism
c) CHF
d) Aortic aneurysm
110. A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG. Fastest way of shifting potassium intracellularly is
a) Calcium gluconate IV
b) Oral resins
c) Insulin + glucose
d) Sodium bicarbonate
111. Features of hypocalcemia are A/E
a) Numbness & tingling
b) Circumoral paresthesia
c) Depressed tendon reflexes
d) Skin irritability & sensitivity
112. A young man back from leisure trip has swollen knee joints & foriegn body sensation in eyes. Llikely cause is
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Behcet’s disease
d) SLE
113. Cause of vasodilatation in spider nevi
a) Estrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Hepatotoxins
d) FSH
114. A patient presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the
vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
a) HBV
b) HCV
c) EBV
d) Parvovirus
115. Rapid infusion of insulin causes
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hyponatremia
116. Digitalis toxicity enhanced by A/E
a) Renal failure
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypomagnesemia
117. True about hemochromatosis
a) Is genetically heterogenous
b) Cannot be treated by phlebotomy
c) Completely penetrant
d) More common in female than male
118. Strawberry gingivitis seen in
a) Myelocytic infiltration
b) Phenytoin toxicity
c) Wegener granulomatosis
d) Klippel Trenaunay syndrome
119. A child presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
a) C3
b) C5a
c) C1 esterase inhibitor
d) C9
120. Test for assessment of absorptive function of colon
a) D-xylose test
b) NBT-PABA test
c) Fecal fat estimation
d) Schilling test
121. All are true about temporal arteritis except
a) Can lead to sudden bilateral blindness
b) More common in females
c) Worsens on exposure to heat
d) Mostly affects elderly
122. A pt presents with acute rheumatic carditis with fever. True statement is
a) Increased troponin T
b) Reduced myocardial contractility
c) Signs of inflammation and necrosis
d) Valve replacement will ameliorate CCF
a) Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum
c) Cutis laxa
d) Scleroderma
108. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true?
a) Intake of PUFA associated with decreased risk
b) Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta involvement
c) Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
d) Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se
109. Not a cardiovascular complication of HIV/AIDS
a) Cardiac tamponade
b) Recurrent arterial embolism
c) CHF
d) Aortic aneurysm
110. A girl presented with severe hyperkalemia and peaked T waves on ECG. Fastest way of shifting potassium intracellularly is
a) Calcium gluconate IV
b) Oral resins
c) Insulin + glucose
d) Sodium bicarbonate
111. Features of hypocalcemia are A/E
a) Numbness & tingling
b) Circumoral paresthesia
c) Depressed tendon reflexes
d) Skin irritability & sensitivity
112. A young man back from leisure trip has swollen knee joints & foriegn body sensation in eyes. Llikely cause is
a) Reiter’s syndrome
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Behcet’s disease
d) SLE
113. Cause of vasodilatation in spider nevi
a) Estrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Hepatotoxins
d) FSH
114. A patient presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the
vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
a) HBV
b) HCV
c) EBV
d) Parvovirus
115. Rapid infusion of insulin causes
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypernatremia
d) Hyponatremia
116. Digitalis toxicity enhanced by A/E
a) Renal failure
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hypomagnesemia
117. True about hemochromatosis
a) Is genetically heterogenous
b) Cannot be treated by phlebotomy
c) Completely penetrant
d) More common in female than male
118. Strawberry gingivitis seen in
a) Myelocytic infiltration
b) Phenytoin toxicity
c) Wegener granulomatosis
d) Klippel Trenaunay syndrome
119. A child presented with arthritis and purpura. Laboratory examination showed monoclonal and polyclonal cryoglobulins. Histopathology showed deposits of cryoglobulins around the vessels. The patient should be tested for which of the following?
a) C3
b) C5a
c) C1 esterase inhibitor
d) C9
120. Test for assessment of absorptive function of colon
a) D-xylose test
b) NBT-PABA test
c) Fecal fat estimation
d) Schilling test
121. All are true about temporal arteritis except
a) Can lead to sudden bilateral blindness
b) More common in females
c) Worsens on exposure to heat
d) Mostly affects elderly
122. A pt presents with acute rheumatic carditis with fever. True statement is
a) Increased troponin T
b) Reduced myocardial contractility
c) Signs of inflammation and necrosis
d) Valve replacement will ameliorate CCF
390 - AIIMS May 2010 Pathology Mcqs
91. Coagulative necrosis seen in
a) TB
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Cryptococcal infection
d) Gangrene
92. Characteristic feature of acute inflammation
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vascular stasis
c) Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
d) Margination of leucocytes
93. Berry aneurysm – Defect lies in
a) Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b) Degeneration of media /muscle cell layer
c) Deposition of mucoid material in media
d) Low grade inflammation of vessel wall
94. Which of the following is associated with aging
a) Reduced cross linkages in collagen
b) Increased free radical injury
c) Somatic mutations in DNA
d) Increased superoxide dismutase levels
95. Caspases are associated with
a) Organogenesis
b) Hydropic degeneration
c) Collagen hyalinization
d) Not recalled
96. Smoking is a causative factor for all the carcinomas except
a) Esophageal carcinoma
b) Laryngeal carcinoma
c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d) Urinary bladder carcinoma
97. Barrett’s esophagus shoes
a) Intestinal dysplasia
b) Intestinal metaplasia
c) Squamous cell metaplasia
d) Columnar cell metaplasia
98. Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects
a) Post-capillary venules
b) Arterioles
c) Veins
d) Medium-sized arteries
99. Psammoma bodies seen in A/E
a) Follicular CA of thyroid
b) Papillary CA of thyroid
c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
d) Meningioma
100. Central organ in apoptosis
a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) ER
d) Golgi body
101. CD marker specific for myeloid series
a) CD34
b) CD45
c) CD99
d) CD117
102. Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is
a) Anticipation
b) Genomic imprinting
c) Germ line mosaicism
d) New mutation
103. Not true about xanthogranulomatous inflammation
a) Associated with TB
b) Yellow granuloma
c) Giant cells seen
d) Foam cells seen
104. All of the following genes are implicated in Carcinogenesis of colon except
a) APC
b) k-ras
c) Beta catenin
d) Mismatch repair
105. Wilm’s tumor associated with A/E
a) Hemihypertrophy
b) Aniridia
c) Hypertension
d) Bilateral polycystic kidney
106. Which of the following is NOT true about FAP?
a) AR inheritance
b) Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
c) Polyps develop in late adulthood
d) Epidermal cysts & osteomas may occur
a) TB
b) Sarcoidosis
c) Cryptococcal infection
d) Gangrene
92. Characteristic feature of acute inflammation
a) Vasoconstriction
b) Vascular stasis
c) Vasodilatation and increased vascular permeability
d) Margination of leucocytes
93. Berry aneurysm – Defect lies in
a) Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b) Degeneration of media /muscle cell layer
c) Deposition of mucoid material in media
d) Low grade inflammation of vessel wall
94. Which of the following is associated with aging
a) Reduced cross linkages in collagen
b) Increased free radical injury
c) Somatic mutations in DNA
d) Increased superoxide dismutase levels
95. Caspases are associated with
a) Organogenesis
b) Hydropic degeneration
c) Collagen hyalinization
d) Not recalled
96. Smoking is a causative factor for all the carcinomas except
a) Esophageal carcinoma
b) Laryngeal carcinoma
c) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d) Urinary bladder carcinoma
97. Barrett’s esophagus shoes
a) Intestinal dysplasia
b) Intestinal metaplasia
c) Squamous cell metaplasia
d) Columnar cell metaplasia
98. Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects
a) Post-capillary venules
b) Arterioles
c) Veins
d) Medium-sized arteries
99. Psammoma bodies seen in A/E
a) Follicular CA of thyroid
b) Papillary CA of thyroid
c) Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary
d) Meningioma
100. Central organ in apoptosis
a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) ER
d) Golgi body
101. CD marker specific for myeloid series
a) CD34
b) CD45
c) CD99
d) CD117
102. Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is
a) Anticipation
b) Genomic imprinting
c) Germ line mosaicism
d) New mutation
103. Not true about xanthogranulomatous inflammation
a) Associated with TB
b) Yellow granuloma
c) Giant cells seen
d) Foam cells seen
104. All of the following genes are implicated in Carcinogenesis of colon except
a) APC
b) k-ras
c) Beta catenin
d) Mismatch repair
105. Wilm’s tumor associated with A/E
a) Hemihypertrophy
b) Aniridia
c) Hypertension
d) Bilateral polycystic kidney
106. Which of the following is NOT true about FAP?
a) AR inheritance
b) Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
c) Polyps develop in late adulthood
d) Epidermal cysts & osteomas may occur
389 - AIIMS May 2010 Microbiology Mcqs
76. Most sensitive test for Treponema
a) VDRL
b) RPR
c) FTA-ABS
d) Kahn
77. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile ulcer. On Wright giemsa stain tiny organisms of 2 microns within macrophages seen. What is the causative organism?
a) LGV
b) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c) Neisseria
d) Staph aureus
78. Maltese cross seen on polarizing microscopy in
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Penicillium marneffi
c) Blastomyces
d) Candida albicans
79. Diagnostic of Rabies
a) Guaneri bodies
b) Negri bodies
c) Cowdry A body
d) Cowdry B body
80. HIV pt with malabsotion, fever, chronic diarrohea, with acid fast positive organism. What is the causative agent?
a) Giardia
b) Microsporidia
c) Isospora
d) E.histolytica
81. Congenital toxoplasmosis – False is
a) Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood
b) IgA is more sensitive than IgM for detection
c) Dye test is gold standard for IgG
d) Avidity testing must be done to differentiate between IgA & IgM
82. Malabsorption caused by A/E
a) Giardia
b) Ascaris
c) Strongyloides
d) Capillaria philipensis
83. Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E
a) Bone graft
b) Suture
c) Artificial tissue graft
d) Bronchoscope
84. Arbovirus – True is
a) Yellow fever is endemic in India
b) Dengue has only one serotype
c) KFD was first identified in West Bengal
d) Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes
85. Lymes disease all are true except
a) Borellia burgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
b) Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
c) Polmorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningeal involvement
d) IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis
86. Streptococcus all are true except
a) Streptodornase cleaves dna
b) Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
c) Streptokinase is produced from serotype strep. A,C,K
d) Pyrotoxin A is plasmid mediated
87. Not used in leptospirosis
a) Microscopic agglutination test
b) Dark field illumination
c) Macroscopic agglutination test
d) Weil felix reaction
88. Superantigens true is
a) Directtly attached to variable region of MHC
b) Needs to proccessed and presented to cleft of MHC
c) Not recalled
d) Not recalled
89. CD4+ is not important for which of the following
a) Antibody production
b) Cytotoxicity of T cells
c) Memory B cells
d) Opsonisation
90. Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in which of the following?
a) Excess of antibody
b) Excess of antigen
c) Equivalence of antibody and antigen
d) Antigen-Hapten Interaction
a) VDRL
b) RPR
c) FTA-ABS
d) Kahn
77. A male patient presented with granulomatous penile ulcer. On Wright giemsa stain tiny organisms of 2 microns within macrophages seen. What is the causative organism?
a) LGV
b) Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
c) Neisseria
d) Staph aureus
78. Maltese cross seen on polarizing microscopy in
a) Cryptococcus neoformans
b) Penicillium marneffi
c) Blastomyces
d) Candida albicans
79. Diagnostic of Rabies
a) Guaneri bodies
b) Negri bodies
c) Cowdry A body
d) Cowdry B body
80. HIV pt with malabsotion, fever, chronic diarrohea, with acid fast positive organism. What is the causative agent?
a) Giardia
b) Microsporidia
c) Isospora
d) E.histolytica
81. Congenital toxoplasmosis – False is
a) Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood
b) IgA is more sensitive than IgM for detection
c) Dye test is gold standard for IgG
d) Avidity testing must be done to differentiate between IgA & IgM
82. Malabsorption caused by A/E
a) Giardia
b) Ascaris
c) Strongyloides
d) Capillaria philipensis
83. Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E
a) Bone graft
b) Suture
c) Artificial tissue graft
d) Bronchoscope
84. Arbovirus – True is
a) Yellow fever is endemic in India
b) Dengue has only one serotype
c) KFD was first identified in West Bengal
d) Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes
85. Lymes disease all are true except
a) Borellia burgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
b) Infection progresses inspite of good humoral immunity
c) Polmorphonuclear lymphocytosis in CSF suggest meningeal involvement
d) IgA intrathecally confirms meningitis
86. Streptococcus all are true except
a) Streptodornase cleaves dna
b) Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
c) Streptokinase is produced from serotype strep. A,C,K
d) Pyrotoxin A is plasmid mediated
87. Not used in leptospirosis
a) Microscopic agglutination test
b) Dark field illumination
c) Macroscopic agglutination test
d) Weil felix reaction
88. Superantigens true is
a) Directtly attached to variable region of MHC
b) Needs to proccessed and presented to cleft of MHC
c) Not recalled
d) Not recalled
89. CD4+ is not important for which of the following
a) Antibody production
b) Cytotoxicity of T cells
c) Memory B cells
d) Opsonisation
90. Antigen antibody precipitation is maximally seen in which of the following?
a) Excess of antibody
b) Excess of antigen
c) Equivalence of antibody and antigen
d) Antigen-Hapten Interaction
388 - AIIMS May 2010 Pharmacology Mcqs
64. Which is NOT an alkylating agent?
a) 5-FU
b) Chlorambucil
c) Melphalan
d) Cyclophosphamide
65. Which one of the following drugs cause hypomagnesemia by increased excretion?
a) Frusemide therapy
b) Cisplatin
c) Digitalis
d) Aminoglycosides
66. Which is NOT used in treatment of heroin dependence?
a) Disulfiram
b) Buprenorphine
c) Clonidine
d) Lofexidine
67. Dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agents
a) Bone marrow toxicity
b) GI toxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Respiratory problems
68. Opioid agonist are A/E
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Ketamine
d) Methadone
69. Drug NOT used in pulmonary hypertension
a) CCB
b) Endothelin receptor antagonist
c) Alpha blocker
d) Prostacyclin
70. Thalidomide is used in all except
a) HIV induced peripheral neuropathy
b) HIV induced mouth ulcer
c) Behcet's syndrome
d) Erythema nodosum leprosum
71. Oligospermia caused by
a) Methotrexate
b) Hydroxychloroquine
c) Leflunomide
d) D-Penicillamine
72. Which of the following drugs is both anti resoptive and bone formative?
a) Strontium ranelate
b) Calcitonin
c) Ibadronate
d) Teriperatide
73. Drug of choice for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
a) Antihistaminics
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) Dopamine agonists
d) Antacids
74. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring
a) Drug price
b) Unethical practices
c) Drug safety
d) Pharmacology students
75. All of the following drug is CYP3A inhibitor except
a) Erythromycin
b) Itraconazole
c) Ritonavir
d) Saquinavir
a) 5-FU
b) Chlorambucil
c) Melphalan
d) Cyclophosphamide
65. Which one of the following drugs cause hypomagnesemia by increased excretion?
a) Frusemide therapy
b) Cisplatin
c) Digitalis
d) Aminoglycosides
66. Which is NOT used in treatment of heroin dependence?
a) Disulfiram
b) Buprenorphine
c) Clonidine
d) Lofexidine
67. Dose limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agents
a) Bone marrow toxicity
b) GI toxicity
c) Neurotoxicity
d) Respiratory problems
68. Opioid agonist are A/E
a) Morphine
b) Codeine
c) Ketamine
d) Methadone
69. Drug NOT used in pulmonary hypertension
a) CCB
b) Endothelin receptor antagonist
c) Alpha blocker
d) Prostacyclin
70. Thalidomide is used in all except
a) HIV induced peripheral neuropathy
b) HIV induced mouth ulcer
c) Behcet's syndrome
d) Erythema nodosum leprosum
71. Oligospermia caused by
a) Methotrexate
b) Hydroxychloroquine
c) Leflunomide
d) D-Penicillamine
72. Which of the following drugs is both anti resoptive and bone formative?
a) Strontium ranelate
b) Calcitonin
c) Ibadronate
d) Teriperatide
73. Drug of choice for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
a) Antihistaminics
b) Proton pump inhibitors
c) Dopamine agonists
d) Antacids
74. Pharmacovigilance is done for monitoring
a) Drug price
b) Unethical practices
c) Drug safety
d) Pharmacology students
75. All of the following drug is CYP3A inhibitor except
a) Erythromycin
b) Itraconazole
c) Ritonavir
d) Saquinavir
387 - AIIMS May 2010 SPM Mcqs
39. Global warming true is
a) CO2 is the major greenhouse gas
b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
c) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
d) Kyoto protocol called for 20%reduction in greenhouse effect
40. Vaccine with maximum efficacy
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) BCG
d) TT
41. NOT seen in fecal pollution
a) Staph
b) Strepto
c) E.coli
d) Clostridium perfringens
42. True about cow's milk are all except
a) Cow's milk contains 80% whey protein and not casein
b) Has more protein than breast milk
c) Has more K+ and Na+ than infant
d) Has less carbohydrates than mothers milk
43. Which of the following about lepromin test is not true?
a) It is negative in most children in first six months
b) It is a diagnostic test
c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive
44. Not spread by louse
a) Epidemic typhus
b) Q fever
c) Relapsing fever
d) Trench fever
45. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals?
a) Cataract
b) Epidemic conjunctivitis
c) Onchocerciasis
d) Trachoma
46. Direct standardisation is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.this is done because of differences in
a) Causes of death
b) Numerators
c) Age distribution
d) Denominators
47. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is
a) High prevalence
b) Low prevalence
c) High sensitivity
d) High specificity
48. Weight of Indian reference man
a) 60
b) 55
c) 50
d) 45
49. Aedes-True are A/E
a) Recurrent biters
b) Eggs can’t survive more than 1 wk in water
c) Transmits Dengue
d) It takes 7-8 days to develop the parasite & transmit the disease
50. Chlorine demand estimated by
a) Horrock’s apparatus
b) Berkefield filter
c) Chlorometer
d) Double pot method
51. STEPS done for
a) Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable disease
b) Surveillance of incidence of non-communicable disease
c) Surveillance of evaluation of treatment of noncommunicable disease
d) Surveillance of mortality from non-communicable disease
52. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Primordial prevention
d) Secondary prevention
53. Incidence can be calculated in
a) Case-control study
b) Prospective study
c) Retrospective study
d) Cross-sectional study
54. A doctor order 6 tests for SLE . Which of the following is needed for inference?
a) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of test
b) Incidence of SLE and predictivity of each test
c) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d) Relative risk of SLE in the patient
55. Mercury is disposed by
a) Controlled combustion
b) Deep burial
c) Safely collect & re-use
d) Chemical treatment
56. Which of the following is used to denote a continuous variable?
a) Simple bar
b) Histogram
c) Line diagram
d) Multiple bar
57. Crude birth rate – NOT true is
a) It is a measure of fertility
b) It is actually a ratio not a rate
c) it is independent of age of population
d) Numerator does not include still births
58. Savlon contains
a) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c) Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
59. All of the following statements about purification of water are true except
a) Presence of Clostridial spores indicates recent contamination of water
b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize certain contaminants
d) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method & indole production
60. Leprosy involves A/E
a) Uterus
b) Ovary
c) Nerve
d) Eye
61. A pregnant female in first trimester came with sputum positive TB. Treatment of choice
a) Start Cat I treatment immediately
b) Start Cat II treatment immediately
c) Start Cat III treatment immediately
d) Delay treatment till 2nd trimester
62. In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied,Very satisfied,Dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
63. Chikungunya is transmitted by
a) Aedes
b) Culex
c) Mansonoides
d) Anopheles
a) CO2 is the major greenhouse gas
b) Stratosphere ozone layer is harmful
c) CFC increases stratosphere ozone layer
d) Kyoto protocol called for 20%reduction in greenhouse effect
40. Vaccine with maximum efficacy
a) OPV
b) Measles
c) BCG
d) TT
41. NOT seen in fecal pollution
a) Staph
b) Strepto
c) E.coli
d) Clostridium perfringens
42. True about cow's milk are all except
a) Cow's milk contains 80% whey protein and not casein
b) Has more protein than breast milk
c) Has more K+ and Na+ than infant
d) Has less carbohydrates than mothers milk
43. Which of the following about lepromin test is not true?
a) It is negative in most children in first six months
b) It is a diagnostic test
c) It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease
d) BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive
44. Not spread by louse
a) Epidemic typhus
b) Q fever
c) Relapsing fever
d) Trench fever
45. Which of the following diseases is not included in “Vision 2020 - Right to Sight” immediate goals?
a) Cataract
b) Epidemic conjunctivitis
c) Onchocerciasis
d) Trachoma
46. Direct standardisation is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries.this is done because of differences in
a) Causes of death
b) Numerators
c) Age distribution
d) Denominators
47. A test has high false positive rate in a community. True is
a) High prevalence
b) Low prevalence
c) High sensitivity
d) High specificity
48. Weight of Indian reference man
a) 60
b) 55
c) 50
d) 45
49. Aedes-True are A/E
a) Recurrent biters
b) Eggs can’t survive more than 1 wk in water
c) Transmits Dengue
d) It takes 7-8 days to develop the parasite & transmit the disease
50. Chlorine demand estimated by
a) Horrock’s apparatus
b) Berkefield filter
c) Chlorometer
d) Double pot method
51. STEPS done for
a) Surveillance of risk factors of non-communicable disease
b) Surveillance of incidence of non-communicable disease
c) Surveillance of evaluation of treatment of noncommunicable disease
d) Surveillance of mortality from non-communicable disease
52. Vitamin A prophylaxis to a child is
a) Health promotion
b) Specific protection
c) Primordial prevention
d) Secondary prevention
53. Incidence can be calculated in
a) Case-control study
b) Prospective study
c) Retrospective study
d) Cross-sectional study
54. A doctor order 6 tests for SLE . Which of the following is needed for inference?
a) Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of test
b) Incidence of SLE and predictivity of each test
c) Incidence and prevalence of SLE
d) Relative risk of SLE in the patient
55. Mercury is disposed by
a) Controlled combustion
b) Deep burial
c) Safely collect & re-use
d) Chemical treatment
56. Which of the following is used to denote a continuous variable?
a) Simple bar
b) Histogram
c) Line diagram
d) Multiple bar
57. Crude birth rate – NOT true is
a) It is a measure of fertility
b) It is actually a ratio not a rate
c) it is independent of age of population
d) Numerator does not include still births
58. Savlon contains
a) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b) Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c) Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d) Cetrimide + Cetavlon
59. All of the following statements about purification of water are true except
a) Presence of Clostridial spores indicates recent contamination of water
b) Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
c) Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize certain contaminants
d) Coliforms may be detected by multiple tube method & indole production
60. Leprosy involves A/E
a) Uterus
b) Ovary
c) Nerve
d) Eye
61. A pregnant female in first trimester came with sputum positive TB. Treatment of choice
a) Start Cat I treatment immediately
b) Start Cat II treatment immediately
c) Start Cat III treatment immediately
d) Delay treatment till 2nd trimester
62. In a study following interpretation are obtained: Satisfied,Very satisfied,Dissatisfied. Which type of scale is this?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Interval
d) Ratio
63. Chikungunya is transmitted by
a) Aedes
b) Culex
c) Mansonoides
d) Anopheles
386 - AIIMS May 2010 Forensic Medicine Mcqs
33. Incised wounds on genitals are usually
a) Homicidal
b) Self-inflicted
c) Post-mortem artefact
d) Accidental
34. Heat rupture characterised by
a) Irregular margin
b) Clotted blood
c) Regular margin
d) Clotted blood vessels
35. Motorcyclist fracture – True is
a) Ring fracture
b) Sutural separation
c) Comminuted fracture of vault of skull
d) Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
36. Commonest organ injured in blast injury
a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas
37. Damage produced by a bullet is related to its
a) Mass
b) Velocity
c) Shape
d) Size
38. A child brought with suspected ingestion presenting with dry mouth, dilated pupil ,
difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin. The substance is
a) Anti-cholinergic
b) Sympathetic
c) Cholinergic
d) Alpha blocker
a) Homicidal
b) Self-inflicted
c) Post-mortem artefact
d) Accidental
34. Heat rupture characterised by
a) Irregular margin
b) Clotted blood
c) Regular margin
d) Clotted blood vessels
35. Motorcyclist fracture – True is
a) Ring fracture
b) Sutural separation
c) Comminuted fracture of vault of skull
d) Fracture base of skull into anterior & posterior halves
36. Commonest organ injured in blast injury
a) Lung
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Pancreas
37. Damage produced by a bullet is related to its
a) Mass
b) Velocity
c) Shape
d) Size
38. A child brought with suspected ingestion presenting with dry mouth, dilated pupil ,
difficulty in swallowing, delirium, dry & warm skin. The substance is
a) Anti-cholinergic
b) Sympathetic
c) Cholinergic
d) Alpha blocker
385 - AIIMS May 2010 Biochemistry Mcqs
24. Splicing activity seen in
a) mRNA
b) snRNA
c) tRNA
d) rRNA
25. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA gyrase
26. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Cholesterol
d) Ketone bodies
27. After overnite fasing,levels of glucose tranporters reduced in
a) Brain
b) Muscle
c) Adipocytes
d) Hepatocyte
28. Insulin stimulates A/E
a) Glycolysis
b) Glycogenesis
c) Lipogenesis
d) Ketogenesis
29. Eukaryotic cell membrane contains A/E
a) Cholesterol
b) Triglycerides
c) Carbohydrates
d) Lecithin
30. All of the following are true bout sickle cell trait except
a) Single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b) A single base pair change leads to RFLP
c) Deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d) Offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
31. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature for all of the following except
a) Hepatic porphyria
b) Niemann Pick disease
c) Von Gierke’s disease
d) Hurler syndrome
32. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives
greenish brown precipitate and blue black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Tyrosinemia type 2
d) Argininosuccinic aciduria
a) mRNA
b) snRNA
c) tRNA
d) rRNA
25. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by
a) DNA polymerase
b) DNA ligase
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA gyrase
26. Acetyl coA can be directly converted to all except
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Cholesterol
d) Ketone bodies
27. After overnite fasing,levels of glucose tranporters reduced in
a) Brain
b) Muscle
c) Adipocytes
d) Hepatocyte
28. Insulin stimulates A/E
a) Glycolysis
b) Glycogenesis
c) Lipogenesis
d) Ketogenesis
29. Eukaryotic cell membrane contains A/E
a) Cholesterol
b) Triglycerides
c) Carbohydrates
d) Lecithin
30. All of the following are true bout sickle cell trait except
a) Single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b) A single base pair change leads to RFLP
c) Deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d) Offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
31. Hepatomegaly is the essential feature for all of the following except
a) Hepatic porphyria
b) Niemann Pick disease
c) Von Gierke’s disease
d) Hurler syndrome
32. A 40 yr old woman presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray spine shows calcification of intervertebral discs. On adding Benedict’s reagent to urine, it gives
greenish brown precipitate and blue black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Tyrosinemia type 2
d) Argininosuccinic aciduria
384 - AIIMS May 2010 Physiology Mcqs
16. Appetite is stimulated by A/E
a) Agouti related peptide
b) Melanocyte concentrating hormone
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
d) Neuropeptide Y
17. Capacitation occurs in
a) Uterus
b) Seminal vesicle
c) Epididymis
d) Vas deferens
18. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is
a) Raised blood pressure
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
d) Increased heart rate
19. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by
a) Chief cells
b) Parietal cells
c) Mucus cells
d) B cells
20. Somatomedin mediates
a) Deposition of chondroitin sulphate
b) Lipolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
21. Hyperaldosteronism associated with all except
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypertension
d) Metabolic acidosis
22. Spinocerebellar tract – Function is
a) Equilibrium
b) Vision
c) Initiation & planning of movements
d) Smoothens & co-ordinates mvt
23. Chemotaxis – Main feature is
a) Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
b) Increase in phagocytosis
c) Increased random motion of neutrophils
d) Increased adhesiveness to intima
a) Agouti related peptide
b) Melanocyte concentrating hormone
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
d) Neuropeptide Y
17. Capacitation occurs in
a) Uterus
b) Seminal vesicle
c) Epididymis
d) Vas deferens
18. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is
a) Raised blood pressure
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
d) Increased heart rate
19. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by
a) Chief cells
b) Parietal cells
c) Mucus cells
d) B cells
20. Somatomedin mediates
a) Deposition of chondroitin sulphate
b) Lipolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells
21. Hyperaldosteronism associated with all except
a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypertension
d) Metabolic acidosis
22. Spinocerebellar tract – Function is
a) Equilibrium
b) Vision
c) Initiation & planning of movements
d) Smoothens & co-ordinates mvt
23. Chemotaxis – Main feature is
a) Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
b) Increase in phagocytosis
c) Increased random motion of neutrophils
d) Increased adhesiveness to intima
383 - AIIMS May 2010 Anatomy Mcqs
1. Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of
a) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
b) Palatine division of maxillary nerve
c) Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve
d) Inferior alveolar nerve
2. All the following muscles retracts the scapula EXCEPT
a) Trapezius
b) Rhomboid major
c) Rhomboid minor
d) Levator scapulae
3. Cranial nerve NOT carrying parasympathetic fibres
a) 4th
b) 7th
c) 3rd
d) 9th
4. Prostatic urethra – True are A/E
a) Trapezoid in cross section
b) Elevated round swelling called verumontanum
c) Opening of prostatic ducts
d) Posterior part has urethral crest
5. Morgagni hernia presents most commonly on
a) Left posterior
b) Right anterior
c) Right posterior
d) Left anterior
6. Meralgia parasthetica is due to involvement of
a) Sural nerve
b) Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d) Peroneal nerve
7. Celiac plexus is located
a) Anterolateral & around the aorta
b) Posterolateral & around the aorta
c) Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
8. Paneth cells – True is
a) Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) High zinc content
c) Foamy cytoplasm
d) Numerous lysozyme granules
9. About sternocleidomastoid tumor all are true except –
a) Always associated with breech
b) Spontaenous resolution in most cases
c) Two-third have palpable neck mass at birth
d) Uncorrected cases develops plagiocephaly
10. The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a) Smell
b) Taste
c) Touch
d) Balance
11. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except?
a. Maxillary sinus
a) Interior of nasal cavity
b) Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
c) Ethmoidal air cells
12. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree
flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?
a) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
b) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medial border of patella
c) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of patella
d) No change in position
13. Pain insensitive structure in brain is
a) Falx cerebri
b) Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
c) Choroid plexus
d) Middle meningeal artery
14. Appendices epiploiceae present in
a) Appendix
b) Cecum
c) Rectum
d) Sigmoid colon
15. Pelvic splanchnic nerve supplies A/E
a) Appendix
b) Rectum
c) Uterus
d) Urinary bladder
a) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
b) Palatine division of maxillary nerve
c) Anterior nasal division of maxillary nerve
d) Inferior alveolar nerve
2. All the following muscles retracts the scapula EXCEPT
a) Trapezius
b) Rhomboid major
c) Rhomboid minor
d) Levator scapulae
3. Cranial nerve NOT carrying parasympathetic fibres
a) 4th
b) 7th
c) 3rd
d) 9th
4. Prostatic urethra – True are A/E
a) Trapezoid in cross section
b) Elevated round swelling called verumontanum
c) Opening of prostatic ducts
d) Posterior part has urethral crest
5. Morgagni hernia presents most commonly on
a) Left posterior
b) Right anterior
c) Right posterior
d) Left anterior
6. Meralgia parasthetica is due to involvement of
a) Sural nerve
b) Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d) Peroneal nerve
7. Celiac plexus is located
a) Anterolateral & around the aorta
b) Posterolateral & around the aorta
c) Anteromedial to lumbar sympathetic chain
d) Posterolateral to lumbar sympathetic chain
8. Paneth cells – True is
a) Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum
b) High zinc content
c) Foamy cytoplasm
d) Numerous lysozyme granules
9. About sternocleidomastoid tumor all are true except –
a) Always associated with breech
b) Spontaenous resolution in most cases
c) Two-third have palpable neck mass at birth
d) Uncorrected cases develops plagiocephaly
10. The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a) Smell
b) Taste
c) Touch
d) Balance
11. Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except?
a. Maxillary sinus
a) Interior of nasal cavity
b) Dural sheath of anterior cranial fossa
c) Ethmoidal air cells
12. A healthy young athlete is sitting at the edge of the table with knee at 90 degree
flexion. He fully extends it. What will happen?
a) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards lateral border of patella
b) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards medial border of patella
c) Movement of tibial tuberosity towards centre of patella
d) No change in position
13. Pain insensitive structure in brain is
a) Falx cerebri
b) Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
c) Choroid plexus
d) Middle meningeal artery
14. Appendices epiploiceae present in
a) Appendix
b) Cecum
c) Rectum
d) Sigmoid colon
15. Pelvic splanchnic nerve supplies A/E
a) Appendix
b) Rectum
c) Uterus
d) Urinary bladder
Thursday, May 13, 2010
382 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 11
51q: Lice TRANSMITS a/e?
a. Q fever
b. trench fever
c. epidemic typhus
d. relapsing fever
52q: Hyperextensibility with NORMAL elastic recoil is a feature of
a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. cutis laxa
c. scleroderma
d. ???????
53q: capacitation of sperm occurs in?
a. uterus.
b. epididymis.
c. vas deferen
d. ??????
54q: Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made of all except?
a. carbohydrates
b. lecithin
c. triglycerides
d. cholesterol
55q: which of the following doesnt affect free radicals in the lens?
a. vit a
b. vit c
c. vit e
d. catalase.
a. Q fever
b. trench fever
c. epidemic typhus
d. relapsing fever
52q: Hyperextensibility with NORMAL elastic recoil is a feature of
a. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
b. cutis laxa
c. scleroderma
d. ???????
53q: capacitation of sperm occurs in?
a. uterus.
b. epididymis.
c. vas deferen
d. ??????
54q: Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made of all except?
a. carbohydrates
b. lecithin
c. triglycerides
d. cholesterol
55q: which of the following doesnt affect free radicals in the lens?
a. vit a
b. vit c
c. vit e
d. catalase.
381 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 10
46q: What is the cause of berry aneurysms?
a. degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b. degeneration of media / muscle cell layer
c. deposition of mucoid material in media
d. low grade inflammation of vessel wall
47q: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal dominant disorder:
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) LMB
d) ????????
48q: which of the following organs will be affected maximally by the effects of a blast (bomb blast)
a. lung
b. liver
c. skeletal tissue
d. nervous system
49q: Leprosy affects all of the following except
a. uterus
b. eyes
c. ovaries
d. nerves
50q: The capacity of a bullet to cause maximum destruction lies in its
a. size
b. shape
c. weight
d. velocity
a. degeneration of internal elastic lamina
b. degeneration of media / muscle cell layer
c. deposition of mucoid material in media
d. low grade inflammation of vessel wall
47q: Which of the following retinal diseases is transmitted as Autosomal dominant disorder:
a) Best disease
b) Gyrate atrophy
c) LMB
d) ????????
48q: which of the following organs will be affected maximally by the effects of a blast (bomb blast)
a. lung
b. liver
c. skeletal tissue
d. nervous system
49q: Leprosy affects all of the following except
a. uterus
b. eyes
c. ovaries
d. nerves
50q: The capacity of a bullet to cause maximum destruction lies in its
a. size
b. shape
c. weight
d. velocity
Monday, May 10, 2010
380 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 9
41q: Pain insensitive structure in brain is
a. Falx cerebri
b. Dural venous sinuses
c. Choroid plexus
d. Middle meningeal a.
42q: Carcinogenesis in colon implicates all of the following genes except
a. APC
b. k-ras
c. beta-catenin
d. mismatch repair genes
43q: Infant wid congestive cardiac failure.. bulging fontanelle with a bruit which can be auscultated.. CT shows midline lesion with dilated lateral ventricles.. diagnosis is..??
a. vein of galen malformation ANS
b. arachnoid cyst
c. teratoma
d. ... ???
44q: 48 yr old woman comes wid b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity present
on MRI mass enhancing dorsal intradural lesion present .. (rest of da description dont remember..) .. diagnosis
a. Intradural lipoma
b. Meningioma
c. Neuroenteric cyst
d. ...
45q: Savlon contains:-
a. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d. Cetrimide + Cetavlon
a. Falx cerebri
b. Dural venous sinuses
c. Choroid plexus
d. Middle meningeal a.
42q: Carcinogenesis in colon implicates all of the following genes except
a. APC
b. k-ras
c. beta-catenin
d. mismatch repair genes
43q: Infant wid congestive cardiac failure.. bulging fontanelle with a bruit which can be auscultated.. CT shows midline lesion with dilated lateral ventricles.. diagnosis is..??
a. vein of galen malformation ANS
b. arachnoid cyst
c. teratoma
d. ... ???
44q: 48 yr old woman comes wid b/l progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity present
on MRI mass enhancing dorsal intradural lesion present .. (rest of da description dont remember..) .. diagnosis
a. Intradural lipoma
b. Meningioma
c. Neuroenteric cyst
d. ...
45q: Savlon contains:-
a. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine
b. Cetrimide + chlorhexidine + butyl alcohol
c. Cetrimide + butyl alcohol
d. Cetrimide + Cetavlon
379 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 8
36q: Which of the following is a pulsatile tumor?
a. Osteosarcoma ANS
b. chondrosarcoma
c. osteoclastoma
d. ewings sarcoma
37q: coagulative necrosis is seen in
a. TB
b. gangrene
c. cryptococcal
d. sarcoidosis
38q: Amyloidosis .. most reliable investigation
a. rectal biopsy
b. ct scan
c. colonoscopy
d. ?????
39q: The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a. smell
b. taste
c. touch
d. balance
40q: A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. what will happen?
a. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds lat border of patella
b. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds medial border of patella
c. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds centre of patella
d.......
a. Osteosarcoma ANS
b. chondrosarcoma
c. osteoclastoma
d. ewings sarcoma
37q: coagulative necrosis is seen in
a. TB
b. gangrene
c. cryptococcal
d. sarcoidosis
38q: Amyloidosis .. most reliable investigation
a. rectal biopsy
b. ct scan
c. colonoscopy
d. ?????
39q: The function of 8th cranial nerve is related to
a. smell
b. taste
c. touch
d. balance
40q: A healthy young athlete sitting at table with knee at 90 degree flexion. He fully extends it. what will happen?
a. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds lat border of patella
b. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds medial border of patella
c. Movement of tibial tuberosity twds centre of patella
d.......
378 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 7
31q: A 35 yr old lady comes with primary infertility. There is a mass palpable and her CA-125 levels ar 90(units). What's most probable diagnosis?
a. Ca Ovary
b. borderline ca Ovary
c. tuberculosis
d. endometrioma
32q: Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients?
a. GCS
b. CT findings
c. Age of the pt
d. ?????
33q: All of the following r true bout sickle cell anemia except
a. single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b. a single base pair change leads to RFLP ,.. aisa kuch tha??
c. deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end.. due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d. offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
34q: Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal.. cause/mechanism of inheritance
a. Anticipation
b. Genomic imprinting
c. Germ cell line mosaicism
d. ... ??
35q: Most important form of substance abuse in india
a. tobacco
b. alcohol
c. cannabis
d. opioids
a. Ca Ovary
b. borderline ca Ovary
c. tuberculosis
d. endometrioma
32q: Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients?
a. GCS
b. CT findings
c. Age of the pt
d. ?????
33q: All of the following r true bout sickle cell anemia except
a. single nucleotide change leads to a change from glutamate to valine
b. a single base pair change leads to RFLP ,.. aisa kuch tha??
c. deoxygenated Hb leads to the exposure of sticky end.. due to replacement of non polar residue by polar residue
d. offers protection to malaria in heterozygotes
34q: Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfecta.. but their parents are normal.. cause/mechanism of inheritance
a. Anticipation
b. Genomic imprinting
c. Germ cell line mosaicism
d. ... ??
35q: Most important form of substance abuse in india
a. tobacco
b. alcohol
c. cannabis
d. opioids
377 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 6
26q: drug causing oligospermia
a. leflunamide
b. d-penicillinamine
c. methotrexate
d. L- asparginase /bleomycin
27q: Infant with repeated vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly (+).. CT shows adrenal gland calcification. What is the diagnosis
a. adrenal hemorrhage
b. cushings
c. wolmans disease
d. ??????????
28q: Incised wounds on genitalia during postmortem indicate
a. Homicidal
b. Self inflicted
c. Accidental
d. ????????
29q: Gestational diabetes mellitus.. what is NOT usually seen
a. past h/o macrosomic baby
b. malformations
c. obesity
d. polyhydramnios
30q: All are causes of primary amenorrhea except
a. rokitansky syn
b. sheehan's syn
c. kallman's syn
d. turner's syn
a. leflunamide
b. d-penicillinamine
c. methotrexate
d. L- asparginase /bleomycin
27q: Infant with repeated vomiting, diarrhea, failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegaly (+).. CT shows adrenal gland calcification. What is the diagnosis
a. adrenal hemorrhage
b. cushings
c. wolmans disease
d. ??????????
28q: Incised wounds on genitalia during postmortem indicate
a. Homicidal
b. Self inflicted
c. Accidental
d. ????????
29q: Gestational diabetes mellitus.. what is NOT usually seen
a. past h/o macrosomic baby
b. malformations
c. obesity
d. polyhydramnios
30q: All are causes of primary amenorrhea except
a. rokitansky syn
b. sheehan's syn
c. kallman's syn
d. turner's syn
376 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 5
21q: Paneth cells have
a. High zinc content
b. Numerous lysozyme granules
c. Rich RER
d. ??????
22q: Commonly seen with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
a. hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
b. hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
c. hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
d. hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
23q: boy with blunt abd trauma - h/o pelvic fracture .. has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs.. bladder is palpable.. which of the following is correct?
a. anuria d/t haemorhagic shock
b. urethral injury
c. ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum?
d. bladder rupture
24q: Thalidomide is used in all of the following except
a. HIV associated peripheral neuropathy
b. HIV associated mouth ulcers
c. behcets disease
d. ENL
25q: Most specific marker for myeloid series
a. CD 117
b. CD 99
c. CD 45
d. CD 34
a. High zinc content
b. Numerous lysozyme granules
c. Rich RER
d. ??????
22q: Commonly seen with congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
a. hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis
b. hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
c. hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis
d. hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
23q: boy with blunt abd trauma - h/o pelvic fracture .. has passed only few drops of blood per meatus and no urine in the past 8 hrs.. bladder is palpable.. which of the following is correct?
a. anuria d/t haemorhagic shock
b. urethral injury
c. ureteral rupture leading to extravasation of urine in retroperitoneum?
d. bladder rupture
24q: Thalidomide is used in all of the following except
a. HIV associated peripheral neuropathy
b. HIV associated mouth ulcers
c. behcets disease
d. ENL
25q: Most specific marker for myeloid series
a. CD 117
b. CD 99
c. CD 45
d. CD 34
Sunday, May 9, 2010
375 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 4
16q: CYP3A inhibition is caused by all except
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir
c.
d.
*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition.
17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d.
18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum
19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus
d.
20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3
a. Saquinavir
b. Ritonavir
c.
d.
*Here is a list of drugs which cause CYP3A inhibition.
17q: Chang classification is associated with
a. Retinoblastoma
b. Medulloblastoma
c. Ewing's sarcoma
d.
18q: Appendices epiploicae are present in
a. Caecum
b. appendix
c. sigmoid colon
d. Rectum
19q: A woman with placenta previa - bleeds - What is most likely to occur after delivery?
a. lack of menstrual cycles
b. galactorrhea
c. Diabetes insipidus
d.
20q: Fastest decrease in K+ levels are achieved by
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Insulin + Glucose
c. Potassium resins
d. NaHCO3
374 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 3
11q: Which of the following is most diagnostic of Rabies?
a. Negri bodies
b. Guarnerii bodies
c. Cowdry B bodies
d.
12q: Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of
a. Sural nerve
b. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d. Peroneal nerve
13q: Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except
a. Dura matter in Anterior fossa
b. Internal nasal cavity
c. Ethmoidal cells
d. Lining of maxillary sinus
14q: What is the most sensitive test for the detection of prostate cancer
a. Per rectal examination
b. Per rectal examination + PSA
c. PSA
d. MRI coil inside rectum
15q: What is the best investigation for Fracture of temporal bone?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography
a. Negri bodies
b. Guarnerii bodies
c. Cowdry B bodies
d.
12q: Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of
a. Sural nerve
b. Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
d. Peroneal nerve
13q: Anterior ethmoidal nerve supplies all except
a. Dura matter in Anterior fossa
b. Internal nasal cavity
c. Ethmoidal cells
d. Lining of maxillary sinus
14q: What is the most sensitive test for the detection of prostate cancer
a. Per rectal examination
b. Per rectal examination + PSA
c. PSA
d. MRI coil inside rectum
15q: What is the best investigation for Fracture of temporal bone?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. X-ray
d. Angiography
373 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 2
6q: Which of the following is not used in a 26 year old patient with Sickle cell anemia?
a. IV regional anaesthesia
b. Brachial plexus supraclavicular application block
c. Brachial plexus axillary approach block
d. ??????
7q: Post glenohumeral instability is tested by which of the following
a. Crank test
b. Fulcrum test
c. Jerk test
d. Sulcus test
8q: A 20 year old has a swollen right ankle involvement with nodular painful swelling. He has associated fever and malaise. What is the probable diagnosis
a. Hansen disease
b. Weber christian disease
c. Erythema nodosum
d.
9q: A 35 year old lady with parity = 3, presents with CIN III. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Cryotherapy
b. LEEP
c. Conisation
d. Hysterectomy
10q: Faecal contamination of water is indicated by all except
a. Streptococcus
b. Staph.aureus
c. E.coli
d. Clostridium perfringens
a. IV regional anaesthesia
b. Brachial plexus supraclavicular application block
c. Brachial plexus axillary approach block
d. ??????
7q: Post glenohumeral instability is tested by which of the following
a. Crank test
b. Fulcrum test
c. Jerk test
d. Sulcus test
8q: A 20 year old has a swollen right ankle involvement with nodular painful swelling. He has associated fever and malaise. What is the probable diagnosis
a. Hansen disease
b. Weber christian disease
c. Erythema nodosum
d.
9q: A 35 year old lady with parity = 3, presents with CIN III. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Cryotherapy
b. LEEP
c. Conisation
d. Hysterectomy
10q: Faecal contamination of water is indicated by all except
a. Streptococcus
b. Staph.aureus
c. E.coli
d. Clostridium perfringens
372 - AIIMS May 2010 Mcqs with answers part 1
1q: Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of which of the following
a. Specific protection
b. Health promotion
c. Secondary protection
d. Primordial prevention
2q: What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a. Imipramine
b. Alprazolam
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Fluoxetine
3q: A 60 year old presents with total painless gross hematuria. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria would be
a. USG
b. KUB X-ray
c. Urine C/E
d. Urine for malignant cells
4q: Portal flow is decreased to lowest in
a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Ether
d. Enflurane
5q: Cryoglobulinemia is associated with
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
a. Specific protection
b. Health promotion
c. Secondary protection
d. Primordial prevention
2q: What is the drug of choice for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a. Imipramine
b. Alprazolam
c. Benzodiazepines
d. Fluoxetine
3q: A 60 year old presents with total painless gross hematuria. Investigation of choice to know the cause of hematuria would be
a. USG
b. KUB X-ray
c. Urine C/E
d. Urine for malignant cells
4q: Portal flow is decreased to lowest in
a. Halothane
b. Isoflurane
c. Ether
d. Enflurane
5q: Cryoglobulinemia is associated with
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
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