36q: Which of the following is seen in severe preeclampsia ?
a)oliguria
b)severe oedema
c)IUGR
d)Diastolic bp mmore than 110
e)Systolic bp more than 150
37q: True about Boerrhave's syndrome ?
a)present with hemoptysis
b)shows transmucosal rupture
c)shows cyanosis & decreased conciousness
d)mucosal repair
38q: Pathognomic pathologial finding in HIV infection?
a)micronodules
b)neurofibrillary tangles
c)giant cells
d)lewi bodies
e)????????
39q: True about senile amyloidosis
a)Transthyretin
b)beta amyloid
c)AA amyloid
d)Heart failure is predominant presentation
40q: which is seen in zygomatic fracture?
a. Swelling cheek
b. Severe malocclusion
c. Epistaxis
d. Infraorbital nerve damage
e. ?????????
31q: True about total fertility rate...
a) It represents total nummber of children born to woman during reproductive period
B) It represent total number of daughters born
c) It represent the completed family size
d) ......??
32q: Granulomatous lesions include
a) Lupus vulgaris
b) Lichen sclerosis
c) Sarcioidosis
d) Kaposi sarcoma
33q: Bronchial breathing is not seen in..
a) Consolidation
b) Bronchopneumonia
c) Chronic bronchitis
d) Fibro-cavitary lesion
e) ????????
34q: Which of the following can be used safely in porphyria...
a) Thiopentone
b) Ketamine
c) Methadone
d) Etomidate
e) propofol
35q: Minimum concentration of reduced hemoglobin required for cyanosis is:-
a) 1gm/dl.
b) 3 gm/dl
c) 5 gm/dl
d) 7 gm/dl
e) 9 gm/dl
26q: Intra epidermal blisters are seen in:-
a) bullous pemphigoid
b) Pemphigus folliaceous
c) Darrier's disease
d) Epidermolysis bullosa
e)??????????
27q: A 10 yr. old boy presented with anuria of 12 hours after a bout of diarrhea. What will be included in management:-
a) Slow Dopamine infusion
b) Frusemide
c) Dopamine + Frusemide
d) 0.9 Nacl (20ml/kg)
e) ???????
28q: basic aminoacids are
a.histidine
b. Methionine
c. Tryptophan
d.lysine
e.arginine
29q: A patient presented with hemoptysis and periorbital swelling. He had microscopic hematuria too. what should be included in the investigations:-
a) CT Chest
b) CXR
c) ANA
d) ANCA
e) 24 hour protein estimation
30q: Enzyme markers elevated in teratoma include:-
a) AFP
b)CEA
c) Ca 19
d) HCG
e) ????????
21q: Polycystic kidney is seen on IVP as..
a) Flower vase appearance
b) Falling flower appearnce
c) Spider leg apperance
d) Egg in the cup appearance..
22q: A lady presented to you with a history of early pregnancy loss. What are the investigations to be ordered..??
a) Blood sugar
b) Rubella screening
c) VDRL
d) Blood grouping
e) toxoplasma serology
23q: quickening in pregnancy is seen during which weeks?
a)12-16wks
b)16-20wks
c)20-24wks
d)24-28wks
24q: Adverse effects of Dapsone are:-
a) Agranulocytosis
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Hepatitis
d) Neuropathy
e) Methemoglobinemia
25q: Biophysical profle includes..
a) Fetal heart rate acceleration monitoring
b) Fetal breathing movement
c) Fetal body movements
d) Placental examination
e) ......??
16q: Aids defining illness include all of the following except:-
a) Persisten generalised lymphadenopathy
b) Oropharyngeal candidiasis
c) Primary CNS lymphoma
d) Cryptococcosis
e) CMV retinitis
17q: Massive PPH may warrant following interventions except ?
a) Hysterectomy
b) Thermal Endometrial ablation
c) Internal iliac A. ligation
d) Balloon tamponade
e) Lynch suture
18q: Snowman appearance on CXr is seen in..
a) TAPVC
b) TGA
c) PDA
d) Ebsteins anomaly
19q: Kerley B lines are seen in :-
a) Pericardial effusion
b) Pleural effusion
c) Mitral stenosis
d) Interstitial edema
e) Lymphangitic carcinomatosis
20q: Which of the following act as antioxidants:-
a) Vit. D
b) Vit C
c) selenium
d) glutathione
e) Vit. A
11q: Which of the following enzymes are in active form in dephosphorylated state:-
a) HMG Co A reductase
b) Glycogen phosphorylase
c) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
d) Citrate lyase
e) Glycogen synthase
12q: A patient presented to emergency with acute chest pain, with dyspnea and low BP ( 84/56).. What should be included in immediate investigations
a) Contrast angiography
b) ECG
c) ABG
d) Hemogram
e) CT scan
13q: Egg on side appearance is seen in:-
a) Transposition of great vessels
b) TAPVC
c) TOF
d) Ebstein's anomaly
e) Tricuspid atresia
14q: Which of the following are used to protect airways :-
a) LMA
b) Endotracheal tube
c) Facemask
d) Combitube
e)??????????
15q: Most commonly Pancreatic pseudoaneurysm involves which arteries..
a) Gastroduodenal A.
b) Inferior pancreatico-duodenal
c) Gastric arteries
d) Splenic A.
e) Hepatic A.
6q: Which of the following can cause First dose syncope:-
a) Alpha blocker
b) Beta blocker
c) ACE inhibitors
d) Aldosterone agonists
e) ???????
7q: Which of the following does not cause Corneal neovascularisation...?
a) Soft contact lens use
b) Viral keratitis
c) Graft rejection
d) Chemical burn
e) vitreal surgery
8q: Which of the following is not true about Rheumatoid arthritis
a) Disease is limited to articular cartilage
b) Associated with HLA DR4 and DQ4..
c) Rheumatoid nodules are seen in 20% patients
d) Women are affected 3 times more than Men...
e)RF is a must for diagnosis
9q: Diffuse specific lesions on intestinal biopsy are seen in
a) Celiac sprue
b) Whipples disease
c) Agammaglobulinemia
d) Abetalipoproteinemai
e) Tropical sprue
10q: Natural method of genetic material exchange among bacteria include :-
a) Electroporation
b) Transduction
c) Transformation
d) Conjugation
e) Mutation
1q: Drugs causing Acute Tubular Necrosis are :
a)Cyclosporine
b) Amphotericin B
c) Rifampicin
d) NSAIDs
e) Aminoglycosides.
2q: N. gonococci infection is Associated with deficiency of which of the following,....
a) C5
b) C6
c) C7
d) C8
e) C9
3q: Which of the following drugs can cause Nephrotic syndrome...'
a) Inteferon alpha.
b) Gold
c) Mercury
d) NSAIDs
e)Rifampicin
4q: A person can be called as Major at what age, according to "Indian.... Act"
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 25
e) 12
5q: Which arteries supply Pectoral Major muscle:-
a) Pectoral branch of Thoraco- acromial
b) Intercostal
c) Lateral thoracic
d) Subclavin A.
e) Internal Mammary A.
131. A patient presents to the hospital with increased bilirubin in the blood. Direct bilirubin was observed to be 50%. Liver function tests were found to be normal. What is the diagnosis ?
a. Sepsis
b. Rotor syndrome
c. Gilbert syndrome
d. Hereditary glucuronyl transferase deficiency
132. Which of the following is true about branchial arch derivatives ?
a. Branchial sinus is most commonly derived from second arch
b. Branchial cyst is more common than branchial sinus
c. Surgical excision of branchial sinus is not always indicated
d. ?????????????
133.All of the following indicate Effective leprosy control programmes except ?
a. High new case detection rate
b. Increased children affected
c. Decreased disability
d. ????????????
134. Caustic poisons corrose mucosa because ?
a. It is hygroscopic
b. It has glue like action
c. It is programmed to stick
d. It has high affinity for mucosa
135. All of the following are true about growth charts except ?
a. Tool for educating mothers
b. Position of dots more important than direction
c. Area between top 2 lines shows ROAD TO HEALTH
d. Lower most line shows children below third percentile
126: Best sample for the diagnosis of whooping cough?
a. Endotracheal aspirate
b. Cough plate culture
c. Nasopharyngeal swab
d. blood
127. full thickness graft can obtained from all of the following EXCEPT
a) elbows
b) supraclaviclular area
c) groin
d) axilla
128. Voriconazole is used in all the following EXCEPT
a) aspergillosis
b) candidiasis
c) mucormycosis
d) ??????????
129. A child is suffering with chronic diarrhea for last one year. Stool sample reveal ova of 100 microns size. All are differentials except
a) G. discoides
b) FASCIOLA GIGANTICA
c) ophisthorcis viverrani
d) ???????????
130. left phrenic nerve runs?
a. ant to scalneus ant
b. post to brachial plexus.
c. ant to hilum
d. posterior to hilum of lung
121q: True about Burkitt's Leukaemia
1. CD 34 and Surface Ig both positive
2. CD 34 negative but surface Ig positive
3. CD 34 positive but Surface Ig negative
4. CD 34 and Surface Ig both negative
122q: Type of anaemia caused by Ileocaecal TB:
1. Iron - deficiency anemia
2. Megaloblastic anemia
3. sideroblastic anemia
4. Normocytic Normochromic anemia
123q: NOT a high risk factor for Cholangiocarcinoma :
1. Parasitic infestation
2. Ulcerative Colitis
3. Chronic typhoid carriers
4. Choledocholithiasis
124q: ACE inhibitor which is NOT a prodrug:
1. Fosinopril
2. Enalapril
3. ?????????
4. Lisinopril
125q: NOT a common cause of Vasculitis in adults:
1. Giant Cell Arteritis
2. PAN
3. Kawasaki disease
4. HSP
116q: Prolactin causes ?
a. High FSH
b. Elevated estradiol
c. Elevated testosterone
d. ????????????
117q: A baby with 46 XX presents with normal external genitalia of male. Which of the following is not among the differential diagnosis of this condition?
a. Aromatase deficiency
b. Mother has adrenal tumor
c. Anti mullerian hormone deficiency
d. ???????????????
118q: OCP fails when used with all except ?
a. Aspirin
b. Tetracyclines
c. Phenytoin
d. Rifampicin
119q: Necrotizing lymphadenitis is seen in ?
a. Kimura disease
b. Kikuchi's disease
c. Hodgkin's disease
d. ???????????
120q: Premature baby 1.5kg born at 32 by emergency C.S. now develops respiratory distress with grunting. Best management:
1. Moist Oxygen through headbox
2. Mechanical ventilation
3. C-PAP
4. Surfactant therapy plus mechanical ventilation
111q: Rib notching is seen in all except?
a. After Blalock-Tausig shunt
b. After Waterston's shunt
c. Pulmonary atresia with VSD
d. ????????????????
112q: Which of the following is associated with more than 20% risk of chromosomal anomalies?
a. omphalocele
b. gastroschisis
c. cleft palate
d. spina bifida
113q: Recall bias is most commonly seen with ?
a. Case control study
b. Cohort study
c. Cross sectional study
d. Randomized control study
114q: Deep peroneal nerve supplies?
a. First web space
b. Fifth web space
c. Anterolateral leg
d. Anterolateral foot
115q: Tocolytic of choice for heart disease in pregnancy?
a. Nifedipine
b. MgSO4
c. Atosiban
d. ???????
106q: Third nerve palsy with normal pupillary reaction is seen in?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Trauma
c. ??????
d. ??????
107q: Headache with bitemporal hemianopia with 6/6 vision is seen in ?
a. Bilateral cavernous lesions
b. Chiasmal lesions
c. Trauma
d. ???????
108q: Which of the following is not felt on per rectal examination of a male?
a. Ureter
b. Bulb of penis
c. Prostate
d. Anorectal ring
109q: Injury to head of fibula, all are involved except:
a. common peroneal N
b. superficial peroneal n.
c. anterior tibial n.
d. tibial n.
110q: Sudden thunderclap headache with unconsciousness is seen in a patient. Examination shows Ipsilateral, dilated pupil. What is the diagnosis?
a. Acute ischemia of midbrain
b. Acute aneurysmal hemorrhage
c. Meningitis
d. Tubercular lesion
101q: Treatment of choice in Condyloma acuminatum in pregnancy?
a. Podophyllotoxin
b. Cryotherapy
c. Imiqimod
d. Salicylic acid and lactic acid solution
102q: Which of the following is true in asthma ?
a. Increased FRC and Increased RV
b. Decreased FRC and Decreased RV
c. Increased FRC and Decreased RV
d. Decreased FRC and Increased RV
103q: Which of the following is not a personality trait ?
a. Sensation seeking
b. Neuroticism
c. Pleasure seeking
d. Problem solving
104q: Nitrates are not used in which of the following?
a. Oesophageal spasm
b. Renal colic
c. CHF
d. Cyanide poisoning
105q: Drug not used in Congestive Heart Failure ?
a. Nitrates
b. Spironolactone
c. Nesiritide
d. Trimetazidine
96q: Which of the following is located most medially in the femoral triangle?
a. Vein
b. Artery
c. Nerve
d. Lymphatics
97q: Which of the following is not a feature of pseudogout?
a. Small joints affected
b. Large joints affected
c. Chondrocalcinosis
d. Deposition of Calcium pyrophosphate
98q: A girl presents with pain in the legs. She also complains of recurrent vomiting and headache. What is the diagnosis?
a. Somatoform pain disorder
b. Conversion disorder
c. Somatization disorder
d. ???????????
99q: Which of the following is the best marker for Dyslipidemia?
a. Triglycerides and cholesterol ratio
b. LDL/HDL ratio
c. LDL/Cholesterol ratio
d. APO A1
100q: Defective DNA repair is associated with ?
a. Albinism
b. Xeroderma pigmentosum
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. ??????????
91q: All of the following use cAMP as second messenger except?
a. Corticotropin
b. Vasopressin
c. Dopamine
d. Glucagon
92q: A patient presents with blunt injury to the abdomen. He is hemodynamically stable. What is the investigation of choice?
a. DPL
b. FAST
c. CT
d. ???????
93q: Aniridia is associated with which of the following tumors?
a. Medulloblastoma
b. Nephroblastoma
c. Hepatoblastoma
d. ???????????
94q: All are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome except?
a. Microcephaly
b. Overgrowth
c. flat face
d. ???????????
95q: Infant of a diabetic mother presents with seizures after 17 hours. What is the probable cause?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. hypocalcemia
c. Hypomagensemia
d. ???????????
86q: Which of the following is false about p53?
a. Present on chromsome 17
b. Arrests cell cycle in G1 phase
c. Produces a protein of weigh 53 Kilodaltons
d. Non mutated wild p53 is associated with neoplasms of childhood
87q: Erythromycin is beneficial to patients with intestinal hypomotility because?
a. It reduces the bacterial load
b. It increases the bacterial load
c. It binds with the motilin receptors
d. It binds with Vasoactive Intestinal Polypeptide
88q: Zinc is a cofactor for ?
a. Alcoholic dehydrogenase
b. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
c. Pyruvate decaroboxylase
d. Alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase
89q: A 67 year old smoker, presents with hemoptysis and cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy shows a less differentiated tumor. Immunohistochemical marker useful will be?
a. Cytokeratin
b. Vimentin
c. Caltretin
d. ???????????
90q: Nephrotoxicity is seen with?
a. Azathioprine
b. Tacrolimus
c. Mycophenolate mofetil
d. Leflunomide
81q: What is the characteristic feature seen in wegener's glomerulonephritis ?
a. Granulomas in the vessel wall
b. Focal necrotizing glomerulo sclerosis
c. ????????????
d. ????????????
82q: A male presents to the infertility clinic with azoospermia. His testes is normal and the FSH and Testosterone are in the normal range. What is the probable cause?
a. Testicular failure
b. Vas obstruction
c. Klinefelter's syndrome
d. Kallman's syndrome
83q: TNF ALPHA should not be used in ?
a. RA + HIV
b. RA + TB
c. RA + Crohn's disease
d. ????????
84q: Pain in early labour is limited to which of the following dermatomes ?
a. T11, T12
b. L1, L2
c. L3, L4
d. S1, S2
85q: Uterine blood flow at term is ?
a. 100-200 ml/min
b. 200-400 ml/min
c. 300-500 ml/min
d. 550-750 ml/min
76q: A school teacher slapped a student, due to which the student suffered 25% of hearing loss. This hearing loss was completely corrected by surgery. What kind of an injury is this?
a. Serious injury
b. Dangerous injury
c. Greivous injury
d. Simple injury
77q: The most appropriate CD marker for Gastrointestinal Stromal tumor (GIST)?
a. CD 117
b. ?????????
c. ??????
d. ????????
78q: The most common sequelae to periventricular leukomalacia is?
a. Spastic diplegia
b. Spastic quadriplegia
c. ???????????
d. ???????????
79q: Which of the following is false about Japanese encephalitis?
a. Culex mosquitoes acts as vectors
b. These mosquitoes breed in high head water tanks
c. Pigs act as amplifiers of flaviviruses
d. ???????????????????????
80q: All are true about Campylobacter except?
a. Humans are the only reservoirs
b. Source of infection is poultry
c. ?????????????????
d. ?????????????????
71q: A person has restricted eye movements in all direction and ptosis but no squint or diplopia. What could be the probable diagnosis?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Thyroid myopathy
c. CDEM
d. Multiple cranial nerve palsies
72q: A patient was diagnosed with Kostmann syndrome. What is the treatment?
a. Anti-thymocyte globulin + cyclosporin
b. Anti-thymocyte globulin + cyclosporin + GM-CSF
c. G-CSF
d. GM-CSF
*Congenital neutropenia (Kostmann syndrome) is a disease with mutations in the granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) receptor and, often, neutrophil elastase that may evolve into AML.
73q: NARP syndrome is ?
a. A glycogen storage disorder
b. A lipid storage disorder
c. A lysosomal storage disorder
d. Mitochondrial disorder
*The syndrome of Neuropathy, Ataxia and Retinitis Pigmentosa (NARP)is clinically heterogenous, but it is often characterised by a combination of sensory-motor neuropathy, cerebellar ataxia and night blindness.
*A maternally inherited condition, the NARP syndrome is associated with a mutation in the mitochondrial DNA(mtDNA) gene, MTATP6, coding for the subunit ATPase6.
74q: All are used in the treatment of visceral leishmaniasis except:
a. Sitamaquine
b. Paromomycin
c. Hydroxychloroquine
d. miltefosine
75q: Stability of the ankle joint is maintained by all except
a. Cruciate ligaments
b. Collateral ligaments
c. Tendons of muscles passing the joint
d. close apposition of bones
66q: Which of the following cancers are associated with LYNCH syndrome?
a. Breast, ovarian and endometrial cancers
b. Colon, ovarian and endometrial cancers
c. Breast, colon and ovarian cancers
d. Endometrial, breast and colon cancers
*Refer page 607, bottom left last paragraph - Harrison's 17th edition.
67. Anti-neutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies are seen in ?
a. Good pasture syndrome
b. PAN
c. Kawasaki disease
d. Wegener's granulomatosis
*p-ANCA is seen in Microscopic polyangitis, Churg strauss syndrome, Good pasture syndrome and Cresentric glomerulonephritis.
*c-ANCA is seen in Wegener's granulomatosis.
68q: Which of the following statement is true regarding Phenytoin ?
a. It follows zero order kinetics
b. It is excreted unchanged in urine
c. It is not teratogenic
d. ????????
*Drugs which follow zero order kinetics are Theophylline, Warfarin, Salicylates (high doses), Tolbutamide, Ethanol(except low blood levels)and Phenytoin (high doses).
69q: During valsalva maneuvre, murmurs of all of the following are reduced except?
a. HOCM
b. ???????
c. ???????
d. ???????
70q: A 15 year old boy dies suddenly playing in the field. Probable diagnosis ?
a. Dilated cardiomyopathy
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Obstructive cardiomyopathy
d. arrythmogenic heart disease
61q: Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs are disposed by?
a. Autoclaving
b. deep burial
c. Wait for 1 year and then bury
d. ????????
62q: When is heparing introduced in a pregnant woman with heart disease?
a. At 32 weeks
b. At 36 weeks
c. At 40 weeks
d. During labour
*Warfarin can be used upto 36 weeks of gestation.
63q: Cyclo-oxygenase 2 (COX-2) inhibits which of the following?
a. Cell adhesion
b. Cell proliferation
c. Cell migration
d. Cell differentiation
64q: Which of the following statements is false?
a. Chemoluminiscence is the production of light by the movement of electrons from higher energy level to lower energy level
b. Bioluminescence is the production of light by living organisms
c. Electrochemoluminiscene is ?????????????
d. Phoshporoscence is the production of light by absorbing light from other source
65q: Which of the following is false regarding flumazenil ?
a. It is a specific antagonist of Benzodiazepines
b. It can also be used in barbiturate overdose
c. ?????????????
d. ?????????????
56q: Which of the following is a false statement?
a. Superior thyroid artery is a branch of the external carotid artery
b. Parathyroid artery is a posterior branch of the superior thyroid artery
c. Inferior thyroid artery is a branch of Thyrocervical trunk
d. Thyroidea ima arteries invariably arise from the aorta
*The thyroidea ima ascends in front of the trachea to the lower part of the thyroid gland, which it supplies.
*It varies greatly in size, and appears to compensate for deficiency or absence of one of the other thyroid vessels. The thyroidea ima artery, when present, arises from the brachiocephalic trunk (innominate artery).
*It occasionally arises from the aorta, the right common carotid, the subclavian or the internal thoracic artery.
57q: ONODI cells and HALLER cells are seen in relation to which of the following respectively?
a. Optic canal and medial roof of maxillary sinus
b. Optic canal and ethmoid sinus
c. ??????????????
d. ?????????????
58q: Most common tumor of the eyelid?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Lacrimal gland tumor
d. Malignant melanoma
59q: Substance P is present in which of the following in peripheral tissues?
a. Vascular endothelium
b. Mast cells
c. Nerve terminals
d. Plasma
60q: Which of the following is not seen in Dermatomyositis?
a. Gottron's papules
b. Periungual telangiectasia
c. Salmon rash
d. Mechanic's hand
51q: Vitamin deficiency that leads to the occurence of seizures is ?
a. Pyridoxine
b. Thiamine
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin C
52q: Which of the following is not used in clinical practice now-a-days?
a. Cesium
b. Iridium
c. Radium
d. Cobalt
53q: Investigation of choice for vascular ring leading to obstructed airway?
a. Catheter angiography
b. CT
c. MRI
d. PET
54q: Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for?
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma T3N1
b. Supraglottic carcinoma T3N0
c. Glottic carcinoma T3N1
d. Subglottic cancer T3N0
55q: True about BUSPIRONE ?
a. Relieves anxiety
b. Sedation
c. Induction of sleep
d. ??????????
46q: When in labor, a diagnosis of Occipito-Posterior presentation is made. What is the most appropriate management in this case? (AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat)
a. Emergency Caesarean section
b. Wait and watch for the progress of labour
c. Early rupture of membranes
d. Start oxytocin drip
47q: All of the following are B cell markers except ?
a. CD 19
b. CD 20
c. CD 10
d. CD 117
48q: Acoustic neuroma arises from?
a. Superior vestibular division of the VIII nerve
b. Inferior vestibular division of the VIII nerve
c. Cochlear division of the VIII nerve
d. None
49q: Best investigation for Radiation induced necrosis of brain?
a. MRI
b. CT
c. PET scan
d. ???????
50q: Malignant risk is seen in all except ?
a. Peutz jegher syndrome
b. Juvenile polyposis syndrome
c. Juvenile polyps
d. ???????????
41q: Fallopian tube dysmotility is seen in ? (AIIMS repeat)
a. Kartagener's syndrome
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????
42q: Stimulation of which of the following nerves elevates the mood?
a. Optic nerve
b. Olfactory nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Vagus
43q: Call-exner bodies are seen in ? (AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat).
a. Granulosa cell tumor
b. Endodermal sinus tumor
c. Yolk sac tumor
d. Dysgerminoma
44q: A 10 year old girl presents with primary amenorrhea, absent breasts and malformed uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat)
a. MRKH syndrome
b. Turner's syndrome
c. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
d. Swyer's syndrome
45q: A 35 year old presents with post-coital bleeding. What is the next step :
a. Clinical examination and pap smear
b. Visual inspection and acetowhite
c. Visual inspection with lugol's iodine
d. ???????
36q: Blow out fracture of the orbit most commonly involves which of the following?
a. roof
b. posterior wall of the floor of orbit
c. medial wall
d. lateral wall
37q: Most useful investigation in suspected ectopic pregnancy is ?(AIIMS MAY 2008 repeat)
a. TVS sonography
b. Culdocentesis
c. HCG levels estimation
d. ????????
38q: A 10 year old boy with boggy swelling of the scalp, with discharging sinuses presents to the doctor. Hair is easily pluckable and lymphnodes are involved in the occipital region. Which of the following tests is useful in making the diagnosis?
a. KOH preparation
b. culture
c. Biopsy
d. ??????
39. What are the receptors that help in the transport of glucose into the myocyte?
a. GLUT-1
b. GLUT-2
c. GLUT-3
d. GLUT-4
40.Progesterone used in emergency contraception ?
a. Norgesterone
b. Micronised Progesterone
c. Levonorgesterol
d. DMPA
31q: Which of the following structures does not run deep to the flexor retinaculum?
a. Median nerve
b. Flexor digitorum superficialis
c. Flexor digitorum profundus
d. Ulnar nerve
32q: HPV vaccine is a?
a. Monovalent vaccine
b. Bivalent vaccine
c. Quadrivalent vaccine
d. Both bivalent and quadrivalent vaccine
*About one week after the FDA approved the bivalent human papillomavirus vaccine for use in girls and women ages 10 to 25 years, the CDC’s Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices recommended the product to prevent cervical cancer in these women. *The committee recommended vaccination with either the new bivalent vaccine (Cervarix, GlaxoSmithKline) or the existing quadrivalent vaccine (Gardasil, Merck), despite some discussion about the differences between the two vaccines. *The quadrivalent vaccine is indicated to prevent the types of HPV associated with genital warts, types 6 and 11, whereas the bivalent vaccine is indicated to prevent HPV types 16 and 18. *Above information taken from here :
33q:Hirschsprung's disease is due to?
a. loss of ganglion cells in sympathetic chain
b. failure of migration of neural crest cells from cranial to caudal direction
c. loss of anerior longitudinal cells
d. None
34q: Hatters shake tremors are due to ?
a. Aresnic
b. Lead
c. Mercury
d. Chromium
35q: A patient with non-united fracture of the lower 1/4 th of tibia, presents with multiple discharging sinuses, puckered scar. What is the management?
a. Ilizarov's fixator
b. External fixator
c. Nailing
d. Plating
26q: Lesion of the central spinal cord causes dissociative sensory loss due to involvement of
which of the following?
a. Dorsal column
b. Anterior tracts
c. Decussating fibers of Lateral spinothalamic tracts
d. Ciliospinal tract
27q: A case was given in which MIL-WHEEL MURMUR was a finding. What is the diagnosis?
a. Air embolism
b. ????????
c. ????????
d. ????????
28q: Carisoprodol is a metabolite of?
a. Meprobamate
b. ??????????
c. ??????????
d. ??????????
*Carisoprodol was developed on the basis of meprobamate, in the hope that it would have better muscle relaxing properties, less potential for abuse, and less risk of overdose than meprobamate. *More information about carisoprodol :
29q: Categorisation of a non-vigorous baby in the process of resusciation during meconium stained liquor, included all except ?
a. Colour
b. Tone
c. Heart rate
d. Respirations
30q: Clue cells are found in ?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Candidal vaginitis
d. none
24q: A patient who had a previous LSCS comes now in labour. Hematuria is observed. What is ur diagnosis?
a. scar rupture
b. Urethral trauma
c. cystitis
d. ???????
25q: Low serum haptoglobulin in hemolysis is masked by?
a. Pregnancy
b. Liver disease
c. Bile duct obstruction
d. ???????
16q: First local anaesthetic to be clinically used?
a. Cocaine
b. Procaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Bupivacaine
17q: Semen stains on clothes are identified by?
a. Infrared
b. UV light
c. Spectrometry
d. Lens
18q: Lipid detection in a frozen section sample is done with ?
a. Per iodic acid shiff
b. Mucicarmine
c. Masson's Trichrome stain
d. Oil Red O stain
19q: A drug addict with vegetations on the tricuspid valve, the most common causative organism is?
a. Klebsiella
b. Staph. aureus
c. Pseudomonas
d. E.Coli
20q: Recall bias is most commonly associated with which type of study?
a. Case control study
b. Cohort study
c. Cross sectional study
d. ??????
11q: The gene for HLA is located on ?
a. Short arm of chromosome 6
b. Short arm of chromosome 3
c. Long arm of chromosome 6
d. Long arm of chromosome 3
12q: What does 'C' in C-Reactive protein stand for?
a. C polysaccaride of pneumococcus
b. That comes after ARP, BRP
c. Connovalin-A
d. Cellular
*C-reactive protein was originally discovered by Tillett and Francis in 1930 as a substance in the serum of patients with acute inflammation that reacted with the C polysaccharide of pneumococcus. Initially it was thought that CRP might be a pathogenic secretion as it was elevated in people with a variety of illnesses including cancer, however discovery of hepatic synthesis demonstrated that it is a native protein.
13q: Nobel prize in physiology or medicine was recently awarded for the discovery of?
a. Lipoxin
b. RNA i
c. ?????
d. ?????
14q: Which of the following is a poor prognostic finding of Acute lymphoblastic leukemia?(AIIMS Repeat)
a. TLC 4000-10000
b. Involvement of gonads
c. Age less than 2 years
d. ?????????
15q: Sclera is thinnest at? (AIIMS MAY 2009 repeat)
a. Limbus
b. Equator
c. Anterior to attachment of superior rectus
d. Posterior to attachment of superior rectus
6q: Section 377 IPC is associated with ?
a. Rape
b. Adultery
c. Unnatural offences
d. Greivous hurt
*For important IPC sections frequently asked in exams, GO TO THIS PAGE:
7q: Which of the following are permanent, stable and almost unchanging but can change under circumstances?
a. Cultural beliefs
b. Practice
c. Opinion
d. Attitude
8q: In a population of 10000 people, 20% of them were found to have disease. A screening test employed here had a sensitivity of 90 and specificity of 85. What is the positive predicitive value ?
a. 54.3 %
b. 98.5%
c. 14.3%
d. 75%
9q: A young female presented with intermittent ptosis and proximal weakness of muscles. She complains of fatigue. Examination reveals no other abnormality. What is the probable diagnosis ?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????
10q: Which of the following if false about Cl.perfringens ?
a. It is the most common cause of gas gangrene
b. The most important virulence factor is hyaluronidase
c. Nagler's reaction helps in identifying it
d. This was the false statement
1q: Urothelium lines all except ? (May09 AIIMS repeat)
a. Ureters
b. Major calyx
c. Urinary bladder
d. Membranous urethra
2q: Vaginal sphincter is formed by all except ? (May09 AIIMS repeat)
a. Internal urethral sphincter
b. External urethral sphincter
c. Pubovaginalis
d. Bulbospongiosus
3q: Maximum secretions of potassium ions is seen in ?(May09 AIIMS repeat with different options)
a. Pacreatic juice
b. bile
c. colon secretions
d. ileal secretions
4q: A man working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odour in breath and transverse lines on nails. Most likely the person is having? (May 09 AIIMS repeat)
a. Arsenic poisoning
b. Lead poisoning
c. Mercury poisoning
d. Cadmium poisoning
5q: Antemortem and postmortem wounds could be differentiated by all except ? (May 09 AIIMS repeat with different options)
a. Sharp edges
b. Formation of pus
c. Red line formation
d. Inflammatory base
