Previous Medical PostGraduation Entrance Papers' Mcqs with Answers: April 2009

Wednesday, April 29, 2009

225 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 7

31) Regarding Addisonian pigmentation, all are
true except

a) involves moles and scars
b) involves palmar creases
c) does not involve oral mucosa
d) involves sole pads

32) In an HIV positive patient with tuberculosis,
all are true except

a) decreased cavitation
b) increased sputum positivity for AFB
c) highly variable tuberculin test
d) decreased fibrosis

33) In essential hypertension, changes seen in the
heart are

a) cardiac cell hyperplasia
b) cardiac cell hypertrophy
c) increase in the mitochondrial number
d) increase in the size of mitochondria

34) In a 32 year old male presenting with the
following blood chemistry : Na+ = 135, K+ = 5.0,
HCO3 = 14.0, Cl- = 116, PO4 = 5.0, SO4 = 5.0, Mg = 2.0, Ca =
8.0, the anion gap is

a) 10
b) 15
c) 13
d) 20

35) Pyramidal tract involvement with absent ankle
jerk is seen in

a) Frederich’s ataxia
b) Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
c) Lathyrism
d) Tabes dorsalis

Monday, April 27, 2009

224 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 6

26) A 76 year old male comes with a history of
frequent falls and difficulty in looking downwards
and laterally. The diagnosis is

a) Alzheimer’s disease
b) Supranuclear palsy
c) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
d) Oculomotor nerve palsy

27) The commonest side effect of cisplatin in a
patient using it for esophageal carcinoma is

a) ATN
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) Hepatic failure
d) Cardiomyopathy

28) The most common late CNS complication of
HIV is

a) Dementia
b) Ataxia
c) Seizures
d) Delirium

29) In a patient with acute liver failure, the best
prognostic indicator is

a) Serum albumin
b) Serum AFP
c) Serum bilirubin
d) Factor V estimation

30) The commonest hepatotropic virus causing
increased chronic carrier state is

a) HEV
b) HAV
c) HBV
d) HCV

Sunday, April 26, 2009

223 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 5

21) A 32 year old male, Kallu, who recently
visited a sea coast presented with an ulcer over the
left leg. The probable cause is

a) Pasturella multocida
b) Micrococcus halophilus
c) Vibrio vulnificus
d) onchocerca volvulus

22) An 8 year old boy, Kallu, is brought to the
casualty with a history of consuming something
while playing outside in a play ground. On
examination, there was altered sensorium,
hyperpyrexia, dilated pupils. Most probable cause is

a) Dhatura poisoning
b) Organophosphorus poisoning
c) Parthenium poisoning
d) Barbiturate poisoning

23) All the following viruses cause stomach and
colon cancer except

a) H pylori
b) EB virus
c) HBV
d) HIV

24) Which of the following is pathognomonic of
renal disease

a) Hyaline casts
b) coarse granular casts
c) cystine oxalate crystals
d) epithelial cells

25) Hypoglycemia is seen in

a) Acromegaly
b) Cushings syndrome
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Hypopitutarism

222 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 4

16) In malignant hypertension, hyperplastic
arteriosclerosis is seen in all except

a) Peripancreatic fat
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Periadrenal fat

17) In a chronic smoker, a highly malignant,
aggressive and metastatic lung carcinoma is

a) Squamous cell Carcinoma
b) Small cell Carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell Carcinoma

18) All are true about Neisseria gonorrhea except

a) Gram positive cocci
b) causes stricture urethra
c) Involves seminal vesicles and spreads to epididymis
d) drug of choice is Ceftriaxone

19) A 30 year old male, Kallu, with a history of
sexual exposure comes with a painless indurated
ulcer over the penis with everted margins. The
diagnosis is

a) Syphilis
b) Chancroid
c) LGV
d) Granuloma inguinale

20) All are features of peripheral neuritis in a
patient with Hansens Disease except

a) Predominant sensory involvement
b) Decreased tendon reflexes
c) Mutilations
d) peripheral nerve thickening

221 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 3

11) In beta thalassemia, there is

a) increase in Beta chain , decrease in Alpha chain
b) decrease in Beta chain, increase Alpha chain
c) decrease in Beta chain, decrease Alpha chain
d) Increase in Beta chain, increase Alpha chain

12) Non caseating granulomas are seen in all the
following except

a) Tuberculosis
b) Byssinosis
c) Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
d) Metastatic carcinoma of lung

13) All are paraneoplastic syndromes except

a) cerebellar degeneration
b) Progressive Multifocal leukoencephalopathy
c) Amyotropic lateral sclerosis
d) Opsoclonus myoclonus

14) In Burkitts lymphoma, translocation seen is

a) 12-14 translocation
b) 8-14 translocation
c) 11-14 translocation
d) 7-14 translocation

15) Ingestion of arsenic causes

a) Hepatic Ca
b) Hepatic adenoma
c) Noncirrhotic portal fibrosis
d) Hepatic cirrhosis

220 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 2

6)An HIV positive female has an indurated ulcer
over the tongue. Laboratory findings show growth
in corn meal agar at 20 Degrees, microscopy
showing hyphae and growth in human serum at 37
degrees show budding yeasts. The probable cause
is :

a)Candida albicans
b)Histoplasmosis
c)Blastomycosis
d) Coccidiodomycosis

7) Kallu, a 30 year old man, presented with
subcutaneous itchy nodules over the left iliac
crest. On examination, they are firm, non tender
and mobile .Skin snips contain microfilaria and
adult worms of

a) Loa Loa
b) Onchocerca volvulus
c) Brugia malayi
d) Mansonella perstans

8)In an ICU patient on invasive monitoring, all
are causes of bacterial sepsis except

a)Orotracheal intubation
b)Intra arterial line
c)Humidified air
d)Central venous catheter

9) In Polycythemia vera, all the following are seen
Except

a) thrombocytopenia
b) increased GI bleed
c) thrombosis
d) Transient visual loss

10) A stem cell disorder affecting all the 3 cell
lines - platelets, RBC’s and leucocytes is

a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Paroxysmal cold
haemoglobinuria
c) PNH
d) Blackfan Diamond syndrome

Saturday, April 25, 2009

219 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 1

1) A 65 year old female Kamala gives the
history of severe unilateral headache on the
right side and complains of blindness since 2
days .On examination there is a thick cord like
structure on the lateral side of the head. The
ESR is 80 mm/Hr in the first hour. The most
likely diagnosis is :

a) Temporal arteritis
b) Migraine
c) cluster headache
d) sinusitis

2) A 60 year old man complaining of chest pain
since 6 hrs is diagnosed as acute MI .
Angiography showed the involvement of
anterior descending branch of left coronary
artery The most probable site of involvement
is :

a) Anterolateral
b) Posterior
c) Inferior
d) Septal

3) Pulmonary Kerley B lines are seen in all the
following except

a) Pulmonary edema
b) Mitral valve disease
c)Interstitial fibrosis
d) Broncho-alveolar Ca

Click here for a complete article on Kerley A,B,C lines .

4) Infective endocarditis is least likely to occur in

a) ASD
b) Small VSD
c) MVP
d) TOF

5) In a patient with chronic AF with a regular beat
of 60/min, the most probable cause is

a) sleep
b) digitalis toxicity
c) Sino nodal block
d) Hypothyroidism

Sunday, April 19, 2009

218 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 28

136. Intrauterine foetal growth retardation may be associated with the following except

(a) maternal drug addiction
(b) maternal smoking
(c) foetal viral infection
(d) regular maternal aspirin intake

Exact lines taken from chapter 14 of Williams obstetrics 22nd edition : read along :
Because aspirin is a potent prostaglandin inhibitor, there is a theoretical concern that fetal exposure could lead to premature closure of the ductus arteriosus. Despite this, and with the massive number of exposures, premature closure has not been reported. DiSessa and colleagues (1994) performed echocardiography from 15 to 40 weeks in 63 fetuses exposed to 60 mg of aspirin given daily to prevent preeclampsia. They consistently found normal ductus flow velocity and cardiac output. Acetaminophen also has not been associated with an increased risk of anomalies (Pastore and colleagues, 1999; Thulstrup and associates, 1999).

137. Face to pubes delivery is possible with which cephalic presentation?

(a) Mento-anterior
(b) Mento-posterior
(c) Occipito sacral
(d) Brow presentation

138. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60 percent
(b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection
(c) Treatment of cases has no significant effect on epidemiological pattern of disease
(d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in the incidence rate of cases

139. With reference to the epidemiology of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Patient is most infectious during the first five days of illness
(b) No evidence of mother to child transmission is observed
(c) Children are rarely affected
(d). No evidence of child to child

140. Consider the following diseases:

1. Trench fever
2. Q fever
3. Weil's disease
4. Brill-Zinsser disease

Which of the above is / are caused by rickettsial infection?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

217 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 27

131q. What is the average number of fleas of each species per rodent called?

(a) General Flea Index
(b) Specific Flea Index
(c) Incidence of Flea Species
(d) Flea Infestation Rate

132. Which one of the following is not a viral haemorrhagic fever?

(a) Yellow fever
(b) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
(c) Kyasanur Forest disease
(d) Dengue fever

133. What is the method of sampling in which the units are picked up at regular intervals from the universe?

(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Systematic random sampling
(c) Stratified random sampling
(d) Snow- ball sampling

134. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List-I List-II

(State) (Retinol as vitamin)

A. Pregnancy 1. 600 mcg
B. Lactation 2. 950 mcg
C. Infant 3. 350 mcg
D. Children (1-6 years ) 4. 400 mcg

Code:
(a) A B C D
1 3 2 4

b) A B C D
4 2 3 1

(c) A B C D
4 3 2 1

d) A B C D
1 2 3 4

The values given in the question are not the exact values but in the question , (d) is the best answer to pick . The exact values about the dietary requirements of all vitamins in all kinds of individuals are given in a beautiful table in chapter 70 – table 70.1 of Harrison’s internal medicine 17th edition . please go through that table for more information .

135. Which one of the following will be affected by inter-observer variation ?

a) Sensitivity
b) Predictive value of the positive test
c) Specificity
(d) Reliability

Monday, April 6, 2009

216 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 26

126. Guidelines for handling of Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998 are laid down by

a. Ministry of Social-Welfare
b. Directorate of Medical Education and Research
c. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
d. Ministry of Environment and Forests

127. Which one of the following is not a target disease under 'Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight'?

(a) Refractive error
(b) Trachoma
(c) Corneal blindness
(d) Diabetic retinopathy

The target area diseases for VISION 2020 are :

1. cataract
2. trachoma
3. onchoceriasis
4. childhood blindness
5. refractive error
6. low vision
7. glaucoma
8. diabetic retinopathy
9. age related macular degeneration

For complete information on VISION 2020 visit this web page .

128. What is Berkesonian bias?

(a) Mis-classification bias
(b) Recall bias
(c) Selection bias
(d) Non-response bias

BERKESONIAN BIAS :
Potential problem in hospital-based studies when comparing the frequency of two conditions that require or lead to hospitalization (e.g. tuberculosis and lung cancer), due to the fact that persons with both conditions are more likely to be hospitalized than those with only one.

129. The WHO definition for blindness is the inability of counting fingers in daylight at a minimum distance of

(a) 3 feet
(b) 6 feet
(c) 3 metres
(d) 6 metres

130. Which one of the following is the category 1 of biomedical waste in India?

(a) Human anatomical waste
(b) Microbiological and biotechnological waste
(c) Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs
(d) Animal waste

CATEGORIES OF BMW

Category No. 1 Human Anatomical Waste
Category No. 2 Animal Waste
Category No. 3 Microbiology & Biotechnology Waste
Category No. 4 Waste sharps
Category No. 5 Discarded Medicines and Cytotoxic drugs
Category No. 6 Soiled Waste
Category No. 7 Solid Waste
Category No. 8 Liquid Waste
Category No. 9 Incineration Ash
Category No. 10 Chemical Waste

TREATMENT OF BMW

Category No.1 Incineration /deep burial

Category No.2 Incineration /deep burial

Category No.3 Autoclaving/microwaving/incineration

Category No.4 Disinfection(chemical treatment)/autoclaving/ microwavingandmutilation/shredding

Category No.5 Incineration/destruction/ and drugs disposal in secured landfills

Category No. 6 Incineration/autoclaving/microwaving

Category No.7 Disinfection by chemical treatment/autoclaving/ microwaving and mutilation/ shredding

Category No.8 Disinfection by chemical treatment ; discharge into drains

Category No.9 Disposal in municipal land fill

Category No.10 Chemical treatment and discharge into drains for liquids and secured landfill for solids.

215 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 25

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these statements carefully and select the correct answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

121. Assertion (A) :
When ABO and Rh incompatibilities coexist, the baby is likely to have more severe haemolytic disease.
Reason (R)
Both ABO and Rh antibodies cause haemolysis of foetal red blood cells.

122. Assertion (A) :
In category III contact with a cat or dog, both antirabies immunoglobulin and vaccine are given immediately.
Reason (R) :
It takes at least 30 days to achieve a maximum level of immunity after vaccination.

123. Assertion (A) :
As long as baby is less than six months old, a woman can rely on exclusive breast-feeding alone for contraception unless she menstruates.
Reason (R) :
Exclusive breast-feeding alone is the only safe method of contraception during six months after delivery.

124. Assertion (A) :
One of the pathological conditions of acquired coagulopathy is abruptio placentae.
Reason (R) :
In abruptio placentae, thromboplastin is liberated from the retroplacental clot and damaged decidua.

125. Assertion (A) :
Hypocalcemia is more common among babies fed with cow's milk.
Reason (R) :
Cow's milk contains less concentration of calcium than that of human milk.

Have a look at this page , which beautifully compares both breast milk and cow’s milk and their respective constituents with the values given in tables comparing each other .

Sunday, April 5, 2009

214 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 24

116. Regarding Ludwig angina consider the following statements :

1 It is characterized by cellulitis usually of odontogenic origin.
2 It involves the submandibular sublingual and submental spaces.

which of the statements given above is are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

117. in a Sutured surgical wound , the process of epithelialization is completed within .

A. 24 Hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours

It took a lot of time for me to find this answer . but finally found it in The washington manual of surgery . check out this page from the Washington manual of surgery by google books to view the answer yourself .

118. with reference to duodenal ulcers consider the following statement :

1 They occur most often in the second part of duodenum
2 infection with H pylori and NSAID induced injury account for maturity of duodenal ulcers
3. malignant duodenal users are extremely rare .
4. Eradication of H Pylori has greatly reduced the recurrence rates in duodenal ulcers .

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2,3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1,2,3 , and 4

DUs occur most often in the first portion of duodenum (greater than 95%), with roughly 90% located within 3 cm of the pylorus. H. pylori and NSAID-induced injury account for the majority of DUs. Malignant DUs are extremely rare. The greatest impact of understanding the role of H. pylori in peptic disease has been the ability to prevent recurrence. Documented eradication of H. pylori in patients with PUD is associated with a dramatic decrease in ulcer recurrence to less than 10–20% as compared to 59% in GU patients and 67% in DU patients when the organism is not eliminated.

119. A Patient present with hemoptysis copious sputum and tram lines ( abnormal air bronchogram ) pattern on the chest X –ray what is the most likely diagnosis ?

A. Lung abscess
B. Pulmonary embolism with infraction
C. Bronchiectasis
D. carcinoma of lung

120. peripheral eosinophilia is not a characteristic feature of

a. Hypersensitivity
b. Allergic aspergillosis
c. Tropical eosinophilia
d. Loeffler Syndrome

In chapter 249 of Harrison's internal medicine 17th edition, while discussing the diagnosis of hypersensitivity pneumoinitis, the author clearly mentions that eosinophilia is not a feature of hypersensitivity pneumonitis . In the same chapter read all the causes of eosinophilia which the author mentions in a table .

213 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 23

111. carcinoma of lip is characterized by the following except that

A. 90% of The lip cancers occur on the lower lip
B. the most common site of origin is the vermilion border
C. 2 CM X 2 2 CM Cell carcinomas can be treated by V shaped excision and primary closure
D. Since lymph nodded mutates are common of ten a radical dissection of neck is mandatory .

112. A 40 year old man presented with a flat 1 cm x 1 cm scaly , itchy back mole on the front of the thigh . examinations did not reveal any
inguinal lymphadenopathy . the best course of managements would be

A. FNAC of the lesion
B. Incision biopsy
C. Excisional biopsy
D. wide excision with inguinal lumphadenctomy

113. Tumors of anterior mediastinum include all of the following except

A. Thymoma
B. Lymphoma
C. Germ cell tumor
D. Schwanoma

Anterior mediastinal compartment, also known as anterosuperior compartment, is anterior to the pericardium. Masses in this area are more likely to be malignant than those in the other compartments.Most common masses found here include thymomas, germ cell tumors, lymphomas, thyroid tissue, and parathyroid lesions.

114. Extensive surgical debridement decompression of amputation may be indicated in the following clinical setting except .

A. Progressive synergistic gangrene
B. Acute Thrombophlebitis
C. acute hemolytic streptococcal cellulite
D. Acute thabdonuplysis

115. Which one of the following bacteria is classified as facultative anaerobe ?

A. Pseudomonas
B. Bactericides
C. Escherichia
D. Clostridium

click here to view a detailed information about all the facultative anaerobic organsims .

212 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 22

106q: The post exposure prophylaxis against rabies is given in a course of five doses of human diploid cell derived rabies vaccine these doses are given on

A. Days 0,1, 4, 10, and 30
B. Days 0, 3,7, 14 , and 30
C. Days 0,7, 14, ,21 and 28
D. Days 0, 4, 14, ,24 and 30

107 Haemolysis in G 6 PD ( glucose 6- phosphate dehydrogenase ) deficiencies may be induced by the following except

A. Primaquine
B. Phenacetin
C. Pronenecid
D. Penicillin

Here is a list of all the drugs causing hemolysis in Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase ( G6PD ) deficiency categorised into 3 groups based on their risk of causing hemolysis . first is the group which definitely cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency , second is the group which have probable risk and the third is the group has doubtful risk . go to that page here .

108q: In India , what is the most common cause of unilateral lymph edema of lower limb?

A . Lymphedema
B Carcinoma of penis with metastasis nodes
C Filariasis
D tubercular lymphadenopathy

109q: Etiopathpgenesis of diabetic foot include the following except .

A. Myelopathy

B. Osteoarthropathy

C. microangiopathy

D. Infection

110 . Protein metabolism after trauma is characterized by the following except

A. Increased liver gluconegenesis
B. inhibition of skeletal muscle break down by interleukin I and tumor necroses factor
C. Increased urinary nitrogen loss
D. Hepatic synthesis of acute phase reactants

211 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 21

101. Which of the following is a potent stimulus for the production of erythro-poietin ?

A. Alpha interferon
B. Interkeukin-3
C. Hypoxia
D Hypercarbia

102. Among the following one is not a good dietary source of iron ?

A . Liver
B. Jaggery
C. Fish
D. Milk

103. A man who had under gone total mastectomy remains well for five year then he develops anemia. What is the most likely cause of this anemia?

A. protein deficiency
B. Zinc deficiency
C. Folic acid deficiency
D. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

104q: Loeffler s syndrome is characterized by

A. Transient migratory pulmonary infiltration
B. Fibrosis in the pulmonary apices
C. Fibrosis in the base of one or both lungs
D. Miliary mottling

105q: The level of which on of the flowing hormones is likely to increase after hypothalamic ablation ?

A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin
C. FSH
D. ACTH

210 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 20

96. Which one of the following is not autosomal recessive?

(a) Adult polycystic kidney disease
(b) Cystic fibrosis of pancreas
(c) Homocystinuria
(d) Mucopolysaccharidosis

97. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Poison) (Antidote)

A. Benzodiazepine 1. D-Penicillamine
B. Copper sulphate 2. Flumazenil
C. Opiates 3. N-acetyl cysteine
D. Paracetamol 4. Naloxone

Code:
a. A B C D
2 4 1 3

b. A B C D
2 1 4 3

c. A B C D
3 4 1 2

d. A B C D
3 1 4 2

98q: Estimation of plasma cholinesterase levels may be helpful in the management of which one of the following poisonings ?

a. Datura
b. Barbiturate
c. Organophosphours
d. opium

99. Antinuclear antibodies are present in what presence of cases of SLE ?

a. 50 %
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. More than 90%

100. a 40 year old male patient is hospitalized with huge splenomegaly marked sternal tenderness and a total leucocyte count of 85000 per cubic millimeter and metamyelocytes which one of the following drugs is best indicated for his disease ?

a. Cyclophospyamide
b. Chlorambucil
c. Melphalan
d. Hydroxyurea

209 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 19

91. In a patient suspected to be suffering from vesicoureteric reflux, which one of the following radiological investigations may confirm the diagnosis?

(a) Intravenous urography
(b) Micturating cystourethrography
(c) Pelvic ultrasound
(d) Antegrade pyelography

92. During the treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia, cytogenetic remission is least likely to occur with which one of the following modalities of treatment?

(a) Hydroxyurea
(b) Imatinib mesylate
(c) Interferon-alpha
(d) Bone marrow transplantation.

93. Pancytopenia may occur in the following except

(a) Megaloblastic anaemia
(b) Severe iron-deficiency anaemia
(c) Hypoplastic anaemia
(d) Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglo binuria

94. A patient of rheumatic heart disease with mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation is on oral warfarin. On one OPD visit, his INR is found to be 6. What is the action to be taken?

(a) Stop warfarin, and review
(b) Stop warfarin, and administer protamine sulphate
(c) Stop warfarin, and administer fresh frozen plasma
(d) Stop warfarin, and administer intramuscular vitamin K

95. Which antipsychotic drug may cause severe agranulocytosis?

(a) Clozapine (b) Olanzapine
(c) Pimozide (d) Risperidone

208 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 18

86. What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?

(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cryptococcosis
(c) Pneumocystitis carinii
(d) Histoplasmosis

87. In chronic Hepatitis B infection, which one of the following markers is indicative of active viral replication and the corresponding risk of disease transmission?

(a) HBe antigen
(b) HBs antigen
(c) Anti-HBe
(d) Anti-HBs

88. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Type of hyperlipidemia) (Features)

A. Hyperchylomicronaemia) 1. Palmer plane xanthoma
B. Hyperbetalipoproteinemia - 2. Subcutaneous extensor tendon xanthoma
C. Typer III hyperlipoproteinemia 3. Eruptive xanthoma over buttocks
D. Familial LPL Deficiency mg% 4. Tryglyceride level above

Code:
a. A B C D
3 1 2 4

b. A B C D
3 2 1 4

c. A B C D
4 1 2 3

d. A B C D
4 2 1 3

89. Tetany may be a feature of the following except

(a) Hyperventilation
(b) Hypokalaemic alkalosis
(c) Hypoinagnesaemia
(d) Hyponatraemia

90. With reference to non-ketotic; hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar coma, consider the following statements:

1. It is common in second and third decade of life:
2. It is typically seen in Type I diabetes mellitus.
3. Blood sugar is usually above 500 mg/dl.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Previous Medical PostGraduation Entrance Papers' Mcqs with Answers