222 - AIIMS MAY 2001 mcqs with answers - part 4

16) In malignant hypertension, hyperplastic
arteriosclerosis is seen in all except


a) Peripancreatic fat
b) Kidney
c) Heart
d) Periadrenal fat

answer c . Heart

17) In a chronic smoker, a highly malignant,
aggressive and metastatic lung carcinoma is


a) Squamous cell Carcinoma
b) Small cell Carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma
d) Large cell Carcinoma

answer b . small cell carcinoma

18) All are true about Neisseria gonorrhea except


a) Gram positive cocci
b) causes stricture urethra
c) Involves seminal vesicles and spreads to epididymis
d) drug of choice is Ceftriaxone

answer a . gram positive cocci . neisseria gonorrhea is gram negative

19) A 30 year old male, Kallu, with a history of
sexual exposure comes with a painless indurated
ulcer over the penis with everted margins. The
diagnosis is


a) Syphilis
b) Chancroid
c) LGV
d) Granuloma inguinale

answer a . syphilis

20) All are features of peripheral neuritis in a
patient with Hansens Disease except


a) Predominant sensory involvement
b) Decreased tendon reflexes
c) Mutilations
d) peripheral nerve thickening

answer b . decreased tendon reflexes

194 - UPSC 2007 medical entrance mcqs with answers part 4

16. Regarding vitamin K, which one of the following statements is correct?

a. It is a water soluble vitamin
b. Its body-stores can last more than 8 years
c. Its routine prophylaxis in newborn children is recommended to prevent early haemorrhagic disease
d. It is the treatment of choice in patients with acute severe haemoptysis

answer will post soon

17. Which one of the following is the most appropriate clinical tests to confirm the iron-deficiency anaemia?

a. Red blood cell indices
b. Serum ferritin level
c. Bone-marrow examination
d. Urinary iron clearance

answer b . serum ferritin level

18. A two day old child presents with persistent diarrhoea, acidic stools and presence of one percent of reducing substance in the fresh stools. What is the most probable diagnosis?

a. Cystic fibrosis
b. Lactose intolerance
c. Rotavirus induced diarrhoea
d. Intestinal tuberculosis

answer b . lactose intolerance

19. With reference to leprosy, consider the following statements:

1. In lepromatous leprosy, lepromin , test is always positive.
2. Polyclonal hypogammaglobinemia is a common feature of lepromatous leprosy.
3. Secondary amyloidosis may occur in long-standing lepromatous leprosy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

answer will post soon

20. With reference to Polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis" consider the following statements:

1. It is more common in girls.
2. Five or more joints are affected within the first six months of onset.
3, Uveitis occurs in 95% patients.
4. Rheumatoid factor may be negative.,

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c} 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only

answer will post soon

113 - AIIMS community medicine mcqs or social and preventive medicine mcqs ( spm or psm ) from all previous years AIIMS papers with answers - part 7

31q: true about simple random sampling is ?

a. all persons have equal right to be selected
b. only selected persons have right to be selected
c. technique provides least number of possible samples
d. every fixed unit is taken for sampling

 answer a. all persons have equal right to be selected

32q: which of the following is false about leprosy eradication programme ?

a. early detection of cases
b. disability limitation
c. long term multidrug therapy
d. health education

 answer  c . in leprosy eradication programme the multidrug therapy is short term and not long term . 

33q: true about meningococcal infection is all except ?

a. contacts are treated with rifampicin
b. vaccine is not given for children less than 2 years of age
c. occurs in hot and dry climate
d. cases are important in the transmission of the disease

 answer  d. clinical cases are negligible source of infection inmeningococcal infections but the carriers are the main source of infection .

34q: vitamin D is absent in ?

a. egg
b. milk
c. fish fat
d. cod liver oil

 answer none of the above. Present in all .

35q : extra calories given in lactation ?

 answer  550 Kcal 

42 - bhatia and speed grand test mcqs part 3

21q: earliest symptom of acoustic neuroma is ?

1. deafness
2. tinnitus
3. vertigo
4. facial weakness

answer : a . deafness .

22q: ocular albinism is inherited as

Answer : X linked recessive .

23q: satellite lesions are seen in the follwing type of leprosy ?

1. tuberculoid leprosy
2. lepromatous leprosy
3. borderline tuberculoid leprosy
4. histoid leprosy

answer : c . borderline tuberculoid leprosy .

24q: the patient 25 years old suffered head injury , he developed double vision on looking down . the probable cranial nerve involved is ?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 6
4. 7

Answer : fourth cranial nerve .

25q: inversion and eversion take place at which joint ?

1. talo calcanael joint
2. talo calcaneo cuneiform
3. calcaneo cuboid
4. mid tarsal joint

answer : a . talo calcaneal joint .

26q: in India rigor mortis begins at ?

1. 1 – 2 hours after death
2. 3 – 6 hours after death
3. 12 – 24 hours after death
4. 16 – 18 hours after death

Answer : a .

27q: the only test to identify both choline and spermine in seminal stain is ?

1. barberio test
2. Florence test
3. Thin layer chromatography
4. Acid phosphatase test

Answer : c . thin layer chromatography .

28q: drug of choice for elimination of nasal carriage of both methicillin resistant and methicillin susceptible staphylococcus aureus is ?

Answer : mupirocin .

29q: the most common histological finding in DUB is ?

1. normal endometrium
2. hyperplastic endometrium
3. irregular ripening
4. irregular shedding

answer : a . normal endometrium .

30q: the conization is reserved for patients with ?

1. CIN 1
2. CIN 2
3. CIN 3
4. Dysplasia

Answer : c . CIN 3 .