75 - AIPGE complete paper - paper 6

51q: a 4 year old boy present with recurrent chest infections. Sweat chloride test was done and showed the values of 36 and 42 . what is the next best investigation to confirm the diagnosis ?

 

1. 72 hour fecal estimation
2. CT chest
3. Transepithelial nasal potential difference
4. DNA analysis of delta f 508 mutation

 

Answer: c . transepithelial nasal potential difference .

 

52q: non invasive diarrhea is associated with all except ?

 

1. salmonella
2. shigella
3. yersinia enterocolitica
4. bacillus cereus

 

answer: d . bacillus cereus .

 

53q: maltese cross flouresence may be seen in ?

 

1. Cryptococcus
2. Pencillium
3. Blastomycosis
4. Candida

 

Answer: a . Cryptococcus .

 

54q. the triad of tuberous sclerosis has all except ?

 

1. facial angiomatosis
2. seizures
3. mental retardation
4. rhabdomyosarcoma

 

answer: d . rhabdomyosarcoma .

 

55q: all are analytical studies except ?

 

1. field trials
2. case control
3. cohort
4. ecological

 

answer: a. field trials .

 

56q: a 29 year old was taking oral hypoglycemic drugs and he never had ketonuria in his life . his grandfather had diabetes and his father who is the only of his grandfather did not have the disease. The type of diabetis mellitus this person can never have is ?

 

1. type one diabetes mellitus
2. type two diabetes mellitus
3. MODY
4. Pancreatic diabetes mellitus

 

Answer: a . type one diabetes mellitus .

 

57q: a 24 year old male presenting with abdominal pain, rashes, palpable purpura, arthritis . what is the most probable diagnosis ?

 

1. sweet syndrome
2. meningococcemia
3. HSP
4. Hemochromatosis

 

Answer: c . HSP .

 

58q: all are used in the treatment of osteosarcoma except ?

 

1. high dose methotrexate
2. cyclophosphamide
3. cisplatin
4. etoposide

 

answer: d . etoposide .

 

59q: CAP in lac operon is an example of ?

 

1. positive regulator
2. negative regulator
3. constitutive expression
4. attenuation

 

answer: a . positive regulator .

 

60q: which of the following is seen in extrinsic pathway ?

 

1. factor 12
2. factor 11
3. factor 2
4. factor 7

 

answer: d . factor 7 .

74 - AIPGE 2009 complete paper - part 5

41q: what is the function of sertoli cells ?

 

1. testosterone secretion
2. progesterone secretion
3. aid in spermatogenesis
4. seminal fluid secretion

 

answer: c . aid in spermatogenesis .

 

42q: organelle that plays a pivotal role in apoptosis ?

 

1. cytoplasm
2. mitochondria
3. golgi complex
4. nucleus

 

answer: b . mitochondria .

 

43q: scarring alopecia is caused by ?

 

1. lichen planus
2. alopecia areata
3. androgenic
4. tinea capitis

 

answer: a . lichen planus .

 

44q: anatomical snuff box contains ?

 

1. radial artery
2. ulnar artery
3. brachial artery
4. interosseus artery

 

answer: a . radial artery .

 

45q: a good paravertebral block given by an anaesthetist can go to all except ?

 

1. epidural space
2. subarachnoid space
3. paravertebral space
4. intercostal space

 

answer: b . subarachnoid space .

 

46q: IMCI includes all except ?

 

1. TB
2. Malaria
3. Respiratory infections
4. Diarrhea

 

Answer: a . TB .

 

47q: maximum transmission of HIV occurs through ?

 

1. blood transfusion
2. homosexual
3. heterosexual
4. needle prick

 

answer: a . blood transfusion .

 

48q: HIV enters via ?

 

1. CD 4
2. CD 5
3. CD 6
4. CD 56

 

Answer: a . CD 4 .

 

49q: trotter’s triad includes all except ?

 

1. deafness
2. palatal palsy
3. trigeminal neuralgia
4. seizures

 

answer: d . seizures .

 

50q: C wave in JVP is due to ?

 

1. atrial contraction
2. right atrial filling
3. rapid ventricular filling
4. tricuspid valve bulging into right atrium

 

answer: d . tricuspid valve bulging into right atrium .

73 - AIPGE 2009 complete paper - part 4

31q: which of the following pair is incorrect ?

 

1. selenium deficiency causes cardiomyopathy
2. zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis
3. increased calcium causes iron deficiency
4. vitamin A deficiency occurs after 6 months to 1 year of low vitamin A diet

 

answer: b . zinc deficiency causes pulmonary fibrosis .

 

32q: when the variables follow standard distribution ?

 

1. mean = median
2. median = variance
3. mean = 2 median
4. standard deviation = 2 variance

 

answer: a . mean = median .

 

33q: mode of transmission of Q fever ?

 

1. ticks
2. mites
3. aerosols
4. mosquito

 

answer: c . aerosols .

 

34q: in obstructive azospermia

 

1. FSH and LH both increased
2. FSH and LH both decreased
3. FSH and LH both normal
4. FSH decrease but LH increased

 

Answer: c . both normal .

 

35q: all are contents in deep perineal pouch except ?

 

1. deep transverse perineal muscles
2. sphincter urethrae
3. root of penis
4. dorsal nerve of penis

 

answer: c . root of the penis .

 

36q: vitamin A prophylaxis is ?

 

1. primary prevention
2. secondary prevention
3. tertiary prevention
4. specific protection

 

answer: d . specific protection .

 

37q:  finnish type nephrotic syndrome is due to ?

 

1. nephrin gene
2. alpha actinin
3. TRP 6
4. Podocin

 

Answer: a . nephrin gene .

 

38q: which nerve escapes entrapment ?

 

1. femoral
2. radial
3. ulnar
4. deep peroneal nerve

 

answer: a . femoral nerve .

 

39q: which is not a primary amenorrhea ?

 

1. kallman syndrome
2. sheehan’s syndrome
3. turner syndrome
4. mayer rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome

 

answer: b . sheehan’s syndrome .

 

40q: contraceptive of choice in lactating female ?

 

1. POP
2. OCPs
3. Lactational amenorrhea
4. Barrier

 

Answer: d . barrier .

72 - AIPGE 2009 complete paper - part 3

21q: which is the latest guideline used in calculating disability ?

 

1. absentism from job
2. economic productivity
3. fever
4. loss of sleep

 

answer: a . absentism from the job .

 

22q: which of the following is best for diagnosing posterior longitudinal ligament calcification ?

 

1. MRI
2. CT
3. X-RAY
4. USG

 

Answer: b . CT .

 

23q: which is expressed by GIST ?

 

1. CD 117
2. CD 34
3. CD 45
4. S 100

 

Answer: a . CD 117 .

 

24q: concomitant chemoradiotherapy given in all except ?

 

1. carcinoma anal canal
2. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
3. stage 3 carcinoma cervix
4. T2N0M0 glottic carcinoma

 

Answer: d . T2N0M0 glottic carcinoma .

 

25q: the drug used in the treatment of osteoporosis which increases bone deposition and also decreases bone resorption ?

 

1. calcitonin
2. ibandronate
3. teriparatide
4. strontium ranelate

 

answer: d . strontium ranelate .

 

26q: hand foot syndrome is caused by ?

 

1. mitomycin
2. cisplatin
3. cytarabine
4. capecitabine

 

answer: d . capecitabine .

 

27q: incidence can be measured by ?

 

1. case control study
2. cross sectional study
3. prospective study
4. retrospective study

 

answer: c . prospective study .

 

28q: what is the weight of the Indian reference man ?

 

1. 55 kg
2. 60 kg
3. 65 kg
4. 70 kg

 

Answer: b . 60 kg .

 

29q: endemic relapsing fever is caused by all except ?

 

1. B. recurrentis
2. B. hermsi
3. B. dutonii
4. B. parkeri

 

Answer : a . B.recurrentis .

 

30q: USG shows thickened gall bladder and comet tail artifact . what is the diagnosis ?

 

1. xanthogranulomatosis cholecystitis
2. adenomatous polyp
3. adenomyomatosis
4. gall bladder carcinoma

 

answer: c . adenomyomatosis .

71 - AIPGE 2009 complete paper - part 2

11q: composite muscles are all except ?

 

1. flexor digitorum superficialis
2. flexor carpi ulnaris
3. pectineus
4. biceps femoris

 

answer: b . flexor carpi ulnaris probably .

 

12q: stellate wound is produced by ?

 

1. contact wound
2. from close range
3. 2 meters range
4. Long range

 

Answer: a . contact wound .

 

13q: drug which can be used in any degree of renal failure ?

 

1. cefepime
2. cefoperazone
3. cephaloridine
4. cefuroxime

 

answer: b . cefoperazone .

 

14q: stenosis of subclavian artery is common in which part ?

 

1. first part
2. second part
3. third part
4. equal in all parts

 

answer: a . first part .

 

15q: ifosfamide belongs to which class ?

 

1. alkylating agents
2. anticancer antibiotics
3. folate antagonists
4. antimetabolite

 

answer: a . alkylating agent .

 

16q: hirsutism is present in all except ?

 

1. hyperthyroidism
2. acromegaly
3. cushing syndrome
4. hyperprolactinemia

 

answer: a . hyperthyroidism .

 

17q: which of the following is not a branch of the splenic artery ?

 

1. pancreatica magna
2. right gastroepiploic artery
3. short gastric arteries
4. hilar vessels

 

answer: b . left gastroepiploic artery is a branch of the splenic arterty and not the right one .

 

18q: sleep is controlled by which centre ?

 

1. thalamus
2. hypothalamus
3. limbic cortex
4. putamen

 

answer: b . hypothalamus .

 

19q: myodesis is contraindicated in ?

 

1. children
2. tumor
3. ischemia
4. paralysis

 

answer: c. ischemia .

 

20q: smoking is not associated with which carcinoma ?

 

1. esophagus
2. bladder
3. larynx
4. nasopharynx

 

answer: d . nasopharynx .

70 - AIPGE 2009 complete paper - part 1

1q: psammoma bodies are seen in all except ?

 

1. follicular carcinoma of thyroid
2. meningioma
3. serous cystadenoma
4. RCC

 

Answer: a . follicular carcinoma of thyroid .

 

2q: all are traumatic asphyxia except ?

 

1. railway accident
2. road traffic accident
3. accidental strangulation
4. stampede in crowd

 

answer: c . accidental strangulation .

 

3q: the vaccine having highest efficacy ?

 

1. measles
2. tetanus
3. BCG
4. Pertussis

 

Answer: b . tetanus .

 

4q: vaginal delivery is allowed in all except ?

 

1. monochorionic monoamniotic twins
2. first twin cephalic and second breech
3. extended breech
4. mentoanterior

 

answer: a. monochorionic monoamniotic twins .

 

5q: creamy and fishy odour vaginal discharge is seen in ?

 

1. Chlamydia trachomatis
2. Gardenerella vaginalis
3. Trichomonas
4. Candida

 

Answer: b . gardenerella vaginalis .

 

6q: superior gluteal nerve supplies all except ?

 

1. gluteus maximus
2. gluteus medius
3. gluteus minimus
4. tensor fascia lata

 

answer: a . gluteus maximus .

 

7q: in a person with subclinical folate deficiency , all of the following will precipitate folate deficiency except ?

 

1. alcohol
2. chloroquine
3. phenytoin
4. sulfasalazine

 

answer: b . chloroquine .

 

8q: marker for dysgerminoma ?

 

1. beta HCG
2. AFP
3. Ca-19-9
4. LDH

 

Answer: d . LDH .

 

9q: neural tube closure starts from ?

 

1. cervical
2. thoracic
3. lumbar
4. cranial

 

answer: cervical .

 

10q: chemoprophylaxis is not used in ?

 

1. cholera
2. typhoid
3. meningococcal meningitis
4. plague

 

answer: b . typhoid .

69 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 20

191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except: 
1. Unregulated firing of individual muscle fibres 
2. Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials 
3. Presence of positive sharp waves 
4. Sopontaneous firing of motor units 

Ans. -2 

192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? 
1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning 
2. Complete remission is common 
3. Response to anticonvulsants poor 
4. Associated absence seizures are present in majority of patients 

Ans. -1 

193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss: 
1. Gabapentin 
2. Oxcarbazepine 
3. Topiramate 
4. Valproic acid 

Ans. -3 

194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where the examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes with ST-T. Serum potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. The most likely ingested position is: 
1. Barium carbonate 
2. Superwarfarins 
3. Zinc phosphide 
4. Aluminium phosphide 

Ans. -1 

195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is: 
1. S1Q3T3 pattern 
2. P pulmonale 
3. Sinus tachycardia 
4. Right axis deviation 

Ans. -4 

196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. The best optionof treatment is : 
1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine 
2. A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling 
3. A non-myeloablative bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling. 
4. Cyclosporine 

Ans. -2 

197. An 18 years old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnisis is : 
1. Poliomyelitis 
2. Botulism 
3. Diphtheria 
4. Porphyria 

Ans. -2 

198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except : 
1. Hypokalemia 
2. Hypocalcemia 
3. Hyponatremia 
4. Hypophosphatemia 

Ans. -3 

199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following : 
1. Hepatic encephalopathy 
2. Uremic encephalopathy 
3. Hypoxic encephalopathy 
4. Hypercarbic encephalopathy 

Ans. -1 

200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergence department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematocheza. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea clot lysis test was positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient? 
1. Factor X. 
2. Factor XI. 
3. Factor XII. 
4. Factor XIII. 

Ans. -4

68 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 19

181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that: 
1. Man is the only reservoir of infection 
2. Flea is a vector of the disease 
3. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation 
4. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality 

Ans. -2 

-haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:a182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of  
1. Bacitracin 
2. Novobiocin 
3. Optochin 
4. Oxacillin 

Ans. -4 

183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikachin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is: 
1. Staphylococcus aurenus 
2. Viridans streptococci 
3. Enterococcus faecalis 
4. Coagulase negative Staphlococcus 

Ans. 3? 
184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of : 
1. 10:1 
2. 100:1 
3. 1000:1 
4. 10,000:1 

Ans. 3? 
185. With reference to Bacteroides fragills the following statements are true, except: 
1. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples 
2. B. fragills is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole 
3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin 
4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides 
bacteremia 

Ans. -* 

186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except: 
1. It is a zoonosis 
2. Man is the dead end host 
3. Man is an accidental host 
4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection 

Ans. ? 
187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is: 
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 
2. Salmonella typhi 
3. Brucella sp. 
4. Salmonella paratyphi A. 

Ans. 1 
188. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective does of S. typhi is: 
1. One bacillus 
2. 108 – 1010 bacilli 
3. 102 - 105 bacilli 
4. 1 – 10 bacilli 

Ans. 4? 
189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is : 
1. Carrier status in animals 
2. Carrier status in man 
3. An environmental reservoir 
4. Continuous transmission in man 

Ans. -* 

190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis of the natural disease: 
1. Escherichia coli 
2. Klebsiella sp. 
3. Vibrio cholerae 
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 

Ans. -* 

67 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 18

171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following: 
1. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion. 
2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion 
3. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion 
4. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion. 

Ans. -2 

172. In which of the following condition acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen? 
1. Fissure in-ano 
2. Complete absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells 
3. Absence of sympathetic ganglion cells 
4. Rectal malignancy 

Ans. -1 

173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid: 
1. Can be reliably diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology. 
2. Always unifocal 
3. Typically spreads to the cervical lymph nodes 
4. Requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumours. 

Ans. -2 

174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland? 
1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid. 
2. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland 
3. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct 
4. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the 

Ans. -1 

175. Which of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder? 
1. Pigment stones are due to increased excretion of conjugated Bilirubin 
2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma 
3. 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque 
4. A mucocele of the gallbladder is caused by a stone impacted in Hartmann’s pouch 

Ans. -1 

176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum? 
1. Is found on the anti-mesenteric border of the small intestine 
2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat 
3. Heterotopic gastric mucosa can ulcerate and cause a brisk gastrointestinal bleed 
4. A fibrous band between the apex and umbilicus can cause intestinal obstruction 

Ans. -2 

177. The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm: 
1. Crystalline lens 
2. Sclera 
3. Corneal epithelium 
4. Epithelium of lacrimal glands 

Ans. -2 

178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend for her? 
1. Needle biopsy 
2. Trucut biopsy 
3. Excision biopsy 
4. Incisional biopsy 

Ans. -3 

179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarintherapy for duration of three years. Recently, she has developed bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin? 
1. Protamine injection 
2. Vit K injection 
3. Infusion of fibrinogen 
4. Whole blood transfusion 

Ans. -* 

180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome, except: 
1. Basal acid output of 15 meq/hour 
2. Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml 
3. Ulcers in proximal jejunum and lower end of esophagus 
4. Serum gastrin value of 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation 

Ans. -2