69 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 20

191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except: 
1. Unregulated firing of individual muscle fibres 
2. Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials 
3. Presence of positive sharp waves 
4. Sopontaneous firing of motor units 

Ans. -2 

192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy? 
1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning 
2. Complete remission is common 
3. Response to anticonvulsants poor 
4. Associated absence seizures are present in majority of patients 

Ans. -1 

193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss: 
1. Gabapentin 
2. Oxcarbazepine 
3. Topiramate 
4. Valproic acid 

Ans. -3 

194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where the examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes with ST-T. Serum potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. The most likely ingested position is: 
1. Barium carbonate 
2. Superwarfarins 
3. Zinc phosphide 
4. Aluminium phosphide 

Ans. -1 

195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is: 
1. S1Q3T3 pattern 
2. P pulmonale 
3. Sinus tachycardia 
4. Right axis deviation 

Ans. -4 

196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. The best optionof treatment is : 
1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine 
2. A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling 
3. A non-myeloablative bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling. 
4. Cyclosporine 

Ans. -2 

197. An 18 years old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnisis is : 
1. Poliomyelitis 
2. Botulism 
3. Diphtheria 
4. Porphyria 

Ans. -2 

198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except : 
1. Hypokalemia 
2. Hypocalcemia 
3. Hyponatremia 
4. Hypophosphatemia 

Ans. -3 

199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following : 
1. Hepatic encephalopathy 
2. Uremic encephalopathy 
3. Hypoxic encephalopathy 
4. Hypercarbic encephalopathy 

Ans. -1 

200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergence department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematocheza. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea clot lysis test was positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient? 
1. Factor X. 
2. Factor XI. 
3. Factor XII. 
4. Factor XIII. 

Ans. -4

63 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 14

131. A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and platelets is highly suggestive of: 
1. Acute myeloid leukemia 
2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 
3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia 
4. Myelodysplastic syndrome 

Ans. -2 

132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 × 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of platelets. WBC count of 12 × 109/L, hemoglobin of 11g/dl and the absence of the Philadelphia chromosome. The most likely diagnosis would be : 
1. Polycythemia vera 
2. Essential thrombocythemia 
3. Chronic myeloid leukemia 
4. Leukemoid reaction. 

Ans. -2 

133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic fracture of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from fracture site is most likely to show which of the following? 
1. Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia 
2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells. 
3. Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma 
4. Malignant cells forming osteoid bone 

Ans. -2 

134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm? 
1. Hairy cell leukemia. 
2. Angiocentric lymphoma 
3. Mantle cell lymphoma 
4. Burkitt’s lymphoma 

Ans. -1 

135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors? 
1. Midullary carcinoma Thyroid. 
2. Astrocytoma 
3. Paraganglionoma 
4. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid 

Ans. -1 

136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following: 
1. Adenocarcinoma 
2. Squamous cell carcinoma 
3. Sarcoma 
4. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor 

Ans. -* 

137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following except: 
1. Cimetidine 
2. Phytonadione 
3. Amiodarone 
4. Phenylbutazone 

Ans. -4 

138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems? 
1. Sevoflurane 
2. Enflurance 
3. Isoflurane 
4. Halothane. 

Ans. -2 

139. The following anesthetic drug cause pain on intravenous administration : 
1. Midazolam 
2. Propofol 
3. Ketamine 
4. Thiopentone sodium 

Ans. -4 

140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure? 
1. Thiopentone 
2. Propofol 
3. Midazolam 
4. Ketamine 

Ans. -4

62 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 13

121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 moth history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no local swelling; tenderness was present on deep pressure. Plain X-rays showed an ill-defined intra medullary lesion with blotchy calcification at the lower end of the right femoral diaphysis, possibly enchondroma or chondrosarcoma. Sections showed a cartilaginous tumour. Which of the following histological features (if seen) would be helpful to differentiate the two tumours? 
1. Focal necrosis and lobulation 
2. Tumour permeationbetween bone trabeculae at periphery. 
3. Extensive myxoid change 
4. High cellularity 

Ans. -2 

122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the follwing except: 
1. Aneurysmal bone cyst 
2. Fibrosarcoma 
3. Osteosarcoma 
4. Hyperparathyroidism 

Ans. -* 

123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false? 
1. 94% of cases are sporadic 
2. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings. 
3. Calcificatinin thetumor can be detected on ultrasound scan 
4. Presence of extraocular extension 

Ans. -* 

124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma? 
1. Presence of retinal detachment 
2. Size of the tumor 
3. Cytology of the tumor cells 
4. Presence of extraocular extension 

Ans. -3 

125. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful ina case of beta thalassemia trait? 
1. Hb-F 
2. Hb-A1C 
3. Hb-A2 
4. Hb-H 

Ans. -4 

126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except: 
1. Fetal blood 
2. Amniotic fluid 
3. Chorionic villi. 
4. Maternal urine. 

Ans. -2 

127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false? 
1. Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer 
2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans 
3. Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder. 
4. Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma 

Ans. -3 

128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes? 
1. Marfan’s syndrome 
2. Testicular feminization syndrome 
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome 
4. Down’s syndrome 

Ans. -4 

129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true? 
1. A single classification system for Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is almost universally accepted 
2. HD more often tends to remain localized to a single group of lymph nodes and spreads by contiguity 
3. Several types of non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) may have a leukemic phase. 
4. In general, follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL. 

Ans. -3 

130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease? 
1. Organic dusts 
2. Inorganic dusts 
3. Toxic gases e.g. chlorine, sulphur dioxide 
4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke 

Ans. -3 

61 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 12

 111. All of the following are true of  beta thalassemia major except
1. Splenomegaly 
2. Target cells on peripheral smear 
3. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
4. Increased osmotic fragility 

Ans. -4 

112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evalution (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family? 
1. Non penetrance 
2. Uniparental diasomy 
3. Genomic imprinting 
4. Germline mosaicism 

Ans. -4 

113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in 
1. Gilbert’s syndrome 
2. Criggler Najjar syndrome 
3. Brest milk jaundice 
4. Dubin Johnson syndrome 

Ans. -2 

114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate? 
1. Urine culture of CMV 
2. IgG CMV antibodies in hepatocytes 
3. Intra-nuclear inclusionbodies in hepatocytes 
4. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction 

Ans. -4 

115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is: 
1. Increasing transaminases 
2. Increasing Bilirubin 
3. Increasing prothrombin time 
4. Gram negative sepsis 

Ans. -3 

116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease? 
1. Anit-endomysial antibody 
2. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody 
3. Anti-gliadin antibody 
4. Anti-reticulin antibody 

Ans. -4 

117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen revealed presence of arterial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate in the arterial wall. The inflammation also extended into the neighboring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is: 
1. Takayasu arteritis. 
2. Giant cell arteritis 
3. Hypersensitivity angiitis 
4. Thromboangitis obliterans 

Ans. -1 

118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extra cellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of : 
1. on branching filaments of indefinitive length 
2. Cross banded fibres with 67 nm periodicity. 
3. Weber Palade bodies. 
4. Concentric whorls of lamellar structures 

Ans. -3 

119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the mtumour cell for cytokeratin. The most probable diagnosis of the tumour is: 
1. Sarcoma. 
2. Lymphoma. 
3. Carcinoma 
4. Malignant Melanoma 

Ans. -3 

120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in 30 year old female show a tumour composed of diffuse sheets of small cells with doubtful nuclear grooving and scanty cytoplasm. No Call-Exner bodies are seen. The ideal immunohistochemistry panel would include: 
1. Vementin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99 
2. Desmin, S- 100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin 
3. Chromogranin, CD 45, CD 99, CD 20 
4. CD 3, chromagranin, Cd 45, synaptophysin 

Ans. -1 

59 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 10

1. 91. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation? 
   1. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization. 
   2. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP. 
   3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position. 
   4. Providing calipers for walking. 
   
   Ans. -4 
   
   92. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles? 
   1. Diarrhoea. 
   2. Pneumonia. 
   3. Otitis media. 
   4. SSPE. 
   
   Ans. -3 
   
   93. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except: 
   1. Contact with infected placenta. 
   2. Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms. 
   3. Person to person transmission. 
   4. Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol. 
   
   Ans. -2 
   
   94. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true? 
   1. It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life. 
   2. It is a diagnostic test. 
   3. It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease. 
   4. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive. 
   
   Ans. -2 
   
   95. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water> 
   1. Chlorometer. 
   2. Horrock’s apparatus. 
   3. Berkefeld filter. 
   4. Double pot method. 
   
   Ans. -2 
   
   96. Lice are not the vectors of: 
   1. Relapsing fever. 
   2. Q fever. 
   3. Trench fever. 
   4. Epidemic typhus. 
   
   Ans. -1 
   
   97. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know: 
   1. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test. 
   2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test. 
   3. Incidence and prevalence of SLE. 
   4. Relative risk of SLE in this patient. 
   
   Ans. -4 
   
   98. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except: 
   1. Acute inflammatory demyclinating polyradiculoneuropathy.. 
   2. Porphyric neuropathy. 
   3. Lead intoxication. 
   4. Arsenic intoxication. 
   
   Ans. -3 
   
   99. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between tow countries. This is done because of the differences in: 
   1. Causes of death 
   2. Numerators. 
   3. Age of distributions. 
   4. Denominators. 
   
   Ans. -* 
   
   100. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in: 
   1. Keratoconjunctivits sicca. 
   2. Lacrimal gland removal. 
   3. Canalicular block. 
   4. Herpetic keratitis. 
   
   Ans. -4