191. On electromyography, all of the following features suggest denervation, except:
1. Unregulated firing of individual muscle fibres
2. Small short-duration polyphasic action potentials
3. Presence of positive sharp waves
4. Sopontaneous firing of motor units
Ans. -2
192. Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?
1. Myoclonic seizures frequently occur in morning
2. Complete remission is common
3. Response to anticonvulsants poor
4. Associated absence seizures are present in majority of patients
Ans. -1
193. Prolonged use of one of the following anti convulsant can produce weight loss:
1. Gabapentin
2. Oxcarbazepine
3. Topiramate
4. Valproic acid
Ans. -3
194. A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where the examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes with ST-T. Serum potassium is 2.5 mEq/L. The most likely ingested position is:
1. Barium carbonate
2. Superwarfarins
3. Zinc phosphide
4. Aluminium phosphide
Ans. -1
195. In acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is:
1. S1Q3T3 pattern
2. P pulmonale
3. Sinus tachycardia
4. Right axis deviation
Ans. -4
196. A patient aged 65 years, is diagnosed to have severe aplastic anemia. HLA compatible sibling is available. The best optionof treatment is :
1. Anti-thymocyte globulin followed by cyclosporine
2. A conventional bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling
3. A non-myeloablative bone marrow transplantation from the HLA identical sibling.
4. Cyclosporine
Ans. -2
197. An 18 years old male presented with acute onset descending paralysis of 3 days duration. There is also a history of blurring of vision for the same duration. On examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive. The most probable diagnisis is :
1. Poliomyelitis
2. Botulism
3. Diphtheria
4. Porphyria
Ans. -2
198. Episodic generalized weakness can occur due to all of the following acute electrolyte disturbances, except :
1. Hypokalemia
2. Hypocalcemia
3. Hyponatremia
4. Hypophosphatemia
Ans. -3
199. A symmetric high-voltage, triphasic slow wave pattern is seen on EEG in the following :
1. Hepatic encephalopathy
2. Uremic encephalopathy
3. Hypoxic encephalopathy
4. Hypercarbic encephalopathy
Ans. -1
200. A 15 year old female presented to the emergence department with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematocheza. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at birth. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea clot lysis test was positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient?
1. Factor X.
2. Factor XI.
3. Factor XII.
4. Factor XIII.
Ans. -4
Showing posts with label aiims past papers. Show all posts
Showing posts with label aiims past papers. Show all posts
Thursday, January 15, 2009
69 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 20
68 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 19
181. It is true regarding Endemic typhus that:
1. Man is the only reservoir of infection
2. Flea is a vector of the disease
3. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation
4. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality
Ans. -2
-haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:a182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of
1. Bacitracin
2. Novobiocin
3. Optochin
4. Oxacillin
Ans. -4
183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikachin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is:
1. Staphylococcus aurenus
2. Viridans streptococci
3. Enterococcus faecalis
4. Coagulase negative Staphlococcus
Ans. 3?
184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of :
1. 10:1
2. 100:1
3. 1000:1
4. 10,000:1
Ans. 3?
185. With reference to Bacteroides fragills the following statements are true, except:
1. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
2. B. fragills is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides
bacteremia
Ans. -*
186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
1. It is a zoonosis
2. Man is the dead end host
3. Man is an accidental host
4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection
Ans. ?
187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Brucella sp.
4. Salmonella paratyphi A.
Ans. 1
188. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective does of S. typhi is:
1. One bacillus
2. 108 – 1010 bacilli
3. 102 - 105 bacilli
4. 1 – 10 bacilli
Ans. 4?
189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is :
1. Carrier status in animals
2. Carrier status in man
3. An environmental reservoir
4. Continuous transmission in man
Ans. -*
190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis of the natural disease:
1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella sp.
3. Vibrio cholerae
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans. -*
1. Man is the only reservoir of infection
2. Flea is a vector of the disease
3. The rash developing into eschar is a characteristic presentation
4. Culture of the etiological agent in tissue culture is diagnostic modality
Ans. -2
-haemolytic colonies. On Gram staining these were gram positive cocci. In the screening test for identification, the suspected pathogen is likely to be susceptible to the following agent:a182. An infant had high grade fever and respiratory distress at the time of presentation to the emergency room. The sample collected for blood culture was subsequently positive showing growth of
1. Bacitracin
2. Novobiocin
3. Optochin
4. Oxacillin
Ans. -4
183. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikachin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is:
1. Staphylococcus aurenus
2. Viridans streptococci
3. Enterococcus faecalis
4. Coagulase negative Staphlococcus
Ans. 3?
184. In the gut, anaerobic bacteria outnumber the aerobes by a ratio of :
1. 10:1
2. 100:1
3. 1000:1
4. 10,000:1
Ans. 3?
185. With reference to Bacteroides fragills the following statements are true, except:
1. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
2. B. fragills is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
3. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
4. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides
bacteremia
Ans. -*
186. The following statements are true regarding leptospirosis, except:
1. It is a zoonosis
2. Man is the dead end host
3. Man is an accidental host
4. Lice act as reservoirs of infection
Ans. ?
187. The single most common cause of pyrexia of unknown origin is:
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Salmonella typhi
3. Brucella sp.
4. Salmonella paratyphi A.
Ans. 1
188. Salmonella typhi is the causative agent of typhoid fever. The infective does of S. typhi is:
1. One bacillus
2. 108 – 1010 bacilli
3. 102 - 105 bacilli
4. 1 – 10 bacilli
Ans. 4?
189. The mechanisms by which cholera might be maintained during the intervals between peak cholera seasons is :
1. Carrier status in animals
2. Carrier status in man
3. An environmental reservoir
4. Continuous transmission in man
Ans. -*
190. The endotoxin of the following gram-negative bacteria does not play any part in the pathogenesis of the natural disease:
1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella sp.
3. Vibrio cholerae
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans. -*
67 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 18
171. “Intestinal angina” is a symptom complex of the following:
1. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.
2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
3. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
4. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.
Ans. -2
172. In which of the following condition acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
1. Fissure in-ano
2. Complete absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells
3. Absence of sympathetic ganglion cells
4. Rectal malignancy
Ans. -1
173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
1. Can be reliably diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology.
2. Always unifocal
3. Typically spreads to the cervical lymph nodes
4. Requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumours.
Ans. -2
174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.
2. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland
3. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct
4. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the
Ans. -1
175. Which of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
1. Pigment stones are due to increased excretion of conjugated Bilirubin
2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma
3. 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque
4. A mucocele of the gallbladder is caused by a stone impacted in Hartmann’s pouch
Ans. -1
176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
1. Is found on the anti-mesenteric border of the small intestine
2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat
3. Heterotopic gastric mucosa can ulcerate and cause a brisk gastrointestinal bleed
4. A fibrous band between the apex and umbilicus can cause intestinal obstruction
Ans. -2
177. The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm:
1. Crystalline lens
2. Sclera
3. Corneal epithelium
4. Epithelium of lacrimal glands
Ans. -2
178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend for her?
1. Needle biopsy
2. Trucut biopsy
3. Excision biopsy
4. Incisional biopsy
Ans. -3
179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarintherapy for duration of three years. Recently, she has developed bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin?
1. Protamine injection
2. Vit K injection
3. Infusion of fibrinogen
4. Whole blood transfusion
Ans. -*
180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome, except:
1. Basal acid output of 15 meq/hour
2. Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml
3. Ulcers in proximal jejunum and lower end of esophagus
4. Serum gastrin value of 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation
Ans. -2
1. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.
2. Postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
3. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, chronic mesenteric vessel occlusion
4. Preprandial abdominal pain, weight gain, acute mesenteric vessel occlusion.
Ans. -2
172. In which of the following condition acquired (secondary) megacolon is seen?
1. Fissure in-ano
2. Complete absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells
3. Absence of sympathetic ganglion cells
4. Rectal malignancy
Ans. -1
173. One of the following is not correct in papillary carcinoma of thyroid:
1. Can be reliably diagnosed using fine needle aspiration cytology.
2. Always unifocal
3. Typically spreads to the cervical lymph nodes
4. Requires a total thyroidectomy for large tumours.
Ans. -2
174. Which one of the following is the correct statement during operation on the submandibular gland?
1. The submandibular gland is seen to warp around the posterior border of mylohyoid.
2. The facial artery and vein are divided as they course through the deep part of the gland
3. The hypoglossal nerve is seen to loop under the submandibular duct
4. Damage to the lingual nerve will cause loss of sensation to the posterior third of the
Ans. -1
175. Which of the following statements is incorrect in regard to stones in the gallbladder?
1. Pigment stones are due to increased excretion of conjugated Bilirubin
2. Are considered a risk factor for the development of gallbladder carcinoma
3. 10% of gallstones are radio-opaque
4. A mucocele of the gallbladder is caused by a stone impacted in Hartmann’s pouch
Ans. -1
176. Which one of the following statement is incorrect, regarding Meckel’s diverticulum?
1. Is found on the anti-mesenteric border of the small intestine
2. Consists of mucosa without a muscle coat
3. Heterotopic gastric mucosa can ulcerate and cause a brisk gastrointestinal bleed
4. A fibrous band between the apex and umbilicus can cause intestinal obstruction
Ans. -2
177. The following ocular structure is not derived from surface ectoderm:
1. Crystalline lens
2. Sclera
3. Corneal epithelium
4. Epithelium of lacrimal glands
Ans. -2
178. A 35 year old premenopausal patient has recently developed a 1.5 cm sized pigmented lesion on her back. Which of the following forms of tissue diagnosis will you recommend for her?
1. Needle biopsy
2. Trucut biopsy
3. Excision biopsy
4. Incisional biopsy
Ans. -3
179. A patient of thrombosis of hepatic veins has been receiving coumarintherapy for duration of three years. Recently, she has developed bleeding tendency. How will you reverse the effect of coumarin?
1. Protamine injection
2. Vit K injection
3. Infusion of fibrinogen
4. Whole blood transfusion
Ans. -*
180. A 45 year old gentleman has undergone truncal vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer seven years ago. Now he has intractable recurrent symptoms of peptic ulcer. All of the following suggest the diagnosis of Zollinger Ellison syndrome, except:
1. Basal acid output of 15 meq/hour
2. Serum gastrin value of 500 pg/ml
3. Ulcers in proximal jejunum and lower end of esophagus
4. Serum gastrin value of 200 pg/ml with secretin stimulation
Ans. -2
66 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 17
161. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding adrenal histoplasmosis:
1. In active disease, calcification is commonly seen.
2. Lymphadenopathy is not seen
3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged
4. Adrenal insufficiency is uncommon
Ans. -3
162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions except:
1. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
2. TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulomonary venous connection)
3. Ebstein’s anomaly.
4. Ventricular septal defect
Ans. -2
163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Meningioma
2. Glioma
3. Schwannoma
4. Pituitary adenoma
Ans. -3
164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
1. Well defined lesion
2. A mass of decreased density
3. Areas of speculated microcalcifications
4. Smooth borders
Ans. -2
165. On MRI in the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
1. Myelodysplasia
2. Myelomalacia
3. Myelochisis
4. Cord tumors
Ans. -2
166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 × 109/L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demonstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient’s blasts would most likely demonstrate:
1. No surface antigens (null phenotype)
2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)
3. Myeloid markers, such as CD 13 CD 33 and CD 15
4. B cell markers, such as CD 19 CD 20 & CD 22
Ans. -*
167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple bone metastases with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. She is complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, S4 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mmHg, PR is 80/min. What is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition?
1. Systolic dysfunction CHF
2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity
3. Metastatic cardiac disease
4. Pneumonia
Ans. -1
168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four months. The nodule is pearly white with central necrosis, teleangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis would be:
1. Basal cell carcinoma
2. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. Atypical melanoma
4. Kaposis sarcoma
Ans. -3
169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and blood streaked sputum. He was treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 10 years ago. He also has drooping of his left eyelid for one month. On physical examination, there is ptosis of the left eye and papillary miosis. Chest X-ray revealed round opacification in the left upper apical lobe. What is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Secondary tuberculosis
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Squamous cell carcinoma
4. Asbestosis
Ans. -2
170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of an aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Chondroblastoma
2.Ewing ’s sarcoma
3. Neuroblastoma
4. Osteosarcoma
Ans. -2
1. In active disease, calcification is commonly seen.
2. Lymphadenopathy is not seen
3. The adrenal glands are usually symmetrically enlarged
4. Adrenal insufficiency is uncommon
Ans. -3
162. Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions except:
1. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
2. TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulomonary venous connection)
3. Ebstein’s anomaly.
4. Ventricular septal defect
Ans. -2
163. A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Meningioma
2. Glioma
3. Schwannoma
4. Pituitary adenoma
Ans. -3
164. Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
1. Well defined lesion
2. A mass of decreased density
3. Areas of speculated microcalcifications
4. Smooth borders
Ans. -2
165. On MRI in the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
1. Myelodysplasia
2. Myelomalacia
3. Myelochisis
4. Cord tumors
Ans. -2
166. A 17 years old boy presented with TLC of 138 × 109/L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demonstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient’s blasts would most likely demonstrate:
1. No surface antigens (null phenotype)
2. An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)
3. Myeloid markers, such as CD 13 CD 33 and CD 15
4. B cell markers, such as CD 19 CD 20 & CD 22
Ans. -*
167. A 45 year old woman underwent a modified radical mastectomy 4 yr ago. She was treated for multiple bone metastases with cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, and fluorouracil for 6 months. She is complaining of exertion on exercise, swelling of the legs, and swelling around eyes in the morning. On examination, she has bilateral rales in the lungs, S1, S2 audible, S3, S4 gallop present. Her BP is 149/117 mmHg, PR is 80/min. What is the most likely cause for her cardiac condition?
1. Systolic dysfunction CHF
2. Drug induced cardiac toxicity
3. Metastatic cardiac disease
4. Pneumonia
Ans. -1
168. A 48 year old sports photographer has noticed a small nodule over the upper lip from four months. The nodule is pearly white with central necrosis, teleangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis would be:
1. Basal cell carcinoma
2. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. Atypical melanoma
4. Kaposis sarcoma
Ans. -3
169. A 65 year old miner has lost 7 kgs weight within two months, has presented with cough, and blood streaked sputum. He was treated for pulmonary tuberculosis 10 years ago. He also has drooping of his left eyelid for one month. On physical examination, there is ptosis of the left eye and papillary miosis. Chest X-ray revealed round opacification in the left upper apical lobe. What is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Secondary tuberculosis
2. Adenocarcinoma
3. Squamous cell carcinoma
4. Asbestosis
Ans. -2
170. A 15-year-old boy is injured while playing cricket. X-rays of the leg rule out a possible fracture. The radiologist reports the boy has an evidence of an aggressive bone tumor with both bone destruction and soft tissue mass. The bone biopsy reveals a bone cancer with neural differentiation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Chondroblastoma
2.
3. Neuroblastoma
4. Osteosarcoma
Ans. -2
65 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 16
151. After how many days of ovulation embryo implantation occurs?
1. 3-5 days
2. 7-9 days
3. 10-12 days
4. 13-15 days
Ans. -1
152. hCG is secreted by :
1. Trophoblast cells.
2. Amniotic membrane
3. Fetal yalk sac
4. Hypothalamus
Ans. -3
153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increase the:
1. Gonadotophin secretion.
2. LDL-cholesterol
3. Bone mass
4. Muscle mass
Ans. -4
154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
1. Enhanced by progesterone
2. Enhanced by oestrogen
3. Inhibited by oestrogen
4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone
Ans. -2
155. In those mammasl which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is termed as:
1. Follicular
2. Estrous
3. Menstrual
4. Luteal
Ans. -1
156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an episode characterized by tongue protrusion, oculogyric crisis, stiffness and abnormal posture of limbs and trunk without loss of consciousness for last 20 minutes before presenting to casualty. This improved within a few minutes after administration of diphenhydramine HCl. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acute Dystonia
2. Akathisia
3. Tardive Dyskinesia
4. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Ans. -2
157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased WBC count, increased Creatinine Phosphokinase. There is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of infection. The most likely diagnosis is :
1. Drug overdose
2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
3. Drug induced Parkinsonism
4. Tardive Dyskinesia
Ans. -*
158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
1. Overlay of contours
2. Motion parallax
3. Bi-nasal disparity
4. Linear perspective
Ans. -4
159. A middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with complains of fear of leaving home, fear of traveling alone and fear of being in a crowd. He develops marked anxiety with palpitations and swelling if he is in these situations. He often avoids public transport to go his place of work. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Generalised anxiety disorder
2. Schizophrenia
3. Personality disorder
4. Agoraphobia
Ans. -1
160. HIAA is a metabolite of :
1. Serotonin
2. Dopamine
3. Epinephrine
4. Histamine
Ans. -3
1. 3-5 days
2. 7-9 days
3. 10-12 days
4. 13-15 days
Ans. -1
152. hCG is secreted by :
1. Trophoblast cells.
2. Amniotic membrane
3. Fetal yalk sac
4. Hypothalamus
Ans. -3
153. Estrogen administration in a menopausal woman increase the:
1. Gonadotophin secretion.
2. LDL-cholesterol
3. Bone mass
4. Muscle mass
Ans. -4
154. The sensitivity of the uterine musculature is:
1. Enhanced by progesterone
2. Enhanced by oestrogen
3. Inhibited by oestrogen
4. Enhanced by oestrogen and inhibited by progesterone
Ans. -2
155. In those mammasl which are seasonal breeder, the females are receptive only once a year, the cycle is termed as:
1. Follicular
2. Estrous
3. Menstrual
4. Luteal
Ans. -1
156. A patient with Acute Psychosis, who is on haloperidol 20 mg/day for last 2 days, has an episode characterized by tongue protrusion, oculogyric crisis, stiffness and abnormal posture of limbs and trunk without loss of consciousness for last 20 minutes before presenting to casualty. This improved within a few minutes after administration of diphenhydramine HCl. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acute Dystonia
2. Akathisia
3. Tardive Dyskinesia
4. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Ans. -2
157. A 30 year old man who was recently started on haloperidol 30 mg/day developed hyperpyrexia, muscle rigidity, akinesia, mutism, sweating, tachycardia and increased blood pressure. The investigations showed increased WBC count, increased Creatinine Phosphokinase. There is no history of any other drug intake or any signs of infection. The most likely diagnosis is :
1. Drug overdose
2. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
3. Drug induced Parkinsonism
4. Tardive Dyskinesia
Ans. -*
158. True stereopsis is perceived due to the following:
1. Overlay of contours
2. Motion parallax
3. Bi-nasal disparity
4. Linear perspective
Ans. -4
159. A middle aged person reported to Psychiatric OPD with complains of fear of leaving home, fear of traveling alone and fear of being in a crowd. He develops marked anxiety with palpitations and swelling if he is in these situations. He often avoids public transport to go his place of work. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Generalised anxiety disorder
2. Schizophrenia
3. Personality disorder
4. Agoraphobia
Ans. -1
160. HIAA is a metabolite of :
1. Serotonin
2. Dopamine
3. Epinephrine
4. Histamine
Ans. -3
64 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 15
141. Which of the following drugs is associated with untoward side effect of renal tubular damage?
1. Cisplatin
2. Streptozotocin
3. Methysergide
4. Cyclophosphamide
Ans. -1
142. The drug imatinib acts by inhibition of
1. Tyrosine kinase
2. Glutathione reductase
3. Thymidile synthetase
4. Protein kinase
Ans. -2
143. Which one of the following is an aromatase inhibitor?
1. Tamoxifen
2. Letrozole
3. Danazol
4. Taxane
Ans. -*
144. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is associated with secondary leukemia?
1. Vinblastine
2. Etoposide
3. Cisplatin
4. Bleomycin
Ans. -4
145. Inhaled nitric oxide is used
1. For stabilizing systemic heamodynamics
2. In case of jaundice
3. To prevent CNS complication
4. For reducing pulmonary hypertension
Ans. -1
146. Which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl?
1. Chest wall rigidly
2. Tachycardia
3. Pain in abdomen
4. Hypertension
Ans. -1
147. Vanilloid receptors are activated by:
1. Pain
2. Vibration
3. Touch
4. Pressure
Ans. -3
148. The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:
1. EEG desynchronization
2. Rapid eye movements
3. Decreased muscle tone
4. Penile erection
Ans. -2
149. Which of the following organs secretes zinc in large amount in man?
1. Seminal vesicle
2. Prostate
3. Epididymis
4. Vas
Ans. -2
150. Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are presents on :
1. Theca cells
2. Granulosa cells
3. Leydig cells
4. Basement membrane of ovarian follicle
Ans. -2
63 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 14
1. Acute myeloid leukemia
2. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
3. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
4. Myelodysplastic syndrome
Ans. -2
132. A patient presents with a platelet count of 700 × 109/L with abnormalities in size, shape and granularity of platelets. WBC count of 12 × 109/L, hemoglobin of 11g/dl and the absence of the
1. Polycythemia vera
2. Essential thrombocythemia
3. Chronic myeloid leukemia
4. Leukemoid reaction.
Ans. -2
133. A 70-year-old male has a pathologic fracture of femur. The lesion appears lytic on X-ray film with a circumscribed punched out appearance. The curetting from fracture site is most likely to show which of the following?
1. Diminished and thinned trabecular bone fragments secondary to osteopenia
2. Sheets of atypical plasma cells.
3. Metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma
4. Malignant cells forming osteoid bone
Ans. -2
134. Which of the following is not a B-cell neoplasm?
1. Hairy cell leukemia.
2. Angiocentric lymphoma
3. Mantle cell lymphoma
4. Burkitt’s lymphoma
Ans. -1
135. RET proto oncogene mutation is a hall mark of which of the following tumors?
1. Midullary carcinoma Thyroid.
2. Astrocytoma
3. Paraganglionoma
4. Hurthle cell tumor thyroid
Ans. -1
136. Barrets Esophagus is commonly associated with one of the following:
1. Adenocarcinoma
2. Squamous cell carcinoma
3. Sarcoma
4. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
Ans. -*
137. Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is increased by all of the following except:
1. Cimetidine
2. Phytonadione
3. Amiodarone
4. Phenylbutazone
Ans. -4
138. Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems?
1. Sevoflurane
2. Enflurance
3. Isoflurane
4. Halothane.
Ans. -2
139. The following anesthetic drug cause pain on intravenous administration :
1. Midazolam
2. Propofol
3. Ketamine
4. Thiopentone sodium
Ans. -4
140. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure?
1. Thiopentone
2. Propofol
3. Midazolam
4. Ketamine
Ans. -4
62 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 13
121. A 50-year-old lady presented with a 3 moth history of pain in the lower third of the right thigh. There was no local swelling; tenderness was present on deep pressure. Plain X-rays showed an ill-defined intra medullary lesion with blotchy calcification at the lower end of the right femoral diaphysis, possibly enchondroma or chondrosarcoma. Sections showed a cartilaginous tumour. Which of the following histological features (if seen) would be helpful to differentiate the two tumours?
1. Focal necrosis and lobulation
2. Tumour permeationbetween bone trabeculae at periphery.
3. Extensive myxoid change
4. High cellularity
Ans. -2
122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the follwing except:
1. Aneurysmal bone cyst
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Hyperparathyroidism
Ans. -*
123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
1. 94% of cases are sporadic
2. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings.
3. Calcificatinin thetumor can be detected on ultrasound scan
4. Presence of extraocular extension
Ans. -*
124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
1. Presence of retinal detachment
2. Size of the tumor
3. Cytology of the tumor cells
4. Presence of extraocular extension
Ans. -3
125. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful ina case of beta thalassemia trait?
1. Hb-F
2. Hb-A1C
3. Hb-A2
4. Hb-H
Ans. -4
126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
1. Fetal blood
2. Amniotic fluid
3. Chorionic villi.
4. Maternal urine.
Ans. -2
127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
1. Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer
2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans
3. Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder.
4. Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans. -3
128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
1. Marfan’s syndrome
2. Testicular feminization syndrome
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome
Ans. -4
129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
1. A single classification system for Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is almost universally accepted
2. HD more often tends to remain localized to a single group of lymph nodes and spreads by contiguity
3. Several types of non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) may have a leukemic phase.
4. In general, follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.
Ans. -3
130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
1. Organic dusts
2. Inorganic dusts
3. Toxic gases e.g. chlorine, sulphur dioxide
4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke
Ans. -3
1. Focal necrosis and lobulation
2. Tumour permeationbetween bone trabeculae at periphery.
3. Extensive myxoid change
4. High cellularity
Ans. -2
122. The differential diagnoses of lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the follwing except:
1. Aneurysmal bone cyst
2. Fibrosarcoma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Hyperparathyroidism
Ans. -*
123. As regards to intraocular retinoblastoma, which one of the following statements is false?
1. 94% of cases are sporadic
2. Patients with sporadic retinoblastoma do not pass their genes to their offsprings.
3. Calcificatinin thetumor can be detected on ultrasound scan
4. Presence of extraocular extension
Ans. -*
124. Which of the following is not of prognostic significance in choroidal melanoma?
1. Presence of retinal detachment
2. Size of the tumor
3. Cytology of the tumor cells
4. Presence of extraocular extension
Ans. -3
125. Which of the following hemoglobin (Hb) estimation will be diagnostically helpful ina case of beta thalassemia trait?
1. Hb-F
2. Hb-A1C
3. Hb-A2
4. Hb-H
Ans. -4
126. Appropriate material for antenatal diagnosis of genetic disorders include all of the following except:
1. Fetal blood
2. Amniotic fluid
3. Chorionic villi.
4. Maternal urine.
Ans. -2
127. Which of the following statements about carcinogenesis is false?
1. Asbestos exposure increases the incidence of lung cancer
2. Papilloma viruses produce tumours in animals but not in humans
3. Exposure to aniline dyes predisposes to cancer of the urinary bladder.
4. Hepatitis B virus has been implicated in hepatocellular carcinoma
Ans. -3
128. Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes?
1. Marfan’s syndrome
2. Testicular feminization syndrome
3. Klinefelter’s syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome
Ans. -4
129. Which of the following statements on lymphoma is not true?
1. A single classification system for Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is almost universally accepted
2. HD more often tends to remain localized to a single group of lymph nodes and spreads by contiguity
3. Several types of non hodgkins lymphoma (NHL) may have a leukemic phase.
4. In general, follicular (nodular) NHL has worse prognosis compared to diffuse NHL.
Ans. -3
130. Which of the following is characteristically not associated with the development of interstitial lung disease?
1. Organic dusts
2. Inorganic dusts
3. Toxic gases e.g. chlorine, sulphur dioxide
4. Inhalation of tobacco smoke
Ans. -3
61 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 12
111. All of the following are true of beta thalassemia major except
1. Splenomegaly
2. Target cells on peripheral smear
3. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
4. Increased osmotic fragility
Ans. -4
112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evalution (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?
1. Non penetrance
2. Uniparental diasomy
3. Genomic imprinting
4. Germline mosaicism
Ans. -4
113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in
1. Gilbert’s syndrome
2. Criggler Najjar syndrome
3.Brest
4. Dubin Johnson syndrome
Ans. -2
114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
1. Urine culture of CMV
2. IgG CMV antibodies in hepatocytes
3. Intra-nuclear inclusionbodies in hepatocytes
4. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction
Ans. -4
115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
1. Increasing transaminases
2. Increasing Bilirubin
3. Increasing prothrombin time
4. Gram negative sepsis
Ans. -3
116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
1. Anit-endomysial antibody
2. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
3. Anti-gliadin antibody
4. Anti-reticulin antibody
Ans. -4
117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen revealed presence of arterial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate in the arterial wall. The inflammation also extended into the neighboring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Takayasu arteritis.
2. Giant cell arteritis
3. Hypersensitivity angiitis
4. Thromboangitis obliterans
Ans. -1
118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extra cellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of :
1. on branching filaments of indefinitive length
2. Cross banded fibres with 67 nm periodicity.
3. Weber Palade bodies.
4. Concentric whorls of lamellar structures
Ans. -3
119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the mtumour cell for cytokeratin. The most probable diagnosis of the tumour is:
1. Sarcoma.
2. Lymphoma.
3. Carcinoma
4. Malignant Melanoma
Ans. -3
120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in 30 year old female show a tumour composed of diffuse sheets of small cells with doubtful nuclear grooving and scanty cytoplasm. No Call-Exner bodies are seen. The ideal immunohistochemistry panel would include:
1. Vementin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99
2. Desmin, S- 100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin
3. Chromogranin, CD 45, CD 99, CD 20
4. CD 3, chromagranin, Cd 45, synaptophysin
Ans. -1
1. Splenomegaly
2. Target cells on peripheral smear
3. Microcytic hypochromic anemia
4. Increased osmotic fragility
Ans. -4
112. A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evalution (including molecular studies) both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family?
1. Non penetrance
2. Uniparental diasomy
3. Genomic imprinting
4. Germline mosaicism
Ans. -4
113. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia is seen in
1. Gilbert’s syndrome
2. Criggler Najjar syndrome
3.
4. Dubin Johnson syndrome
Ans. -2
114. Which of the following does not establish a diagnosis of congenital CMV infection in a neonate?
1. Urine culture of CMV
2. IgG CMV antibodies in hepatocytes
3. Intra-nuclear inclusionbodies in hepatocytes
4. CMV viral DNA in blood by polymerase chain reaction
Ans. -4
115. In a child with acute liver failure, the most important prognostic factor for death is:
1. Increasing transaminases
2. Increasing Bilirubin
3. Increasing prothrombin time
4. Gram negative sepsis
Ans. -3
116. Which of the following circulating antibodies has the best sensitivity and specificity for the diagnosis of celiac disease?
1. Anit-endomysial antibody
2. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody
3. Anti-gliadin antibody
4. Anti-reticulin antibody
Ans. -4
117. A 45-year-old male having a long history of cigarette smoking presented with gangrene of left foot. An amputation of the left foot was done. Representative sections from the specimen revealed presence of arterial thrombus with neutrophilic infiltrate in the arterial wall. The inflammation also extended into the neighboring veins and nerves. The most probable diagnosis is:
1. Takayasu arteritis.
2. Giant cell arteritis
3. Hypersensitivity angiitis
4. Thromboangitis obliterans
Ans. -1
118. A 50-year-old male presented with signs and symptoms of restrictive heart disease. A right ventricular endo-myocardial biopsy revealed deposition of extra cellular eosinophilic hyaline material. On transmission electron microscopy, this material is most likely to reveal the presence of :
1. on branching filaments of indefinitive length
2. Cross banded fibres with 67 nm periodicity.
3. Weber Palade bodies.
4. Concentric whorls of lamellar structures
Ans. -3
119. An undifferentiated malignant tumour on immunohistochemical stain shows cytoplasmic positivity of most of the mtumour cell for cytokeratin. The most probable diagnosis of the tumour is:
1. Sarcoma.
2. Lymphoma.
3. Carcinoma
4. Malignant Melanoma
Ans. -3
120. Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumour in 30 year old female show a tumour composed of diffuse sheets of small cells with doubtful nuclear grooving and scanty cytoplasm. No Call-Exner bodies are seen. The ideal immunohistochemistry panel would include:
1. Vementin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99
2. Desmin, S- 100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin
3. Chromogranin, CD 45, CD 99, CD 20
4. CD 3, chromagranin, Cd 45, synaptophysin
Ans. -1
60 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 11
101. A case of carcinoma larynx with the involvement of anterior commissure and right vocal cord, developed perichondritis of thyroid cartilage. Which of the following statements is true for the management of this case?
1. He should be given radical radiotherapy as this can be cure early tumours
2. He should be treated with combination of chemotherapy & radiotherapy
3. He shold first receive radiotherapy and if residuan tumour is present the should under go laryngectomy
4. He should first undergo laryngectomy and then post-operative radiotherapy.
Ans. -1
102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
1. Aspergillus spp.
2. Histoplasma
3. Conidiobolus coronatus
4. candida albicans
Ans. -2
103. Which of the following is not typical feature of Menieres disease?
1. Sensorineural deafness
2. Pulsatile tinnitus
3. Vertigo
4. Fluctuating deafness
Ans. -3
104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa?
1. Caused by Pseudomonas aerugenosa
2. Patients are usually old
3. Mitiotic figures are high
4. Patient is immune compromised
Ans. -1
105. A 30 year old woman with fiamily history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, with bilateral tinnitus that bothers her at night. Pure tone audiometry shows conductive hearing loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Otosclerosis
2. Acoustic neuroma
3. Otitis media with effusion
4. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
Ans. -2
106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
1. Renal scarring usually begins in the midpolar regions.
2. Postnatal scarring may occur even in the absence of urinary tract infections
3. Long term outcome is comparable in patients treated with either antibiotic prophylaxis or surgery
4. Oral amoxicillin is the choice antibiotic for prophylaxis
Ans. -4
107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull to percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis/
1. Acute glomerulonephritis
2. Urinary tract infection
3. Posterior urethral valves
4. Teratoma
Ans. -*
108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hio is characterized by all of the following, except:
1. May follow upper respiratory infection.
2. ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
3. Ultrasound of the joint reveals widening of the joint spce.
4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation
Ans. -1
109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
1. Gaucher disease.
2. Niemann Pick disease.
3. Mucolipidosis
4. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Ans. -4
110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
2. Friedreich’s ataxia
3. Type II glycogen storage disease
4. Alkaptonuria
Ans. -4
1. He should be given radical radiotherapy as this can be cure early tumours
2. He should be treated with combination of chemotherapy & radiotherapy
3. He shold first receive radiotherapy and if residuan tumour is present the should under go laryngectomy
4. He should first undergo laryngectomy and then post-operative radiotherapy.
Ans. -1
102. Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses?
1. Aspergillus spp.
2. Histoplasma
3. Conidiobolus coronatus
4. candida albicans
Ans. -2
103. Which of the following is not typical feature of Menieres disease?
1. Sensorineural deafness
2. Pulsatile tinnitus
3. Vertigo
4. Fluctuating deafness
Ans. -3
104. Which of the following is not a typical feature of malignant otitis externa?
1. Caused by Pseudomonas aerugenosa
2. Patients are usually old
3. Mitiotic figures are high
4. Patient is immune compromised
Ans. -1
105. A 30 year old woman with fiamily history of hearing loss from her mother’s side developed hearing problem during pregnancy. Hearing loss is bilateral, slowly progressive, with bilateral tinnitus that bothers her at night. Pure tone audiometry shows conductive hearing loss with an apparent bone conduction hearing loss at 2000 Hz. What is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Otosclerosis
2. Acoustic neuroma
3. Otitis media with effusion
4. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis
Ans. -2
106. Which of the following statements is true of primary grade IV-V vesicoureteric reflux in young children?
1. Renal scarring usually begins in the midpolar regions.
2. Postnatal scarring may occur even in the absence of urinary tract infections
3. Long term outcome is comparable in patients treated with either antibiotic prophylaxis or surgery
4. Oral amoxicillin is the choice antibiotic for prophylaxis
Ans. -4
107. A 3-year-old boy presents with fever, dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull to percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis/
1. Acute glomerulonephritis
2. Urinary tract infection
3. Posterior urethral valves
4. Teratoma
Ans. -*
108. Transient synovitis (toxic synovitis) of the hio is characterized by all of the following, except:
1. May follow upper respiratory infection.
2. ESR and white blood cell counts are usually normal
3. Ultrasound of the joint reveals widening of the joint spce.
4. The hip is typically held in adduction and internal rotation
Ans. -1
109. Enzyme replacement therapy is available for which of the following disorders?
1. Gaucher disease.
2. Niemann Pick disease.
3. Mucolipidosis
4. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Ans. -4
110. Cardiomyopathy may be seen in all of the following except:
1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
2. Friedreich’s ataxia
3. Type II glycogen storage disease
4. Alkaptonuria
Ans. -4
59 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 10
- 91. Which of the following is an example of Disability limitation?
1. Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization.
2. Arranging for schooling of child suffering from PRPP.
3. Resting affected limbs in neutral position.
4. Providing calipers for walking.
Ans. -4
92. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’ complication of measles?
1. Diarrhoea.
2. Pneumonia.
3. Otitis media.
4. SSPE.
Ans. -3
93. Brucellosis can be transmitted by all of the following modes, except:
1. Contact with infected placenta.
2. Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms.
3. Person to person transmission.
4. Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol.
Ans. -2
94. Which of the following statements about lepromin test is not true?
1. It is negative in most children in first 6 months of life.
2. It is a diagnostic test.
3. It is an important aid to classify type of leprosy disease.
4. BCG vaccination may convert lepra reaction from negative to positive.
Ans. -2
95. Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water>
1. Chlorometer.
2. Horrock’s apparatus.
3. Berkefeld filter.
4. Double pot method.
Ans. -2
96. Lice are not the vectors of:
1. Relapsing fever.
2. Q fever.
3. Trench fever.
4. Epidemic typhus.
Ans. -1
97. You have diagnosed a patient clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests. Out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know:
1. Prior probability of SLE; sensitivity and specificity of each test.
2. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test.
3. Incidence and prevalence of SLE.
4. Relative risk of SLE in this patient.
Ans. -4
98. All of the following predominant motor neuropathy except:
1. Acute inflammatory demyclinating polyradiculoneuropathy..
2. Porphyric neuropathy.
3. Lead intoxication.
4. Arsenic intoxication.
Ans. -3
99. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between tow countries. This is done because of the differences in:
1. Causes of death
2. Numerators.
3. Age of distributions.
4. Denominators.
Ans. -*
100. Mucin layer tear film deficiency occurs in:
1. Keratoconjunctivits sicca.
2. Lacrimal gland removal.
3. Canalicular block.
4. Herpetic keratitis.
Ans. -4
58 - AIIMS MAY 2006 paper - part 9
1.
2.
3. Brain cancer
4. Ovarian cancer
Ans. -4
82. Which one of the following acts as seconds messenger?
1. Mg++
2. Cl-
3. Ca++
4. PO43-
Ans. -3
83. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine and 33% thymine. The nucleic acid must be:
1. Single-stranded RNA
2. Single-stranded DNA
3. Double-stranded RNA
4. Double-stranded DNA
Ans. -4
84. The following is a generalized diagram of a typical eukaryotic gene.
What it the most likely effect of a 2bp insertion in the middle of the intron?
1. Normal transcription, altered translation.
2. Defective termination of transcription, normal translation.
3. Normal transcription, defective mRNA splicing.
4. Normal transcription, normal translation.
Ans. -1
85. A randomized trial comparing efficacy of two regimens showed that difference is statistically significant with p<0.001>
error)a1. Type-I error (
error)b2. Type-II error (
a3. 1-
b4. 1-
Ans. -3
86. While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 4 rows and 4 columns, the degrees of freedom would be:
1. 1.
2. 4.
3. 9.
4. 8.
Ans. -3
87. A diagnostic test for a particular disease has a sensitivity of 0.90 and a specificity of 0.80. A single test is applied to each subject in the population in which the diseased population is 30%. What is the probability that a person, negative to this test, has no disease?
1. Less than 50%
2. 70%
3. 95%
4. 72%
Ans. -4
88. A physician, after examining a group of patients of a certain disease, classifies the conditions of each one as ‘
1.
2. Interval.
3. Ratio.
4. Ordinal.
Ans. -2
89. If the birth weight of each of the 10 babies born in a hospital in a day is found to be 2.8 kg., then the standard deviation of this sample will be:-
1. 2.8
2. 0.
3. 1
4. 0.28
Ans. -1
90. Histogram is used to describe:
1. Quantitative data of a group of patients.
2. Qualitative data of a group of patients.
3. Data collected on nominal scale
4. Data collected on ordinal scale
Ans. -1
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