Saturday, May 16, 2009

258 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 32

156q: regarding ACE inhibitors which of the following is true ?


1. inhibits conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
2. t ½ of enalapril is more than lisinopril
3. ommiting the diuretic dose helps in reducing first dose hypotension
4. it is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction








157q: drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis ?


a. metronidazole
b. doxycycline
c. tetracycline
d. pencillin








158q: Ig A and neutrophils in papillary tips are found in ?


a. dermatitis herpetiformis
b. pemphigoid
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. linear Ig A Ds








159q: Ig G deposits in dermis are seen in ?


a. bullous pemphigoid
b. pemphigus vulgaris
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. none








160q: emergency acetabular fixation is done in all except ?


a. open fractures
b. recurrent dislocation despite reduction traction
c. ??????????
d. ??????????





257 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 31

151q: somatomedin mediates ?


a. lipolysis
b. increased glucose entry
c. deposition of chondroitin sulfate
d. increased gluconeogenesis








152q: all of the following are true about cephalosporins except ?


a. ceftazidime is a third generation cephalosporin
b. cefoperazone has got antipseudomonal effect
c. cefoxitin has got no activity against anerobes
d. cephalosporin acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis








153q: all are true about warfarin except ?


a. it causes reduction of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
b. T 1/2 is 36 hours
c. it crosses placenta
d. it can be given in liver disease








154q: MDR gene acts by


a. blocks drug activation
b. blocks intracellular DNA synthesis
c. causes efflux of drugs
d. DNA repair inhibition








155q: alkylating agents are all except ?


a. 5-fluorouracil
b. melphalan
c. cyclophosphamide
d. chlorambucil





Here is a list of all the alkylating agents which act as anti-cancer agents .

Friday, May 15, 2009

256 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 30

151q: Stability of post gleno humeral joint tested by :

a) Jerk's test
b) falcrum test
c) Crank test
d) Sulcus test





152q: fructosamine levels are used for all except ?

a. short term sugar control
b. diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy
c. ?????????
d. ?????????





153q: Not a method of health education?

A. service approach
B. mass media
C. regulatory Approach
D. Primary health care approach





154q: a patient presents with history of 6 months diarrhoea . stool microscopy showed AFB positive organism which was 10 micrometers in length . what could be the probable organism ?

a. echinococcus
b. ankylostoma
c. cyclospora
d. none





155q: a man with strained n croaky voice presents with spasmodic dysfunction . all of the following are true about the condition except ?

a)adductor spasm,
b)abductor spasm,
c)botox in PCA is the best treatment
d)type 4 thyroplasty is treatment



255 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 29

141q: HIV targetted interventions are done for all except ?

a. street children
b. sex workers
c. industrial workers
d. migrant workers





142q: targets of tenth five year plan for control of blindness are all except ?

a. increase cataract surgery rate to 450 operations per lakh
b. IOL implantation in more than 80 percent
c. development of 50 pediatric opthalmology units
d. none





143q: sphincters of vagina are all except ?

a. bulbospongiosus
b. pubovaginalis
c. internal urethral sphincter
d. external urethral sphincter





144q: which of the following is not true ?

a) left hepatic vein crosses segment 4
b) left hepatic vein is formed within the umbilical fissure
c) segment 5 and 8 is drained by right anterior sectoral vein
d) caudate lobe is drained by left hepatic vein only





145q: Reflex hallucination is a morbid type of

a. Kineathesia
b. Parathesia
C. Synaesthesia
d. none



Tuesday, May 12, 2009

254 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 28

136q: corneal endothelium is derived from ?

a. mesoderm
b. endoderm
c. ectoderm
d. none





137q: which of the following is not a major criteria in jones criteria ?

a. subcutaneous nodules
b. increased ESR
c. migratory polyarthritis
d. carditis





138q: finnish type of nephrotic syndrome is due to mutation of ?

a. nephrin
b. ???????
c. ???????
d. ???????





139q: heparin toxicity is counteracted by ?

a. protamine sulfate
b. warfarin
c. tinzaparin
d. vitamin k





140q: most appropriate time for transabdominal CVS ?

a. 11-13 weeks
b. 9-11 weeks
c. 14-16 weeks
d. 16-18 weeks



253 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 27

131q: urothelium is present in a/e

a. bladder
b. membranous urethra
c. ureter
d. calyces





132q: penile angiography indications are a/e

a. ischemic erectile dysfunctiuon
b. peyronis disease
c. ???????????????
d. ???????????????





133q: which of the following is absent in eukaryotic cell wall ?

a. carbohydrate
b. lecithin
c. cholesterol
d. none





134q: patch test denotes which type of hypersensitivity ?

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV





135q: all are true about choledochal cyst except ?

a. type 2 is most common
b. danger of rupture and causing biliary peritonitis
c. associated with pancreatic duct anamolies
d. none



252 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 26

126q: A 70 Year old man on return from other country presents with pain abdomen and jaudice. USG shows a worm in the common bile duct. what could be the cause ?

1. fasciola buski
2. clonorchis sinensis
3. strongyliodes
4. ankylostoma





127q: true statement about clomiphene citrate is ?

a. twin pregnancy is seen in 5-6% of pregnancies
b. 3 fold increase in pregnancy compared 2 placebo
c. clomiphene acts an antiestrogen
d. none





128q: intercellular deposits of IgG in epithelium are seen in ?

a. pemphigus
b. psoriasis
c. pemphigoid
d. SLE





129q: IgA deposits in dermis are seen in ?

a. dermetitis herpetiformis
b. pemphigoid
c. pemphigus
d. psoriasis





130q: thalidomide is used in all except ?

a. HIV associated neuropathy
b. HIV associated oral ulcers
c. ENL
d. none



251 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 25

121q: CDC screening for HIV screening in pregnancy ?

a. opt out testing
b. opt in testing
c. universal testing
d. symptomatic





122q: A man taking 20 cigarettes per day presents with coughing, the patient's family suggests quitting cigarettes . the patient is ready to quit but thinks that quitting will make him irritable . what is the best health planning model followed here ?

a. cost and survival
b. persuasion
c. ?????????
d. ?????????





123q: MHC restriction to antigen presentation is not done for ?

a. killing of viruses by cytotoxic cells
b. opsonization bacteria by helper cells
c. autoimmune diseases
d. hypersenstivity





124q: false about cephalosporins ?

a. ceftazidime belongs to 3rd generation of cephalosporins
b. cefoxitin is not anti anaerobic
c. cefoperazone is anti pseudomonal
d. none





125q: all of teh following occur in tumour lysis syndrome except ?

a. hyperkalemia
b. hypercalcemia
c. hyperuricemia
d. hyperphosphatimia



250 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 24

116q: endolymph is secreted by ?

a. striae vascularis
b. ???????
c. ????????
d. ???????





117q: Blood Transfusion complications are all except ?

a. hyperkalemia
b. citrate toxicity
c. metabolic acidosis
d. leukocytosis





118q: a patient presents with right eye adducted,near accomodation normal with saccades. what is the probable diagnosis ?

a. duane's retraction syndrome
b. partial third nerve palsy
c. abducent palsy
d. none





119q: all are muscle spindle functions except ?

a. maintain muscle length.
b. muscle tension
c. ?????????
d. ?????????





120q: Beevor's sign is used for

a. abdomen muscle
b. small muscle of hand
c. face muscle
d. none



249 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 23

111q: drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis?

a) metronidazole
b) doxycycline
c) ofloxacin
d) none





112q: a farm worker presented with abdominal pain with garlic odour and linear line on nails . what could be the probable cause ?

a. lead poisoning
b. arsenic
c. dhatura
d. none





113q: reflex hallucination is a type of ?

a. kineathesia
b. parathesia
c. hyperesthesia
d. none





114q: nested case control study is a?

a. prospective study
b. retrospective study
c. cross sectional study
d. case control study





115q: all is true about halucination except?

a. it occurs in inner subjective
b it is as vivid as real sensation
c. it occurs in absence of a stimuli
d. It occurs without will of subject



248 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 22

106q: cerebellar ataxia is caused by

A) cytosine arabinoside
B) bleomycin
C) cisplatin
D) Busulfan





107q: Most cardio stable anaesthetic ?

a) Ketamine
b) propofol
c) etomidate
d) none





108q: C1-C2 vertebral fracture is best seen in

a) Lat view
b) Oblique view
c) AP view
d) Odontoid view





109q: crescent fracture pelvis true is

a) seperation of pubis with ramus fracture
b) sacroilliac fracture
c) acetabulular fracture
d) none





110q: macronodular regenerative changes most commonly occurs in?

a) cirrhosis
b) alcohol
c) hepatitis B
d) none



247 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 21

101q: Penetrating neck trauma :-

a) Violating the platysma layer of the neck
b) 2 cm depth invasion
c) Any trauma damaging Vital structure in neck
d) none





102q: During Ovulation phase :-

a) Increase in inhibin A level
b) Fsh induce steroidogenesis in granulosa cells
c) activin increase
d) none





103q: drug with Highest emetic potential

A) cisplatin
B) high dose methotrexate
C) high dose Cyclophosphamide
D) none





104q: All cause Malabsorption syndromes except

A) Giardiasis
B) Ascaris
C) Strongyloides
D) Capillaria phillipinesis





105q: A 7 year old boy with abrupt onset of pain in hip , with hip abducted. investigations are normal except for a high value of ESR. What is the next line of management?

A) hospitalize and Observe
b) intravenous antibiotics
c) USG guided aspiration of hip
d) none



246 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 20

95q: Pauci immune glomereulonephritis occurs in

a) After transplant in alports
b) microscopic polyangitis
c) Henoch Sconlein nephritis
d) none





96q: Most important in Coronary heart disease ?

A) LDL
B) HDL
C) Triglycerides
D) VLDL





97q: A 10 month old baby previously normal is sudddenly found dead in his cirb. in intensive care unit. external appearance and genitalia were normal. blood glucose 30 mg%.hyperpigmentation present. what could be the probable Diagnosis :-

a) 21 hydroxylase deficiency
b) Hyperinsulinemia
c) Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
d) Cushings syndrome





98q: Higher freuency audiometry used in :-

a) Minieres disease
b) Otosclerosis
c) Ototoxicity
d) Non Organic deafness





99q: Hyponatremia and Hyperkalemia in a child. Which hormone is to be evaluated first ?

a) Aldosterone
b) Renin levels
c) testoseone
d) Cortisol





100q: medullary Nephrocalcinosis not seen with ?

A) Hyperoxaluria
B) Bartter's syndrome
C) Prolonged use of Furosemide
D) ARPKD



245 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 19

91q: n prions disease all are true except:-

a) They are caused by infectious proteins
b) Biopsy of brain diagnostic
c) Neurodegenerative
d) none





92q: Sometomedin in physiological concentrations causes:-

a) Increase lipolysis
b) Gluconeogenesis
c) glucose intake in cells
d) none





93q: Estrogen action on carbohydrate metabolism

a) Worsening of NIDDM
B) Increase uptake of glucose through increase in insulin sensitivity
c) Glycolysis increase
d) Increasing central adipose deposition





94q: CPAP all are true except

a) Given prophylactically in preterm with Resp distress
b) started with fiO2 50-60%
c) Given in infants less than 28 weeks and less than 1 kg weight
d) Improves oxygenation and improves lung compliance





95q: All are true except :-

a) Chediak highashi syndrome due to defective phagolysosome formation
b) in brutons agammaglobulinemia opsonisation is not affected
c) myeloperoxidase action mainly due to ocl-
d) nadph oxidase acts via superoxide ions



244 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 18

86q: Following are true about Wilson`s disease except

a) ceruloplasmin <20 b) cu excretion<100ug c) autosomal recessive d) none



87q: Kocher Langenback procedure done in emergency treatment of acetabular # all except

a) recurrent dislocations despite treatment
b) open acetabular fracture
c) sciatic nerve entrapment
d) none





88q: Mayer Rokintansky kuster hauser :-

a) ovary uterus tubes absent
b) uterus absent, tubes and ovary present
c) uterus present , tubes and ovary absent
d) Uterus ,tubes and ovary present





89q: Max potassium ions are secretions of :

a) Colon
b) salivary glands
c) Stomach
d) Duodenum





90q: VIII nerve receives afferents of

a) Taste
b) Balance
c) Hearing
d) Equilibrium



243 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 17

81q: True about Metastatic calcification :-

a) Starts in mitochondria
b) Occurs in damaged cardiac valves
c) Occurs in dead tissues
d) Serum Calcium levels are normal





82q: Most common cause of acute right heart failure

a) Massive Pulmonary embolism
b) Tricuspid Stenosis
c) Pulmonary Stenosis
d) Tricuspid regurgitation





83q: Nobel prize 2007 for medicine was given for :-

a) Detection of chemical /growth factors for for preventing growth of tumors
b) Principles for introducing specific gene modifications in mice by the use of embryonic stem cells
c) non genetic method method treating muscular dystrophies
d) none





84q: Site of where osteomyelitis starts establishing

A) epiphysis
B) Metaphysis
C) Diaphysis
D) Site where nutrient artery enters bone





85q: scurvy all are characteristic except

A) Bowing of legs
B) Widening of epiphysis
C) in adults skeletal features are found clinically
D) none



242 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 16

75q: Which is given orally

a. Mesna
b. Cytosine
c. Actinomycin D
d. Doxorubicin





76q: methaemoglobinemia is caused by which local anaesthetic ?

a. procaine
b. prilocaine
c. lignocaine
d. none





77q: Left heart failure finding all are true except

a. Oligemic lung fields
b. Kerley B lines
c. Redistribution to apex
d. Cardiomegaly





78q: Contraindications for cesarean section in pregnancy

a. Eisenmenger synd
b. AS
c. Cardiomyopathy
d. Aortic regurgitation





79q: Stability of post gleno-humeral is tested by :

a. Jerk's test
b. falcrum test
c. Crank test
d. Sulcus test





80q: Treatment of TB in pregnancy

a. Category 1 treatment in 1st trimester
b. Delayed till second trimester
c. Category 2 treatment in 1st trimester
d. Cat 3 treatment in 1st trimester



241 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 15

71q: subcortical dementia occurs in all except ?

a. alzheimer's disease
b. supranuclear palsy
c. parkinson's disease
d. supratentorial tumors





72q: annexin v is involved in ?

a. necrosis
b. apoptosis
c. malignancy
d. none





73q: all of the following are side effects of amiodarone except ?

a. corneal deposits
b. pulmonary fibrosis
c. cirrhosis
d. productive cough





74q: 1.Digitalis Toxicity seen in a/e

a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypomagnesemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Renal Failure





75q: Neurofibromatosis all are true except

a. Autosomal Recessive
b. Scoliosis
c. Neurofibroma
d. Pheochromocytomas association



240 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 14

66q: gene therapy is used in ?

a. cystic fibrosis
b. severe combined immunodeficiency
c. thalassemia
d. sickle cell anemia





67q: treatment of choice for kawasaki's disease ?

a. IV immunoglobulin
b. steroids
c. thalidomide
d. none





68q: double bubble sign is seen in ?

a. duodenal atresia
b. esophageal atresia
c. ileal atresia
d. pyloric stenosis





69q: roof of orbit is blown in due to ?

a. blow on forehead
b. blow on lower jaw
c. fall on back
d. blow in parietal region





70q: difference between antemortem and postmortem bruise is ?

a. well defined edges
b. coagulation in blood vessels
c. raised
d. extravasation of blood



239 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 13

61q: which of the following is the intermediate host for echinococcus granulosa ?

a. sheep
b. man
c. dog
d. cat





62q: reversible ishcemia is detected by ?

a. thallium scan
b. rest echo
c. MUGA
d. none





63q: skip lesions are present in ?

a. ulcerative colitis
b. crohn's disease
c. irritable bowel syndrome
d. none





64q: which of the following is an example of hyperplasia with hypertrophy ?

a. uterus in pregnancy
b. breast during puberty
c. heart in hypertension
d. none





65q: best method for safe disposal of mercury ?

a. bury under earth
b. collect carefully and reuse
c. combustion
d. none



Sunday, May 10, 2009

238 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 12

56q: formication and delusion of persecution occur together in ?

a. cocaine
b. amphetamine
c. cannabis
d. none





57q: subcortical dementia is associated with all except ?

a. HIV
b. alzheimer's disease
c. supranuclear palsy
d. parkinsonism





58q: what is the function of spinocerebellar tract ?

a. equilibrium
b. smoothens movement
c. planning movement
d. none





59q: which of the following does not measure association ?

a. p value
b. odds ratio
c. relative risk
d. cronbach alpha





60q: capacitance of sperms occurs in ?

a. seminiferous tubules
b. vas deferens
c. epididymis
d. none



237 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 11

51q: which species of clostridium does not cause gas gangrene ?

a. clostridium perfringes
b. clostridium histolyticum
c. clostridium novyi
d. none





52q: which of the following is not a cause of congenital hypercoagulability ?

a. protein C deficiency
b. protein S deficiency
c. antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
d. MLCTR gene mutations





53q: culture media for leptospira is ?

a. tinsdale
b. kretos
c. ??????
d. ??????





54q: which of the following is true about emergency tracheostomy ?

a. decreases dead space
b. increases ventilation and perfusion
c. decreases ventilation and perfusion
d. ????????????





55q: which of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a healthy newly married couple ?

a. OCP
b. IUCD
c. norplant
d. progesterone only pill



236 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 10

46q: structures passing along with aorta in the aortic opening are ?

a. thoracic duct and azygous vein
b. thoracic duct and hemiazygous vein
c. thoracic duct and splanchnic nerves
d. none





47q: blood banks get permission to operate from ?

a. NACO
b. NABL
c. state ministry/ ministry of health
d. drug controller general of india





48q: drugs not used for the treatment of hyperkalemia ?

a. insulin + glucose
b. potassium exchange resins
c. calcium carbonate
d. sodium bicarbonate





49q: which of the following is not supplied by pelvic splanchnic nerves?

a. rectum
b. uterus
c. appendix
d. none





50q: most common complication of coeliac plexus block ?

a. pneumothorax
b. retroperitoneal hemorrhage
c. hypotension
d. none



235 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 9

41q: contraindication for pregnancy ?

a. primary pulmonary hypertension
b. AS
c. eisenmenger syndrome
d. cardiomyopathy





42q: what does pharmacovigilance deal with ?

a. checks costs
b. checks drug safety
c. checks about the unethical practice of drug
d. none





43q: stereotactic surgery includes all except ?

a. electron
b. proton
c. linear accelerator
d. none





44q: which one of the following is acid fast in HIV ?

a. cryptosporidium
b. isospora
c. microspora
d. none





45q: wounds on the genitalia are ?

a. suicidal
b. self inflicted
c. homicidal
d. postmortem artefact



234 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 8

36q: enopthalmos is due to paralysis of ?

a. LPS
b. orbitalis
c. tenon's capsule
d. superior tarsal plate







37q: grading of renal cancer is based on ?

a. size of the tumor
b. pathological staging
c. histological staging
d. none






38q: allopurinol used in organ preservation because ?

a. antioxidant
b. free radical destruction
c. preservative
d. none






39q: alcohol anticraving agents are all except ?

a. buprenorphine
b. acamprostat
c. lorazepam
d. clonidine






40q: tarsal tunnel syndrome is associated with which arthritis ?

a. RA
b. osteoarthritis
c. psoriatic arthritis
d. ankylosing spondylitis




233 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 7

31q: death in crohn's disease is most commonly due to ?

a. thromboembolism
b. electrolyte disorder
c. sepsis
d. malignancy





32q: hounsfield units depends on ?

a. electron density
b. mass density
c. effective atomic number
d. none





33q: most common cause of cancers with ageing ?

a. telomerase activation
b. telomerase inhibition
c. suppression of protooncogenes
d. increased signals for apoptosis





34q: treponema pallidum can be isolated from CSF in ?

a. primary syphilis
b. secondary syphilis
c. tertiary syphilis
d. tabes dorsalis





35q: right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of ?

a. splenic artery
b. gastroduodenal artery
c. superior mesentric artery
d. inferior mesentric artery



232 - AIIMS MAY 2009 mcqs with answers part 6

26q: left ventricular hypertrophy does not occur in ?

a. MS
b. AR
c. AS
d. MR





27q: minor trauma leads to large bruise at which of these sites ?

a. palms
b. soles
c. skull
d. face





28q: blood borne infections are all except ?

a. hepatitis G
b. EBV
c. CMV
d. parvovirus B19





29q: structures passing deep to the posterior belly of digastric are all except ?

a. hypoglossus
b. hypoglossal nerve
c. retromandibular vein
d. occipital vein





30q: segment of liver which drains the left hepatic duct ?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 8



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