111q: Laparascopic hand instruments are sterilized by all except
a. Autoclaving
b. Immersion in cidex 20%
c. Dry heat
d. Placing in a Formalin chamber overnight
112q: A nurse threw an infected gauze containing blood into a black bag after doing a dressing on a patient. Which of the following should have been done?
a. She did the right thing
b. She should have thrown it into a red bag and sent for incineration
c. She should have thrown it into a yellow bag and sent for incineration
d. She should pretreat it with antiseptic and then throw it in a yellow bag
113q: All are true about Retinoic acid syndrome except
a. Vitamin A toxicity
b. Pulmonary features
c. Due to mature neoplasm cell adhering to alveoli
d. Causes 10% mortality
114q: All of the following are true about pyramidal tracts except
a. Anterior corticospinal tracts are uncrossed
b. 80% of fibres are present in lateral corticospinal tract
c. Arise from pyramidal cells
d. Excitation of these causes presynaptic inhibition of sensory fibers
115q: Prevalence is increased by
a. Emmigration of diseased
b. Immigration of healthy
c. Good cure rate
d. Longer duration of disease
Tuesday, March 30, 2010
370 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 22
106q: Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss is seen in
a. Congenital rubella
b. Herpes zoster
c. Measles
d. Mumps
107q: The deformity which recurs most commonly after treatment in CTEV is
a. Equinus
b. Varus
c. Addiction
d. Cavus
108q: Maltomas represent
a. Marginal zone lymphoma
b. Mantle cell lymphomas
c. T cell lymphomas
d. Burkitt's lymphoma
109q: Which of the following is false regarding Benedict's syndrome
a. Contralateral tumors
b. Lesion in pons
c. Ipsilateral third nerve palsy
d. Lesion in red nucleus
110q: Caseation in TB is due to
a. Secondary infection
b. Delayed type hypersensitivity
c. Killing of TB bacilli
d. Liquefaction
a. Congenital rubella
b. Herpes zoster
c. Measles
d. Mumps
107q: The deformity which recurs most commonly after treatment in CTEV is
a. Equinus
b. Varus
c. Addiction
d. Cavus
108q: Maltomas represent
a. Marginal zone lymphoma
b. Mantle cell lymphomas
c. T cell lymphomas
d. Burkitt's lymphoma
109q: Which of the following is false regarding Benedict's syndrome
a. Contralateral tumors
b. Lesion in pons
c. Ipsilateral third nerve palsy
d. Lesion in red nucleus
110q: Caseation in TB is due to
a. Secondary infection
b. Delayed type hypersensitivity
c. Killing of TB bacilli
d. Liquefaction
369 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 21
101q: A 24 years aged person presents with solitary nodule in the thyroid. FNAC shows follicular neoplasm. What is the next best appropriate step?
a. Thyroid scan
b. Hemithyroidectomy
c. Wait and watch
d. Repeat FNAC
102q: Positive end expiratory pressure causes all except
a. Decreasing cardiac output
b. Decreasing CVP
c. Increasing residual volume
d. Sodium retention
103q: A 42 year old woman presents with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Hysterectomy
b. OC Pills
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
104q: A 25 year old lady presents with arrythmias, mid systolic clicks and dyspnea on exertion. What is the investigation to be done
a. Arteriography
b. Echocardiography
c. Chest X-ray
d. Electrophysiological tests
105q: A boy can climb up and down stairs,one step at a time, jump, build a tower of 10 cubes, open a door, use 3 words in a sentence. What is his minimum age
a. 20 months
b. 24 months
c. 30 months
d. 36 months
a. Thyroid scan
b. Hemithyroidectomy
c. Wait and watch
d. Repeat FNAC
102q: Positive end expiratory pressure causes all except
a. Decreasing cardiac output
b. Decreasing CVP
c. Increasing residual volume
d. Sodium retention
103q: A 42 year old woman presents with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. What is the treatment of choice?
a. Hysterectomy
b. OC Pills
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
104q: A 25 year old lady presents with arrythmias, mid systolic clicks and dyspnea on exertion. What is the investigation to be done
a. Arteriography
b. Echocardiography
c. Chest X-ray
d. Electrophysiological tests
105q: A boy can climb up and down stairs,one step at a time, jump, build a tower of 10 cubes, open a door, use 3 words in a sentence. What is his minimum age
a. 20 months
b. 24 months
c. 30 months
d. 36 months
368 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 20
96q: What is the type of collagen that is predominantly seen in the early stages of wound healing
a. Collagen I
b. Collagen II
c. Collagen III
d. Collagen IV
97q: Which of the following indicates bad prognosis in a pancreatic injury
a. Pancreatic laceration
b. Pancreatic hematoma
c. Duct disruption
d. Pancreatitis
98q: Which of the following is an indication for delivery in twin pregnancy?
a. First twin breech and second twin vertex
b. First twin vertex and second twin breech
c. First twin vertex and second twin transverse lie
d. First twin transverse lie and second twin breech
99q: All of the following precipitate hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis except
a. Hypokalemia
b. Antibiotic treatment
c. Variceal bleed
d. Paracentesis
100q: Which of the following most commonly related with the pathogenesis of HNPCC
a. Trinucleotide excision repair defect
b. Base excision repair defect
c. Mismatch repair defect
d. Not recalled
a. Collagen I
b. Collagen II
c. Collagen III
d. Collagen IV
97q: Which of the following indicates bad prognosis in a pancreatic injury
a. Pancreatic laceration
b. Pancreatic hematoma
c. Duct disruption
d. Pancreatitis
98q: Which of the following is an indication for delivery in twin pregnancy?
a. First twin breech and second twin vertex
b. First twin vertex and second twin breech
c. First twin vertex and second twin transverse lie
d. First twin transverse lie and second twin breech
99q: All of the following precipitate hepatic encephalopathy in cirrhosis except
a. Hypokalemia
b. Antibiotic treatment
c. Variceal bleed
d. Paracentesis
100q: Which of the following most commonly related with the pathogenesis of HNPCC
a. Trinucleotide excision repair defect
b. Base excision repair defect
c. Mismatch repair defect
d. Not recalled
367 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 19
91q: Stomach is supplied by all of the following arteries except
a. Left gastric artery
b. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
c. Inferior phrenic artery
d. Left gastroepiploic artery
92q: On autopsy the kidneys of a patient were small with hemorrhages. Biopsy showed hyperplasic arteriolitis and necrotizing glomeruli. What is the probable diagnosis?
a. Malignant Hypertension
b. Diabetes
c. Benign Hypertension
d. RPGN
93q: What is Epituberculosis?
a. Primary TB
b. Post primary TB
c. Secondary TB
d. Disseminated TB
94q: Which of the follwing has the shortest half life
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Adenosine
c. Lignocaine
d. Thiopental
95q: Which of the following is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Renal artery lesions
a. HRCT
b. CT angiography
c. arteriography
d. MRI
a. Left gastric artery
b. Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery
c. Inferior phrenic artery
d. Left gastroepiploic artery
92q: On autopsy the kidneys of a patient were small with hemorrhages. Biopsy showed hyperplasic arteriolitis and necrotizing glomeruli. What is the probable diagnosis?
a. Malignant Hypertension
b. Diabetes
c. Benign Hypertension
d. RPGN
93q: What is Epituberculosis?
a. Primary TB
b. Post primary TB
c. Secondary TB
d. Disseminated TB
94q: Which of the follwing has the shortest half life
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Adenosine
c. Lignocaine
d. Thiopental
95q: Which of the following is the gold standard for the diagnosis of Renal artery lesions
a. HRCT
b. CT angiography
c. arteriography
d. MRI
366 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 18
86q: All of the following are true about mature uncomplicated cataract except
a. Absent lens shadow
b. Pearly white colour
c. Normal anterior chamber
d. Absent light perception
87q: Ring pessary is used in all except
a. Puerperium
b. Stress incontinence
c. Patients unfit for surgery
d. Pregnancy
88q: All are types of skin traction except
a. Dunlop traction
b. Russel's traction
c. Buck's external traction
d. Bryant's traction
89q: Most commonly used source for external beam radiotherapy
a. Cobalt 60
b. Cesium 137
c. Iridium 131
d. Radium 226
90q: Cold sterilization is done by
a. Gamma rays
b. UV rays
c. IR rays
d. Not recalled
a. Absent lens shadow
b. Pearly white colour
c. Normal anterior chamber
d. Absent light perception
87q: Ring pessary is used in all except
a. Puerperium
b. Stress incontinence
c. Patients unfit for surgery
d. Pregnancy
88q: All are types of skin traction except
a. Dunlop traction
b. Russel's traction
c. Buck's external traction
d. Bryant's traction
89q: Most commonly used source for external beam radiotherapy
a. Cobalt 60
b. Cesium 137
c. Iridium 131
d. Radium 226
90q: Cold sterilization is done by
a. Gamma rays
b. UV rays
c. IR rays
d. Not recalled
365 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 17
81q: A High grade Squamous Intraepithelial lesion was noted on Pap smear. What is the next step to be done?
a. Radical hysterectomy
b. Colposcopy guided biopsy
c. LLETZ
d. LEEP
82q: Sentinel node biopsy is done in Breast cancer to take a decision about which of the following
a. Breast conservation surgery
b. Axillary node dissection
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radiotherapy
83q: Which of the following is not a screening procedure
a. FNAC
b. Self examination
c. Clinical examination
d. Mammography
84q: Most common type of eclampsia is
a. Antepartum
b. Intrapartum
c. Puerperium
d. Not recalled
85q: Peripheral retinal neovascularisation is seen in all except
a. CML
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Cockayne's syndrome
d. Retinopathy of prematurity
a. Radical hysterectomy
b. Colposcopy guided biopsy
c. LLETZ
d. LEEP
82q: Sentinel node biopsy is done in Breast cancer to take a decision about which of the following
a. Breast conservation surgery
b. Axillary node dissection
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radiotherapy
83q: Which of the following is not a screening procedure
a. FNAC
b. Self examination
c. Clinical examination
d. Mammography
84q: Most common type of eclampsia is
a. Antepartum
b. Intrapartum
c. Puerperium
d. Not recalled
85q: Peripheral retinal neovascularisation is seen in all except
a. CML
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Cockayne's syndrome
d. Retinopathy of prematurity
364 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 16
76q: All of the following are true about MIRENA (Levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine device) except :
a. It a highly effective contraceptive with a failure rate of 0.1%
b. It releases a daily dose of 20 micrograms levonorgestrel
c. It is used in menorrhagia
d. It can be used for a period of 5 years
77q: All are true about female condom except
a. It is made from polyurethane
b. It covers the vagina and external genitalia
c. Failure rate is 2 per HWY
d. Prevents STD
78q: All of the following are true about the mechanism of action of OCPs except
a. Decreases FSH and LH
b. Makes the cervical mucus thin,clear and watery
c. Inhibit ovulation
d. Not recalled
79q: Mechanism of action of CuT are all except
a. Direct spermicidal action
b. Causes biochemical changes which causes gametocytic and spermatolytic changes
c. Increases fallopian tube motility
d. Not recalled
80q: MTP at 8 weeks is by which of the following methods
a. Suction evacuation
b. Dilatation and currettage
c. Prostaglandins
d. Oxytocin
a. It a highly effective contraceptive with a failure rate of 0.1%
b. It releases a daily dose of 20 micrograms levonorgestrel
c. It is used in menorrhagia
d. It can be used for a period of 5 years
77q: All are true about female condom except
a. It is made from polyurethane
b. It covers the vagina and external genitalia
c. Failure rate is 2 per HWY
d. Prevents STD
78q: All of the following are true about the mechanism of action of OCPs except
a. Decreases FSH and LH
b. Makes the cervical mucus thin,clear and watery
c. Inhibit ovulation
d. Not recalled
79q: Mechanism of action of CuT are all except
a. Direct spermicidal action
b. Causes biochemical changes which causes gametocytic and spermatolytic changes
c. Increases fallopian tube motility
d. Not recalled
80q: MTP at 8 weeks is by which of the following methods
a. Suction evacuation
b. Dilatation and currettage
c. Prostaglandins
d. Oxytocin
Wednesday, March 24, 2010
363 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 15
71q: Pretreatment of blood products with radiation prevents which of the following?
a. Febrile neutropenia
b. GVHD
c.
d.
72q: Bilateral elevation of diaphragm occurs due to all of the following except
a. Obesity
b. Large abdominal tumor
c. Scoliosis
d.
73q: A skin lesion which shows flat topped, polygonal papules ....... ?
a. Lichen planus
b. Pityriasis rosea
c. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
d.
74q: What is the most common cause of Osteoma of External auditory meatus?
a. Trauma
b. Otitis
c. Swimming in cold water
d.
75q: All of the following are closed reduction maneuvers to reduce shoulder dislocation except
a. Bigelow's
b. Stimson's
c. Kocher's
d. Hippocrates
a. Febrile neutropenia
b. GVHD
c.
d.
72q: Bilateral elevation of diaphragm occurs due to all of the following except
a. Obesity
b. Large abdominal tumor
c. Scoliosis
d.
73q: A skin lesion which shows flat topped, polygonal papules ....... ?
a. Lichen planus
b. Pityriasis rosea
c. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
d.
74q: What is the most common cause of Osteoma of External auditory meatus?
a. Trauma
b. Otitis
c. Swimming in cold water
d.
75q: All of the following are closed reduction maneuvers to reduce shoulder dislocation except
a. Bigelow's
b. Stimson's
c. Kocher's
d. Hippocrates
362 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 14
66q: Which of the following is common in the children of pregnanct woman whose age is above 40 years of age?
a. Down syndrome
b.
c.
d.
67q: Milk secretion is increased by all of the following except
a. Bromocriptine
b.
c.
d.
68q: Roth spots are seen in
a. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
b.
c.
d.
69q: Presence of Rosenthal fibers is feature of
a. Pilocytic astrocytoma
b.
c.
d.
70q: Lower 1/3rd of oesophagus is commonly involved in
a. Adenocarcinoma
b.
c.
d.
a. Down syndrome
b.
c.
d.
67q: Milk secretion is increased by all of the following except
a. Bromocriptine
b.
c.
d.
68q: Roth spots are seen in
a. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
b.
c.
d.
69q: Presence of Rosenthal fibers is feature of
a. Pilocytic astrocytoma
b.
c.
d.
70q: Lower 1/3rd of oesophagus is commonly involved in
a. Adenocarcinoma
b.
c.
d.
Tuesday, March 23, 2010
361 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 13
61q: Which of the following is not a compartment of the leg?
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
62q: Lymphatics from the cervical portion of the Uterus drains into all of the following except
a. Superfiical inguinal lymph nodes
b. External iliac lymph nodes
c. Internal iliac lymph nodes
d. Obturator nodes
63q: All of the following impinge on the oesophagus except
a. Left main bronchus
b. Left subclavian artery
c. Arch of aorta
d.
64q: All of the following are supplied by the Hypoglossal nerve except
a.
b.
c. Palatoglossus
d.
65q: All of the following are extensors of the wrist except
a. Extensor digitorum profundus
b. Extensor indicis
c. Extensor pollicis brevis
d.
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Medial
d. Lateral
62q: Lymphatics from the cervical portion of the Uterus drains into all of the following except
a. Superfiical inguinal lymph nodes
b. External iliac lymph nodes
c. Internal iliac lymph nodes
d. Obturator nodes
63q: All of the following impinge on the oesophagus except
a. Left main bronchus
b. Left subclavian artery
c. Arch of aorta
d.
64q: All of the following are supplied by the Hypoglossal nerve except
a.
b.
c. Palatoglossus
d.
65q: All of the following are extensors of the wrist except
a. Extensor digitorum profundus
b. Extensor indicis
c. Extensor pollicis brevis
d.
360 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 12
56q: All of the following are contents of Carotid sheath except
a. Carotid artery
b. Internal Jugular vein
c. Vagus nerve
d. Sympathetic chain
57q: Hurthle cells are characteristically seen in which of the following
a. Hashimoto's thyrioditis
b. Subacute thyroiditis
c.
d.
58q: All of the following are true about Warfarin except
a. It is very useful in the prophylaxis of thromboembolism
b. It's effect is monitored by observing the clotting time
c. The INR is maintained between 2 and 3
d.
59q: All of the following are causes of subcortical dementia except
a. Alzheimer's disease
b. Parkinson's disease
c. HIV associated dementia
d.
60q: GFR was measured to be between 60-89 in a patients with chronic kidney disease. Which stage is he in ?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
a. Carotid artery
b. Internal Jugular vein
c. Vagus nerve
d. Sympathetic chain
57q: Hurthle cells are characteristically seen in which of the following
a. Hashimoto's thyrioditis
b. Subacute thyroiditis
c.
d.
58q: All of the following are true about Warfarin except
a. It is very useful in the prophylaxis of thromboembolism
b. It's effect is monitored by observing the clotting time
c. The INR is maintained between 2 and 3
d.
59q: All of the following are causes of subcortical dementia except
a. Alzheimer's disease
b. Parkinson's disease
c. HIV associated dementia
d.
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
359 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 11
51q: Which of the following is a natural compound which causes increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?
a. Aflatoxin
b.
c.
d.
52q: Which of the following is the best investigation of choice for Endometriosis?
a. Laparoscopy
b.
c.
d.
53q: Which of the following is the treatment of choice in a woman with hydramnios who is suffering from respiratory distress?
a. Amniocentesis
b.
c.
d.
54q: What is the normal bitemporal diameter?
a. 7.5 cms
b. 8 cms
c. 8.5 cms
d. 9.5 cms
55q: What is the type of schizophrenia which has predominant motor symptoms, associated with negativism, echolalia, echopraxia etc?
a. Paranoid schizophrenia
b. Residual schizophrenia
c. Catatonic schizophrenia
d.
a. Aflatoxin
b.
c.
d.
52q: Which of the following is the best investigation of choice for Endometriosis?
a. Laparoscopy
b.
c.
d.
53q: Which of the following is the treatment of choice in a woman with hydramnios who is suffering from respiratory distress?
a. Amniocentesis
b.
c.
d.
54q: What is the normal bitemporal diameter?
a. 7.5 cms
b. 8 cms
c. 8.5 cms
d. 9.5 cms
55q: What is the type of schizophrenia which has predominant motor symptoms, associated with negativism, echolalia, echopraxia etc?
a. Paranoid schizophrenia
b. Residual schizophrenia
c. Catatonic schizophrenia
d.
358 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 10
46q: Birbeck granules are what type of cells ?
a. Langerhans cells
b.
c.
d.
47q: Which of the following is a stain used for mast cells?
a. Toluidene blue
b. Von Kossa stain
c.
d.
48q: Which of the following is a coomb's positive hemolytic anemia?
a. SLE
b.
c.
d.
49q: All of the following are staging systems used in hepatocellular carcinoma except
a. Okuda staging
b. Italian liver staging
c. AJCC staging
d. Robson's staging
50q: A woman suffers from pain exactly during the mid menstrual cycle coinciding with ovulation. What is the diagnosis?
a. Mittelschmierz
b.
c.
d.
a. Langerhans cells
b.
c.
d.
47q: Which of the following is a stain used for mast cells?
a. Toluidene blue
b. Von Kossa stain
c.
d.
48q: Which of the following is a coomb's positive hemolytic anemia?
a. SLE
b.
c.
d.
49q: All of the following are staging systems used in hepatocellular carcinoma except
a. Okuda staging
b. Italian liver staging
c. AJCC staging
d. Robson's staging
50q: A woman suffers from pain exactly during the mid menstrual cycle coinciding with ovulation. What is the diagnosis?
a. Mittelschmierz
b.
c.
d.
357 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 9
41q: 3 bony point relationship is preserved in which of the following ?
a. Medial condyle fracture
b. Lateral condyle fracture
c. Supracondylar fracture of humerus
d.
42q: Which of the following drugs is the most common cause of Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
a. Natalizumab
b.
c.
d.
43q: What is the most common location of vocal nodules?
a. Junction of anterior 1/3rd and posterior 2/3rd of vocal cord
b. Junction of anterior 2/3rd and anterior 1/3rd of vocal cord
c. Posterior commissure
d.
44q: Which of the following is a fast acting cycloplegic?
a. Tropicamide
b.
c.
d.
45q: Which of the following is the first molar teeth to erupt?
a. First molar
b. Premolar
c. canines
d. Incisors
a. Medial condyle fracture
b. Lateral condyle fracture
c. Supracondylar fracture of humerus
d.
42q: Which of the following drugs is the most common cause of Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?
a. Natalizumab
b.
c.
d.
43q: What is the most common location of vocal nodules?
a. Junction of anterior 1/3rd and posterior 2/3rd of vocal cord
b. Junction of anterior 2/3rd and anterior 1/3rd of vocal cord
c. Posterior commissure
d.
44q: Which of the following is a fast acting cycloplegic?
a. Tropicamide
b.
c.
d.
45q: Which of the following is the first molar teeth to erupt?
a. First molar
b. Premolar
c. canines
d. Incisors
Monday, March 22, 2010
356 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 8
36q: Tache noir is seen in the eye how many hours after death?
a. 3 to 5 hrs
b. 6 to 8 hrs
c. 12 to 14 hrs
d. 16 to 18 hrs
*For more information on Tache noire click here .
37q: What is Testamentary capacity?
a. Ability of the person to give evidence in court
b. Ability to make a valid will
c.
d.
38q: Atrialization of Right ventricle is a feature of
a. Ebstein's anomaly
b.
c.
d.
39q: All of the following are sex cord gonadal stromal cell tumors except
a. Sertoli-leydig cell tumor
b. fibroma-thecoma
c. Granulosa cell tumor
d. Brenner tumor
40q: Selenium is a constituent of which of the following enzyme ?
a. Glutathione reductase
b. Glutathione peroxidase
c.
d.
a. 3 to 5 hrs
b. 6 to 8 hrs
c. 12 to 14 hrs
d. 16 to 18 hrs
*For more information on Tache noire click here .
37q: What is Testamentary capacity?
a. Ability of the person to give evidence in court
b. Ability to make a valid will
c.
d.
38q: Atrialization of Right ventricle is a feature of
a. Ebstein's anomaly
b.
c.
d.
39q: All of the following are sex cord gonadal stromal cell tumors except
a. Sertoli-leydig cell tumor
b. fibroma-thecoma
c. Granulosa cell tumor
d. Brenner tumor
40q: Selenium is a constituent of which of the following enzyme ?
a. Glutathione reductase
b. Glutathione peroxidase
c.
d.
355 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 7
31q: Twin peak sign is seen in
a. Conjoined twins
b. Discordant twins
c. Dichorionic Diamniotic twins
d. ???????
32q: Moschowitz operation is done for
a. Vesico vaginal fistula
b. Enterocele
c. Stress incontinence
d.
33q: Maximum transmission of HIV from mother to fetus occurs during which period
a. During parturition
b.
c.
d.
34q: Which of the following drugs are absolutely contraindicated in Pregnancy?
a. ACE inhibitors
b.
c.
d.
35q: Halban's disease is due to
a. Persistent corpus luteum
b. Deficient corpus luteum
c.
d.
a. Conjoined twins
b. Discordant twins
c. Dichorionic Diamniotic twins
d. ???????
32q: Moschowitz operation is done for
a. Vesico vaginal fistula
b. Enterocele
c. Stress incontinence
d.
33q: Maximum transmission of HIV from mother to fetus occurs during which period
a. During parturition
b.
c.
d.
34q: Which of the following drugs are absolutely contraindicated in Pregnancy?
a. ACE inhibitors
b.
c.
d.
35q: Halban's disease is due to
a. Persistent corpus luteum
b. Deficient corpus luteum
c.
d.
Sunday, March 21, 2010
354 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 6
26q: Testicular artery most commonly arises from
a. Infrarenal branch of abdominal aorta
b.
c.
d.
27q: All of the following are examples of bactericidal drugs except (AI 1999)
a. INH
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
28q: Corneal sensations are lost in
a. Dendritic keratitis
b.
c.
d.
29q: Which of the following is most commonly associated with LDL
a. Apo B48
b. Apo B100
c.
d.
30q: Severe falciparum malaria is treated by
a. Artesunate
b.
c.
d.
a. Infrarenal branch of abdominal aorta
b.
c.
d.
27q: All of the following are examples of bactericidal drugs except (AI 1999)
a. INH
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Pyrazinamide
28q: Corneal sensations are lost in
a. Dendritic keratitis
b.
c.
d.
29q: Which of the following is most commonly associated with LDL
a. Apo B48
b. Apo B100
c.
d.
30q: Severe falciparum malaria is treated by
a. Artesunate
b.
c.
d.
353 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 5
21q: Which of the following is a feature of Human Poverty Index?
a. Knowledge
b.
c.
d.
22q: All of the following are features of Tumor lysis syndrome except
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyperuricemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hyperphosphatemia
23q: All of the following are known to worsen hyperkalemia in a patient renal failure except
a. Spironolactone
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Furosemide
d.
24q: What is Goodell's sign?
a. Softening of cervix
b. Contractions of uterus
c. Asymmetric enlargement of uterus
d.
25q: Somogyi effect is associated with
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Insulin
c. Thyroid
d.
a. Knowledge
b.
c.
d.
22q: All of the following are features of Tumor lysis syndrome except
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyperuricemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hyperphosphatemia
23q: All of the following are known to worsen hyperkalemia in a patient renal failure except
a. Spironolactone
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Furosemide
d.
24q: What is Goodell's sign?
a. Softening of cervix
b. Contractions of uterus
c. Asymmetric enlargement of uterus
d.
25q: Somogyi effect is associated with
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Insulin
c. Thyroid
d.
352 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 4
16q: The most reliable criteria in Gustafson's method of identification is (AI 2003)
a. Cementum apposition
b. Transparency of root
c. Attrition
d. Root resorption
17q: Hatter's shakes are seen in poisoning due to
a. Arsenic
b. Mercury
c.
d.
18q: B Lynch suture is applied for
a. On uterus for Acute atonic PPH
b.
c.
d.
19q: Nephrotoxicity is a side effect of
a. Cisplatin
b.
c.
d.
20q: Lead pipe appearance of the fallopian tube is due to
a. Tuberculosis
b.
c.
d.
a. Cementum apposition
b. Transparency of root
c. Attrition
d. Root resorption
17q: Hatter's shakes are seen in poisoning due to
a. Arsenic
b. Mercury
c.
d.
18q: B Lynch suture is applied for
a. On uterus for Acute atonic PPH
b.
c.
d.
19q: Nephrotoxicity is a side effect of
a. Cisplatin
b.
c.
d.
20q: Lead pipe appearance of the fallopian tube is due to
a. Tuberculosis
b.
c.
d.
351 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 3
11q: Which of the following is not commonly seen in Polycythemia Vera?
a. Thrombosis
b. Hyperuricemia
c. Prone for acute leukemia
d. Spontaneous severe infection
12q: Which of the following is the correct statement regarding findings in JVP ?
a. Cannon wave : Complete heart block
b. Slow y descent : Tricuspid regurgitation
c. Giant c wave : Tricuspid stenosis
d. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations : SVC obstruction
13q: Which of the following is not a common manifestation of Congenital Rubella?
a. Deafness
b. PDA
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Cataract
14q: Which of the following is the position of the limb in posterior dislocation of hip?
a. Internal rotation, flexion and adduction
b. Internal rotation, extension and adduction
c. External rotation, flexion and adduction
d. External rotation, flexion and abduction
15q: Craniospinal irradiation is employed in the treatment of
a. Oligodendroglioma
b. Pilocytic astrocytoma
c. Mixed oligoastrocytoma
d. Medulloblastoma
*The funny thing about all the above 5 questions is that, all of the above 5 questions were taken as it is from ALL INDIA 2002 PAPER, and i was wondering that there were no repeats.
a. Thrombosis
b. Hyperuricemia
c. Prone for acute leukemia
d. Spontaneous severe infection
12q: Which of the following is the correct statement regarding findings in JVP ?
a. Cannon wave : Complete heart block
b. Slow y descent : Tricuspid regurgitation
c. Giant c wave : Tricuspid stenosis
d. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations : SVC obstruction
13q: Which of the following is not a common manifestation of Congenital Rubella?
a. Deafness
b. PDA
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Cataract
14q: Which of the following is the position of the limb in posterior dislocation of hip?
a. Internal rotation, flexion and adduction
b. Internal rotation, extension and adduction
c. External rotation, flexion and adduction
d. External rotation, flexion and abduction
15q: Craniospinal irradiation is employed in the treatment of
a. Oligodendroglioma
b. Pilocytic astrocytoma
c. Mixed oligoastrocytoma
d. Medulloblastoma
*The funny thing about all the above 5 questions is that, all of the above 5 questions were taken as it is from ALL INDIA 2002 PAPER, and i was wondering that there were no repeats.
350 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 2
6q: All of the following are used in the induction of remission in a case of ALL except :
a. Vincristine
b. Prednisolone
c. L-asparginase
d. Cytosine arabinoside
7q: Long acting beta-2 agonist ?
a. Albuterol
b. Salmeterol
c. Pirlbuterol
d. Orciprenaline
8q: What is the mechanism of action of pirenzepine ?
a. H2 receptor antagonists
b. Proton pump inhibitors
c. Anticholinergic
d.
9q: Crutch palsy is due to which nerve involvement?
a. Radial nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Median nerve
d.
10q: All of the following are components of Glasgow coma scale except
a. Eye opening
b. Verbal response
c. Motor response
d. Sensory response
a. Vincristine
b. Prednisolone
c. L-asparginase
d. Cytosine arabinoside
7q: Long acting beta-2 agonist ?
a. Albuterol
b. Salmeterol
c. Pirlbuterol
d. Orciprenaline
8q: What is the mechanism of action of pirenzepine ?
a. H2 receptor antagonists
b. Proton pump inhibitors
c. Anticholinergic
d.
9q: Crutch palsy is due to which nerve involvement?
a. Radial nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Median nerve
d.
10q: All of the following are components of Glasgow coma scale except
a. Eye opening
b. Verbal response
c. Motor response
d. Sensory response
349 - AP PG 2010 Paper mcqs with answers - part 1
1q: What is "CANAL OF PETIT" ?
a. Proximal part of schlemm canal
b. Space between the anterior and posterior suspensory ligaments of lens of eye
c.
d.
2q: A child needs a small outpatient surgical procedure. Which of the following is the best anaesthetic, if the child is asthmatic?
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c.
d.
3q: Pink colour appearance on otoscopic examination is seen in
a. Otosclerosis
b. Glomus jugulare
c.
d.
4q: Nitroblue tetrazolium test is done for
a. Phagocytosis
b.
c.
d.
5q: Presence of amylase in the pleural fluid is seen in
a. Tuberculosis
b. Malignancy
c.
d.
a. Proximal part of schlemm canal
b. Space between the anterior and posterior suspensory ligaments of lens of eye
c.
d.
2q: A child needs a small outpatient surgical procedure. Which of the following is the best anaesthetic, if the child is asthmatic?
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c.
d.
3q: Pink colour appearance on otoscopic examination is seen in
a. Otosclerosis
b. Glomus jugulare
c.
d.
4q: Nitroblue tetrazolium test is done for
a. Phagocytosis
b.
c.
d.
5q: Presence of amylase in the pleural fluid is seen in
a. Tuberculosis
b. Malignancy
c.
d.
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