26q: Drug of choice for chlamydia in pregnancy is ?
a. Doxycycline
b. Tetracycline
c. Pencillin
d. Erythromycin
27q: Which of the following is commonly used in narcoanalysis ?
a. Atropine sulphate
b. Scopolamine hydrochloride
c. Opium compounds
d. ?????????????
28q: Recrrent meingitis in CSF leak patients most commonly due to:
a. E.coli
b. Pneumococcus
c. memingococcus
d. Yersinia
29q: Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous except
a. wegener's granulomatosis
b. buerger's disease
c. takayasu's arteritis
d. giant cell arteritis
30q: Thymoma is associated with all except ?
a. red cell aplasia
b. myasthenia gravis
c. hypogammaglobulinemia
d. SIADH
21q: Endophthalmitis involves all of the following except ?
a. Uvea
b. Retina
c. Sclera
d. Vitreous
*Endophthalmitis is defined as an inflammation of the inner structures of the eyeball i.e., uveal tissue and retina associated with pouring of exudates in the vitreous cavity, anterior chamber and posterior chamber.
22q: Which of the following is the lymphatic drainage of spongiform urethra ?
a. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
b. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
c. External iliac nodes
d. Internal iliac nodes
*The lymphatic vessels of the membranous and prostatic urethrae in males and the whole of the urethra in the female, pass to the internal iliac nodes, although a few may enter the external nodes.But vessels coming from the spongy urethra (urethra, which transverses the penis or penile urethra) drain with the glans penis into the deep inguinal nodes. Some of the vessels may enter the superficial inguinal nodes and may pass through the inguinal canal to reach the external iliac nodes. From these nodes they drain into the lateral aortic nodes. From the nodes, efferents issue to the lumbar lymph trunk. The lumbar lymph trunks help to form the abdominal confluence of lymph ducts or the cisterna chyli. Cisterna chyli drains into thoracic duct.
23q: Which of the following inhibits insulin secretion ?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Adrenaline
d. Growth hormone
24q: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is assessed by ?
a. Hunt-Hess grading scale
b. Modified Rankin scale
c. Glasgow coma scale
d. Glasgow coma outcome scale
25. Hydrops fetalis is associated with ?
a. Parvo virus B19 infection
b. HPV infection
c. Syphilis
d. Gonococcus
16q: In case of post-ductal coarctation of aorta, collaterals are formed by all except -
a. Vertebral artery
b. suprascapular a.
c. posterior intercostal a.
d. axillary a.
17q: According to Bismuth-Strasberg classification, Cystic duct blow out comes under ?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
18q: Beck's triad is seen in which of the following ?
a. Constrictive pericarditis
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. LVMI
d. ??????????
19q: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - all are true except
a. Bimodal age distribution
b. Primary modality of Rx would be nasopharyngectomy with neck dissection
c. IgA antibody to EBV antigen is specific
d. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common histopathological finding
*Radiotherapy is the primary modality of treatment in nasopharyngeal cancer.
20q: Lord's plication is used in -
a. testicular cancer
b. hydrocele
c. Hernia
d. Varicocele
12q: Which of the following stones are hard to break ?
a. struvite
b. Uric acid
c. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
d. Calcium oxalate dihydrate
*The results of ESWL depend on the size of the stone, stone burden, type of stone, and location. In general ESWL is used for stones less than 1 to 2 centimeters in size. Most stones fracture well with ESWL treatment. Hard stones such as calcium oxalate monohydrate and cystine stones are more difficult to break with ESWL and therefore often require percutaneous nephrostolithotomy. - The above lines are taken from here
13q: Asha is selected at which level ? a. Subcentre b. Village c. District d. PHC
14q: What is the enzyme deficiency seen in Niemann-Pick's disease ?
answer: Sphingomyelinase.
15q: Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasms by 1. cold receptors in skin
2. inhibiting adrenergic receptors
3. inhibiting cholinergic receptors
4. increasing the temp of peritoneal fluid
6q: Which of the following is to be monitored in a patient who is on linezolid treatment ?
a. Renal function tests
b. Liver function tests
c. Rash
d. Platelet count
Linezolid seems to be well tolerated, with generally minor side effects (e.g., gastrointestinal complaints, headache, rash). Myelosuppression, including anemia, leukopenia, pancytopenia, and thrombocytopenia, has been reported in patients receiving linezolid. Thrombocytopenia or a significant reduction in platelet count has been associated with linezolid in 2.4% of treated patients, and its occurrence is related to duration of therapy. Platelet counts should be monitored in patients with risk of bleeding, preexisting thrombocytopenia, or intrinsic or acquired disorders of platelet function (including those potentially caused by concomitant medication) and in patients receiving courses of therapy lasting beyond 2 weeks. Linezolid is a weak, nonspecific inhibitor of monoamine oxidase. Patients receiving concomitant therapy with an adrenergic or serotonergic agent or consuming more than 100 mg of tyramine a day may experience palpitations, headache, or hypertensive crisis. Peripheral and optic neuropathy, which seem to be reversible upon drug discontinuation, have been reported with prolonged use. Linezolid is neither a substrate nor an inhibitor of CYPs.
7q: Low CSF protein is seen in all of the following except ?
a. Infant
b. Recurrent Lumbar puncture
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pseudotumor cerebri
*Low CSF protein levels can occur in conditions such as repeated lumbar puncture or a chronic leak, in which CSF is lost at a higher than normal rate. Low CSF protein levels also are seen in some children between the ages of six months and two years, in acute water intoxication, and in a minority of patients with idiopathic intracranial hypertension. CSF protein levels do not fall in hypoproteinemia. -The above lines were taken from here
8q: Gluteus medius is supplied by ?
a. Superior gluteal nerve
b. Inferior gluteal nerve
c. ???????????
d. ???????????
9q: Time of surgery for undescended testis ?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. just after birth
-Read these lines from Schwartz's surgery 9th edition.
*Males with bilateral undescended testicles are often infertile. When the testicle is not within the scrotum, it is subjected to a higher temperature, which results in decreased spermatogenesis. Mengel and coworkers studied 515 undescended testicles by histologic analysis and demonstrated a decreasing presence of spermatogonia after 2 years of age. Consequently it is now recommended that an undescended testicle be surgically repositioned by 2 years of age.
-But before u jump into any conclusions, read these lines from sabiston textbook of surgery, 18th edition.
*When a unilateral gonad is palpated in the inguinal canal, but cannot be manipulated into a scrotal position, an orchidopexy is performed. In most pediatric centers, this is done when patients have reached about 6 months of age. This early intervention may permit postnatal germ cell development to proceed normally. The orchidopexy is done through an inguinal incision.
CONCLUSION : After reading both the versions, i think it is 6 months, because, firstly schwartz mentions that it should be done before 2 years, but does not specify a time. Whereas sabiston mentions the exact time with proper explanation of - "This early intervention may permit postnatal germ cell development to proceed normally.". So i am gonna go with 6 months.
10q: Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays
*The same question was asked in AIPGMEE 2006 paper,
- The rays with the most ionization potential or damaging power are - Alpha rays, followed by Beta rays, followed by X-rays and lastly Gamma rays - arranged in the decreasing order of ionization .
- The reverse is true for the penetrating power of these rays, that means, the rays with the most penetrating power are the Gamma rays and the rays with the least penetrating power are the alpha rays.
