492 - Chondrosarcoma Mcqs

(ANSWERS AT THE BOTTOM OF THE PAGE)

1. True about Chondrosarcoma are
a. It is a malignant tumor
b. It is a bone forming tumor
c. 25% of all biopsied malignant bone tumors are chondrosarcomas
d. Synovial chondromatosis can turn into a chondrosarcoma
e. 8-17% of all biopsied primary bone tumors are chondrosarcomas

2. Which of the folllowing can progress to become a chondrosarcoma
a. Enchondroma
b. Osteochondroma
c. Chondromyxoid fibroma
d. Chondroblastoma
e. Synovial chondromatosis

3. Myxoid chondrosarcoma belongs to which grade of chondrosarcoma
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. None

4. Find the true statement/s
a. Chondrosarcoma is common in children
b. 50% of patients are more than 40 years old with a mean peak incidence of 50 years
c. Male to female ratio is 1.5:1
d. Clinical presentation is usually pain of insidious onset
e. Chondrosarcoma can also present with palpable mass(28%) or pathological fracture(27%)

5. Which of the following is the least commonly affected site for chondrosarcoma?
a. Pelvis
b. Proximal Femur
c. Proximal Humerus
d. Hands and Feet

6. Find the false statement/s
a. A central chondroid tumor with pain or increased growth should be regarded as chondrosarcoma until proven otherwise by biopsy or benign clinical progress
b. Chondrosarcoma is suggested if the level of scintigraphic activity in the lesion is greater than that in the anterior iliac crest
c. Calcification occurs in 29% of chondrosarcomas on CT
d. Deep endosteal cortical scalloping (greater than 2/3rds) is suggestive of chondrosarcoma as opposed to chondroma

7. Radiographic features of Chondrosarcoma are all except
a. 75% of cases show calcification
b. Small low grade chondrosarcoma may not be differentiated from a chondroma, appearing as a well defined lytic lesion with chondroid matrix mineralization.
c. Plain radiography may not accurately define medullary involvement
d. Periosteal reaction is a rare feature of chondrosarcomas

8. MRI features of chondrosarcoma are
a. Lesion is slightly hypointense to muscle on T1 and may show focal areas of hyperintensity due to trapped areas of marrow
b. Malignant cartilage shows characteristic increased signal intensity on T2 images and a multilobulated appearance
c. Matrix mineralization manifests as focal areas of signal void
d. Most chondrosarcomas are very well vascularized and enhancement after IV contrast is excellent
e. T2 images have proven valuable in the identification of dedifferentiation, in which case a region of intermediate signal intensity adjacent to the typical hyperintense chondral tumor mass is seen

9. Which of the following are true regarding a Secondary Peripheral Chondrosarcoma developing from an Osteochondroma
a. Most Osteochondromas have cartilage caps no thicker than 5mm and a cap in excess of 20mm is likely to be malignant
b. Radiological features of malignant change consist of destruction of part of the calcified cap or ossified stem of the osteochondroma
c. Malignant change should be suspected clinically if pain develops or continued growth occurs after skeletal maturity
d. Radiographs are usually used to measure the thickness of the cartilage cap of the osteochondroma

10. True statement/s about Periosteal Chondrosarcoma (a rare form of chondrosarcoma)
a. Typically involves long bones
b. Most commonly involves distal femoral and proximal humeral metaphyses
c. More common in men with a wide range of presentation
d. Radiologically a calcified juxtacortical mass is seen, with cortical thickening and periosteal reaction
e. Involvement of medulla is rare
f. Prognosis is poor.

11. True statement/s about Mesenchymal Chondrosarcoma (another rare type of chondrosarcoma)
a. Occurs at a younger age (third and fourth decade)
b. Much more cellular malignant matrix than a normal chondrosarcoma
c. Some predilection for ribs and mandible noted
d. Indistinguishable from a central chondrosarcoma and often shows characteristic chondroid calcification
e. Local recurrence and disseminated metastases occur late and less frequently than with conventional chondrosarcoma

12. True statement about Clear-cell Chondrosarcoma (another rare type of Chondrosarcoma)
a. 2% of all chondrosarcomas
b. It is a high grade type of Chondrosarcoma
c. Patient has a long history and a better prognosis
d. Radiographically resembles Chondroblastoma and Chondromyxoid fibroma
e. Involves the ends of long bones, especially the proximal ends of femur or humerus after closure of the growth plate
f. Lesion is usually lytic and may present a loculated or soap-bubble appearance

---------------

ANSWERS:

1. a,c,d and e are true statements. b is false because chondrosarcomas are cartilage forming tumors and not bone forming tumors. Examples of bone forming tumors are the benign osteoma, osteoid osteoma, osteoblastoma and the malignant osteosarcoma.

2. All of them can progress to a chondrosarcoma.

3. b. Grade 2. Based on the histological grade, chondrosarcomas are classified into low grade (grade 1 - 45-50% of cases), Myxoid (grade 2 - 30-43% of cases) and high grade (grade 3 - 8-25% of cases). It is important to remember that there is an entity called dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma where along side chondrosarcoma another malignant high grade non-chondroid neoplasm is present (it evolves from chondrosarcoma) like Osteosarcoma or Malignant Fibrous Histiocytoma.

4. b,c,d and e are true. a is the false statement because chondrosarcoma is rare in children.

5. d. Hands and feet. Only 1-4% of all chondrosarcomas develop in the Hands and feet.

6. c is the false statement. 92% of chondrosarcomas show calcifications on CT and 75% of chondrosarcomas show calcifications on Radiography.

7. d is the wrong statement. 50% of chondrosarcomas show periosteal reaction.

8. d is very wrong. Most of the chondrosarcomas are poorly vascularized and show very minimal contrast enhancement typically a peripheral or septal pattern.

9. d is a wrong statement. Cartilage caps are not visible on radiographs.

10. f is the only wrong statement. After resection of the tumor, this type of chondrosarcoma has good prognosis.

11. e is the only wrong statement. Mesenchymal Chondrosarcoma which almost radiologically appears similar to the typical central chondrosarcoma has a cellular matrix which is more malignant than the typical central chondrosarcoma and so the metastases happen more early and more commonly when compared to the typical variety.

12. b is the only wrong statement. The clear cell chondrosarcoma is a low grade tumor and that is the reason for the long history and better prognosis. 

491 - NIMSET DM Cardiology 2013 Entrance paper with answers

Answers:

490 - AP PG 2013 All questions with answers

1 all are derivates of nueral crest except=adrenal cortex

2 BRANCH of lumbar plexuses which emerge from anterior surface of psoas major muscle is genitofemoral shocked but its true

3 round window of middle ear is closed by sec tympanic membrane

4 portal vein formation lies posterior to the neck of pancreas

5 the knee joint is supported by all of the following ligament except inverted y shaped ligament of bigelow

6 stimulation of j receptors causes all of the following except hyper tension

7 the structures outside the blood brain barrier are all of the following except locus ceruleus

8 all are true regarding erythropoietin except its blood level is markedly decreased in anaemia

9 the major stimulus for receptive relaxation of the stomach is food in the stomach

10 deuterium oxide is used to measure the volume of total body water

11 all of the following similarities are true regarding dna and rna except pentose sugar is ribose

12 one of the following has energy rich bonds =GTP

13 co enzyme a contains panthoneic acid

14 blood levels of WOF aminoacids serve as an index of increased cvs risk =homocysteine

15 profuse watery diarrhoea in cholera is due to foollwing action of toxin=ADP ribolysation of stimulatory G protein

16anti platelet action of aspirin is due to inhibition of synthesis of TXA2

17 busipirone=5 ht agonist and anti anxiety

18 not correct abt sulfonyl urea is used in type 1 DM

19 vareniciline novel nicotonic antagonist approved for smoking cessation

20 not produced by cholinomimetics=urinary retention controversy

21 organism that does not grow at normal atmosphere tension but requires traces of o2 in metabolism is microaerophilic

22 intracellular survival of M.tb is due to prevention of fusion of phagosome with lysosome

23 entero test is done for giardiasis

24 all are vapour phase disinfectants except thiomersal

25 mice are used for isolation except echo virus

26 warthin finkedly cells are seen in measles

27 philadelphia chromosome was first discovered by nowell and hungerford

28 PTHrp produced by squamous epithelial cells of the skin

29 metastases of malignant tumour of brain =all of the above

30 centrilobular empysema=respiratory bronchiole

31 corbus disease=gangrenou balanitis

32 hodgkins lymphoma with negative cd 15 and cd 30=lymphocyte predominant

33 ames test for mutagenicity

34 macro orchidism in post pubertal males =fragile x syndrome

35 germ cell tumour of ovary= benign cystic teratoma

36 gila monster is a type of lizard

37 danbury tremors =mercury poisoning

38 min punishment for gang rape is 10 years

39 paltauf hemorrhage=drowning

40 masochism = sexual gratification is sought by being beaten ,tormented or humilated by ones sexual partner

41 a sequence of activities designed to implement policies and accomplish objectives is called programme

42 most commonly used measure of variation is standard deviation

43 e.coli indicator of bacterial quality and contamination of water

44 tiger mosquito =aedes

45 biological vector for q fever =tick

46 case control study for rare diseases

47 ICDS=integrated child hood development and services

48 social security none of the above

49 the instrument used to measure very low air movements in closed rooms=kata thermometer

50 principles of health education include all except punishment

51 non pancreatic gastrinomas are mostly located in duodenum

52 h pylori colonisation is a risk factor for all except adenocarcinoma of diatal stomach

53 the first choice of DMARD for intial treatment of moderate to severe ra is montherapy methotrexate

54 most common cause of increased red cell protoporohyrins is vitamin b 12 deficency

55 chronic pericardial effusion that is massive but rarely causes cardiac tamponade is myxoedema

56 holiday heart syndrome most friquently manifests as atrial fibrillation

57 essential component of multi drug regimen in treatment of staphylocoocal prosthetic valve endocarditis is vancomycin

58 autonomic neuropathy in type 1 and type 2 as all except anhidrosis of upper extremities

59 most common cause of growth hormone releasing hormone mediated acromegaly = chest or abdominal carcinoids

60 acute kidney injury caused by acyclovir is due to acute interstial nephritis

61 lesch nyhan syndrome is characterised by all except partial deficency of hprt

62 hyper prolactinemia is caused by all except hyperthyroidism

63 the drug of choice in pts with generalised epilepsy syndromes having mixed seizures is valproic acid

64 most cases of hemifacial spasm are related to vascular compression of facial nerve in pons

65 most common cause of cardioemboli stroke is non rheumatic atrial fibrillation,this will trigerr doubts i think but in many journals its given

66 extra renal manifestations of ADPKD INCLUDE ALL EXCEPT splenic cyst i think

67 focal seizures in bacterial meningitis are usually due to cortical venous thrombosis with haemorrhage

68 patchy specific lesions are seen on small bowel biopsy except whipple disease

69 nicotonic acid significantly reduces plasma levels of LPa

70 in pts with severe structural lung disease most common infective agent= to cause pneumonia=P.AERUGINOSA

71 MOST COMMON LIFE threatening complication of squamous cell carcinoma of lung=hyper calcemia

72 predsominant cause of diarrhoea in elderly patients in chronic care insitutions is C.difficile

73 bronchiectasis predominant central airways is seen in ABPA

74 ALL ARE S/E OF interferon are reversible upone dose cessation of therapy except autoimmune thyroiditis

75 in juvenile pernicious anemia all are present except parietal cell bodies

76 haemolytic anemia can occur in patients with severe alcholic hepatitis =zieve syndrome
77 in vertebral osteomyelitis ,anterior erosion of superior end plate of vertebra are typically the first feature to become evident in TB

78 aplastic anemia with pancreatic in sufficency and malabsorption is seen in shwachmann diamond syndrome

79 the areas most often invoved in lesions of toxoplasmosis in cns includes all except meninges

80 autosommal recessive hyper ig e syndrome is characterised by all except deficency in tyk-2 ,its is dock 8 mutation

81 all are primary causes of nephrotic syndrome in infants except sle

82 regarding reye syndrome false is condition usually observed in children less than 3 years

83 hemorrhagic cystitis is associated with cyclophoshamide

84 18 month old boy with prominent eye ball and abdomen=neuroblastoma

85 triad of chorioretinitis ,microcephaly and intracerebral calcification=toxoplasmosis

86 5yr girl with joint pain ,iridocyclitis=JRA

87 7 YR OLD BOY short stature ,large skull ,prominent forehead ,saddle shaped nose,scoliosis normal intelligence=noonans syndrome

88 immediately after birth .the preventable cause of mental retardation are all except
hurler syndrome

89 associated with large ant fontanelle =all of the above

90 an agreesively looking thin and tall 15 year old with long limbs and small testis= chromosomal analysis

91 relative humidity of alevolar air=100%

92 emergence reaction is found with ketamine

93 signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic toxicity except diarrhoea

94 one bar=15 psi

95 drugs used for tb prophylaxsis= isoniazid

96 in tb to be positive at least 1 in 10,000org per ml of sputum

97 most common cause of hemothorax =iatrogenic

98 hypercalcemia in sarcoidosisis result of increased production of 1,25 di hydroxy vitamin d

99 sycosis barbe=staph

100 golden yellow on woods lamp=tinea versicolor

101 false statement regarding pompholyx is a type of exogenous eczema

102 zidovudine=nucleoside reverse transcriptase

103 acetic acid test=hpv

104 groove sign=LGV

105 confabulation =koraskoff syndrome

106 thought broad casting =thoughts being projected into environment

107 red colour in doppler examination denotes flow towards ultrasonic probe

108 which component of radiographic contrast media provides most useful radio opacity=iodine
doubtful

109 stereotactic radiosurgery is commonly used to treat tumors of spinal cord

110 the radiation detecting system used in gamma camera is scintillation detector

111 which does not require bowel preparation before contrast study=megaloblastic anemia

112 treatment for carcinoid appendix >2cm in size is right hemicolectomy

113 most common cause of pancreatic ascites= chronic pancreatitis

114 annular pancreas is treted by duodenostomy

115 pringle manoeuvre= liver injuries

116 definitive treatment for caroli disease whose liver function is preserved is biliary drainage

117 nodular seminal vesicle on rectal examination= LGV

118 retractile testis is best treated by reassurance

119 chordae is most often associated with hypospadias

120 most widely used investigation for lower limb venous in sufficency=doppler ultrasound imaging

121 myoglobinuria is associated with flame burns i think multiple answers

122 most commonly used formula for burns resuscitation is parkland formula

123 commonest site of peripheral aneurysm is popliteal

124 lobular =bilateral

125 limb compartment syndrome is best treated by fasciotomy

126 gas bloat syndrome is acomplication of nissen fundoplication

127 commest graft used for cabg=long saphenous vein

128 giant cell reparative granuloma of jaw is treated by curretage

129 commonest cause of esophageal perforation is iatrogenic

130 chromic cat gut is delayed absorbable synthethic suture material

131 ischiorectal fossa is at an increased risk of infection due to poor blood supply

132 thumb printing sign= ischemic colitis
133 warthin tumour second most common benign tumour of parotid gland

134 pts presenting with abd pain ,shock need imediate laparatomy excep[t ruptured liver hemangioma

135 acute diverticulitis except coservative treatment may be successful in severe attack

136 lower esophageal sphincter is relaxed by all except prostaglandin f2

137 superficial spreading melanoma best prognosis

138 fourneirs gangrene false obvious cause is evident

139 facial disproportionate growth is characteistic of all of the aboe

140 dieulafoys lesion arteriovenous malformation

141 the commonest deformity in ctev is equinovarus

142 histologically tumour osteoid is found in osteosarcoma

143 swan neck deformity is seen in rheumatoid arthrits

144 PTH does not lead to increased tubular reabsorption of phosphates

145 radiograph shows looser zones in osteomalcia

146 caries sicca = shoulder tb

147 not a external fixator knowles pin

148 spondylolysis=defect in pars interarticularis

149 thomas splint intially used for immobilisation in treatment of tb of knee joint

150 inter trochanteric # complications except non union it should be mal union

151 dysphonia plica ventricularis voice produced by ventricular folds

152 lupus of larynx mostly affects anterior part

153 thumb sign =acute epiglottis

154
herpangina= coxsachie

155 recruitment phenomenon=menieres disease

156 gate way of tears =killian dehiscence

157 cold caloric test is done with dundas grant tube

158 early laryngeal cancer which neither impaired cord mobility nor invaded cartilage orcervical lymph nodes is best treated by hemilaryngectomy

159 tripod #=zygoma

160 gelles test= otosclerosi

161aqueos flare in iridocyclitis is due to proteins
162 lasik=excimer

163 cobblestone apperance=spring catarrah

164 sub conjuctival hemorrhage in children is seen with whooping cough

165 acute hydrops is seen in keratoconus

166 ciliary staphyloma is due to scleritis

167 drugs efective against chlamydia except
ivermectin

168 gram negative diplobacilli=moraxella lacunata

169 hema=soft lens

170 corneal thickness=pachymeter

171 brow presentation mento vertical

172 not true abt nonoxynol-9 as contraceptive failure rate is 10/hwy

173 not correct aboutpop mainly cause ovulation

174 hormone releasing iucd mirenareleases 20 micro gram levonorgestrol

175 life span of cut -380 a=10 years

176 lymphatics from glans of clitoris drain directly into external iliac
177 mrkh except inguinal testis

178 nulli parous with third degree prolapse= shirodkars operation

179 not present in kallman syndrome=b/l absence of vas deferens

180 present in pcos except raised serum hormone binding globulin

181 brenner tumour=epithelial tumour

182 acidity of vagina=doderlein bacilli

183 HCG are increased in all except endodermal sinus tumour

184 all are cause of deep dyspareunia except senile atrophy of vagina due to menopause

185 inferior vesical artery does not contribute to formation of azygous arteries of vagina

186in pregancy least cvs disease with maternal mortality among options pda

187 risk of scar rupture in lscs=.2to 1.5%

188 drug contraindicated in pregnany in malaria=primaquine

189 serum creatine is decreased during pregnancy

190 dangerous placenta previtype 2 posterior

191 obstetric conjugate= distance betweninner surface of pubis to sacral promontry

192 couvelaire uterus =severe form of concealed haemorrhage

193 multi gravida 20 wks hb 6 pregnant ideal management= parentral iron therapy

194 precipitate labour 1 +2 stage less than 2 hours

195 for USD OF CHRONIC POLYHYDRAMINOS ,afi should be more than 25 cm

196 all assoc wit oligohydraminos except rhesus

197 not a feature or severe pre eclampsia =convulsions

198 for rhesus positive new born of rhesus negative mother all are indications for exchange transfusion except total bilirubin level 10 mg/dl

199 during normal involution uterus beomes pelvic organ by 2 weeks

200 after 72 hours of unprotected coitus emergency contraception of choice cu-T

489 - AP PG 2013 paper Mcqs with answers part 2

6.extra renal manifestations of ADPKD include all except
A.saccular aneurysms
B.aortic root and annulus dilation
C.colonic diverticulae
D.splenic cysts
Answer.d.splenic cysts.

7.a unique form of hemolytic anemia (with spur cells and acanthocytes) can occur in patients with severe alcoholic hepatitis . This is called as
A.kostamann's syndrome
B.zieve's syndrome
C.seckel syndrome
D.dubowitz syndrome
Answer.b.zieve's syndrome.

8.aplastic anemia with pancreatic insufficiency and malabsorption is seen in
A.fanconi's anemia
B.dyskeratosis congenita
C.shwachman diamond syndrome
D.diamond Blackfan syndrome
Ans.c.shwachman diamond syndrome

9.hemorrhagic cystitis is a dreaded complication with use of
A.clobazam
B.cyclosporin A
C.cycloserine
D.cyclophosphamide
Ans.d.cyclophosphamide.

488 - AP PG 2013 Paper Mcqs with answers part 1

1.Non pancreatic gastrinomas are mostly located in
A.duodenum
B.stomach
C.liver
D.heart
Answer.a.duodenum.

2.the holiday heart syndrome which typically appears after a drinking binge manifests most frequently as
A.heart failure
B.atrial fibrillation
C.complete heart block
D.sudden death
Answer.2.atrial fibrillation.

3.acute kidney injury caused by acyclovir is due to
A.tubular necrosis
B.tubular obstruction
C.acute interstitial nephritis
D.all the above
Answer.d.all the above.

4.lesch-nyhan syndrome is characterised by all except
A.hyperuricemia
B.self mutilation behaviour
C.choreoathetosis
D.partial deficiency of HPRT
Answer.d.partial deficiency of HPRT.

5.hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except
A.drugs
B.pituitary stalk compression
C.hyperthyroidism
D.renal failure
Answer.hyperthyroidism.

487 - AIIMS November 2012 Mcqs with answers

AIIMS-NOV-2012 TOTAL 200 Q WITH ANS ND EXPL AIIMS NOV 2012

 ANATOMY

 1. True about testis a. Ectodermal origin b. Gubernaculum attached to caudal end c. Surrounded by peritoneal tunica albuginea d. 28th weak reach at scrotum Answer: B (gubernaculum attached to caudal end) Reference: BDC 4th vol 2 p 219

 2. Which nerve does not supply gluteal region a. Sciatic nerve b. Sup gluteal nerve c. Inf gluteal nerve d. Nerve to obturator internus Answer: a (sciatic nerve ) Reference: BDC4th vol 2 p 90

 3. Numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar musles nerve dammaged? a. Palmar cut br of ulnar b. Deep br of ulnar c. Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches d. Post cord of brachial plexus Answer: C (ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches.) Reference: BDC 4th vol 1 p123

 4. "Root value of long thoracic nerve a. C345 b. C567 c. C78 t1 d. C234 Answer: B (C567) Refernce: BDC 4th p53

 5. Loss of extension of little ring finger, hypothenar atrophy a. Post interosseous nerve b. Radial trunk c. Ulnar Nerve d. Median nerve Answer: (c) ulnar nerve. Reference: BDC 4th vol 1 p 117

 6. Structures don’t come during surgery for vasectomy a. Testicular art b. Ilioinguinal nerve c. Autonomic nerves d. Pampiniform plexus Answer. (b) Ilioinguinal nerve Reference. BDC 4/e Vol.II-201, 208-II; Snell’s Clinical Anatomy 7/e p.175-177; Gray’s 38/e p-822]

7. Sternocleidomastoid supplied by all except ( AIIMS –Nov 2008) a. Occipital Artery b. Sup thyroid Artery c. Post Auricular Artery d. Thyrocervical trunk Answer: c.(posterior auricular artery.) Reference: AKD 4th EDITION Part2 page 118 , BDC 4th /e Vol3 P. 73

8. All of the following organs develop in the mesentery of stomach except: Liver Spleen Kidney Pancreas Answer.(c)' Kidney [Reference: I.B. Singh embryology 8/e p166-169, 237; Longman's embryology 11/e p215, 219, 222, 236; Moore's embryology 7/ep 259-266, 288]

9. Abnormal no of vertebra possible with all except a. Cervical b. Thoracic c. Lumbar d. Sacral Answer. (b) Thoracic Reference: Gray’s Anatomy 40th Edition Page 713, 728

10. Ciliary muscle develops from a. Surface ectoderm b. Neural crest mesenchyme c. Endoderm d. Neuroectoderm Answer: (d) Neural crest mesenchyme Reference: Langman Embryology 11 Edition Pg. 337

11. Epiglottis develop from a. 1st pharyngeal arch b. 2nd pharyngeal arch c. 3rd pharyngeal arch d. 4th pharyngeal arch Answer: (d) 4th pharyngeal arch Reference: Langman Embryology 11 Edition pg. 277

PHYSIOLOGY

12.Which is not second messenger? a. cAMP b. IP3 c. Guanylyl cyclase d. Diacylglycerol Answer. (c) Guanylyl cyclase Reference : Ganong 22nd edition, pages 37, 42, 43

13.Regarding blood supply increase in exercise muscle all except a. Local metabolite b. Sympathetic stimulation c. Cholinergic d. Inhibition of beta receptor Answer. (B) sympathetic stimulation Reference : Ganong 22nd edition, pages 632, 633, 602

14.End diastolic volume increases in a. Decrease in total blood volume b. Increase in intrapericardial pressure c. Increase in negative intrathoracic pressure d. Decrease in ventricular compliance Answer. (C) increase in negative intrathoracic pressure Reference : Ganong 22nd edition, page 573

15.Right axis deviation seen in a. Lying down position b. Thin and tall c. Obese person d. Exercise Answer. (B) thin and tall Reference : Guyton, 11th edition, page 138

16.Internal carotid artery ligation below the carotid sinus a. Increase in vasomotor centre activity b. Increase in discharge of carotid sinus afferent nerves c. Increase in vagal parasympathetic activity Answer. (A) increase in vasomotor centre activity Reference : Ganong 22nd edition, pages 605, 606, 607

17. Self stimulation a. Medial forebrain bundle b. Area around aqueduct of sylvius c. PV region of hypothalamus d. Radical radiotherapy Answer. (A) Medical forebrain bundle Reference: Reference : Ganong 22nd edition, pages 260

18. Kinemyograhy is used for: a. Monitoring of neuromuscular function b. Monitoring of muscle spindle activity c. Monitoring of Exercize capacity d. Not Recalled Answer: A Reference:http://faculty.washington.edu/ramaiahr/Review%20Articles/Neuromuscular%20Monitoring-Update-1.pdf

19. A politician is shot in the back during a rally at level of T8 vertebra.immediately after the shot he loses all the sensation below level of lesion. As the examining doctor you realize there is no chance of improvement in neurological function this can be due to all except a. Lack of endoneural tubes b. Lack of growth factors c. Presence of glial scar d. Lack of myelin inhibiting substance Answer. (d) lack of myelin inhibiting substance Reference: Surgery of the Spinal Cord: Potential for Regeneration and Recovery: Robert N. N. Holtzman, Bennett M. Stein

20. Which is True about dobutamine? a. Dobutamine decreases peripheral resistance b. Acts on D1 & D2 receptors c. Decrease kidney circulation d. Has no effect on coronary circulation Answer. (a) Dobutamine decreases peripheral resistance Reference: Harrison 18th edition/chapter 234/ heart failure and cor-pulmonal

BIOCHEMISTRY 21. Liver enzyme dephosphorylation to phosphorylation true is- a. Always activates the enzyme b. Catecholamines stimulate it c. More commonly seen in fasting state than in fed state d. Always activated by cAMP dependent Protein kinase Answer is (d) : Always activated by cAMP dependent Protein kinase. Reference: vasudevan 6 edi page chap 523 22. Nanotechnology true except a. Narrow emission spectra b. Narrow gap between absorbance and re-emission c. Not recalled d. Not recalled For nanotechnology visit our website pgdiams.com 23. No loss of genetic material occurs in a. Deletion b. Insertion c. Substitution d. Inversion Answer (d) Inversion 24. Patient present with skin bullae on sun exposure. The defect is of? a. Thymidine dimmers b. Trinucleotide repeats c. Sugar changes d. DNA methylation Answer.: (d) DNA methylation or DNA damage can be the answer. Reference: harpr’s Illustrated biochemistry 27/ep-345 -46 25. True about RIBOZYME a. Pepitdyl transfuse activity b. Cut DNA at specific site c. Portiapate in DNA synthesis d. GTPase Answer: A, Pepitdyl transfuse activity Reference; John Baynes 3/e pg-441; Lippincott 4th /ed pg-435-39; Harper 28th /ed pg-363] 26. Test to differentiate in the chromosome of normal & cancer cells a. PCR b. Comparative genomic hybridization c. Western Blotting d. Southern Blotting Answer. (B) : Comparative genomic hybridization Reference: Harrison 18th edition/chapter 62 27. Enzymes fond in CSF a. GGT+ALP b. ALP+CK-MB c. CK+LDH d. Deaminase and Peroxidase Answer (c) CK and LDH (Reference: Cerebrospinal Fluid in Clinical Practice By David N. Irani; Chapter 10.) 28. Which of the following is seen in association with membrane raft a. Mannose binding protein b. GTP associated receptor c. GPI anchored protein Answer (C) GPI anchored protein References’ I. Hartlova, A., Cerveny, L., Hubalek, M., Krocova, Z. and Stulik, J. Membrane rafts: a potential gateway for bacterial entry into host cells. Microbiol. Immunol., 54, 237-245 (2010) II. Merrill, A.H. Sphingolipids. In: Biochemistry of Lipids, Lipoproteins and Membranes (5th Edition). pp. 363-397 (Vance, D.E. and Vance, J. (editors), Elsevier, Amsterdam) (2008). PATHOLOGY 29. Flow cytometry is done in: a. Polycythemia b. Thrombocytosis c. Neutrophilia d. Lymphocytosis Answer: (d) Lymphocytosis Reference: Robbins 8th ed. Page 603 – 604 30. Which of these does not indicate megaloblastic anemia a. Increased reticulocyte count b. Raised Bilirubin c. Mild splenomegaly d. Nucleated RBC Answer:- A. Increased Reticulocyte Count Reference: Robbins edition 8th edition, page no 655. / Harrison table 105-1 /18th edition/chapter 105 31. Myelo-fibrosis leading to a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration is seen with which of the following condition a. Burkitt’s lymphoma b. Acute erythroblastic leukemia c. Acute megakaryocytic leukemia d. Acute undifferentiated leukemia Answer: (c) Acute megakaryocytic leukemia. Reference: Robbins Page 6e22 32. Receptor on neuronal membrane that induces development of Glioma a. CD44 b. CD133 c. CD33 d. CD24 Answer : (b) CD133 Reference: http://cdn.intechopen.com/pdfs/14462/InTech-Glioma_stem_cells_cell_culture_markers_and_targets_for_new_combinationtherapies.pdf 33. CD 95 is a marker of a. Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis b. Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis c. Necrosis of cell d. Not recalled Answer. (b) Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis Reference: Robbins 8thedpg 29 - 30 34. Marker of myeloid cancers a. S100 b. HMB45 c. Common leukocyte antigen d. Cyto-keratin Answer. (C) Common leukocyte antigen 35. Adult Patient presents with Generalized lymphadenopathy and blood film shows 70% immature looking lymphocytes a. Genotyping/karyotyping b. Immunophenotyping c. Bone marrow d. Peripheral smear study Answer. B, Immuno-phenotyping Reference: Robbins 8th ed.Page 604 36. Most common fixative used in electron microscopy a. Glutaraldehyde b. Formalin c. Picric acid d. Absolute Alcohol Answer. (A) Glutaraldehyde Reference: Reference: (http://www.abdn.ac.uk/emunit/emunit/fixatives.htm) 37. In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is a. Hyaline degeneration b. Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis c. Glomerulosclerosis d. Fibrillary glomerulonephritis Answer: B, Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis Reference: Robins Page 950-951 38. Staining done for sebaceous cell carcinoma ? a. Oil Red O b. PAS c. Methamine silver d. Not Recalled Answer:(a) , Oil Red O Reference: Robbins Page 1177 39. Mutation in CoL4A5 chain the diagnosis a. Alports syndrome b. Good pasture’s syndrome c. Thin membrane disease d. Nodular glomerulosclerosis Answer: Alport’s syndrome Reference: Robbins 7th Edition p 988, 989, /Robbins 8th Edition p. 931, 932 40. Person having heterozygous sickle cell trait are protected from infection of a. P. falciparum b. P. viavax c. Pneumococcous d. Solmonella Answer: (a) P. Falciparum Ref. Robbin 8th Edition pg. 645 41. Hyperacute rejection is due to a. Preformed antibodies b. Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte medicated injury c. Circulating macrophage mediated injury d. Endothelitis caused by donor antibodies Answer: (a) Preformed antibodies Reference: Robbins 8th Edition /Pg. 228 42. True all except a. Omega-3 fatty acid (abundant in fish oil) decrease LDL b. Atherosclerosis in less important in age more than 45 years age c. Cigarette smoking is independent risk factor for M.I d. Not recalled Answer: (b) Atherosclerosis in less important in age more than 45 year’s age Reference: Robbin 8th Edition pg. 497 PHARMACOLOGY 43. Mechanism of gentamicin toxicity a. Direct hair cell toxicity b. Binds to hair cell Na+ K+ ATPAase c. Non-cummulative toxicity d. Bind to Ca+2 channel Answer (a) Direct hair cell toxicity (Reference: Dhikav V, Drugs of Choice’ 2013, 5th Ed, AITBS Publishers, Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment’ 2012, pp-87-88) 44. -rho kinase inhibitor a. Fasudil b. Ranolazine c. Amiloride d. Nicorandil Answer: (a) Fasudil (Reference: Dhikav V, Drugs of Choice’ 2013, list of new drugs, 5th Ed, Dhikav V, Newer Drugs’ 2012, 2nd Ed, Elsevier’s sciences, India, www.wikepedia.com) 45. Best agent for premenstrual syndrome management? a. Progesterone b. ANXIOLYTIC c. SSRI d. vitamin E Answer (c) SSRI Reference: Dikav V, Drugs of Choice, 5th Ed, 2013, AITBS Publishers, India 46. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistamine? a. Cetrizine b. Cyclizine c. Loratidine d. Fexofenadine Answer (b) Cyclizine (Reference: Dhikav V, Drugs of Choice’ 2013, 5th Ed, AITBS Publishers, Current Medical Diagnosis & Treatment’ 2012, pp-288-89) 47. Expanded spectrum betalactam resistance drug used a. Amoxicillin –clavulinic acid b. Cefepime c. Piperacillin-Tazobactam d. Ceftriaxone Answer (B)Cefepime (Reference: Dhikav V, Drugs of Choice’ 2013, 5th Ed, AITBS Publishers, BG Katzung’s Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 11th Ed, pp-599) 48. Lidocaine all are true except a. It acts on sodium channels in both active and inactive state b. It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic c. It is given iv in cardiac arrhythmias Answer (b)It is most cardiotoxic local anesthetic (Reference: Dhikav V, Drugs of Choice’ 2013, 5th Ed, AITBS Publishers, Lee’s Synopsis of anesthesia, pp 59) 49. Unfavourable are all except a. Omeprazole-reducing acid secretion b. Methotrexate inhibiting folate c. Barbiturates-dec B12 absorption d. Antihistaminic overdose is safe Answer d: Antihistaminic overdose is save Reference: (BG Katzung’s Basic & Clinical Pharmacology 6th Ed 2009, pp-678) 50. Drug not given to glaucoma patient who is on beta blockers a. Brimonidine b. Dorzolamide c. Levobunolol d. Acetazolamide Answer (c): Levobunolol (Reference: Dhikav V, Drugs of Choice’ 2013, 5th Ed, AITBS Publishers, Lipincott’s Pharmacology, pp-78, BG Katzung’s Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, pp-789) MICRO 51. Aerosol spread leading to epidemics a. Legionella b. Hemophilus c. Influenza d. Mycoplasma Answer. is (c) Influenza. 52. Which of the following features is not shared between ‘T cells’ and B cells’ a. Positive selection during development b. Class I MHC Expression c. Antigen Specific Receptors d. All of the above Answer is (a) Positive selection during development Reference: 'Lippincott 'v Immunology' (IllustratedReviews)2007/1 13; The Immune Response: Basic and clinical principles by Sounders (2005)/346; 'Elements of Immunology' by Fahim Halim Khan (Pearson Education)2009/206 53. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis the following statements are true except a. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples b. B. fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to Metronidazole c. The lipoolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional Endotoxin d. Shock and DIC are common in Bacteroides bacteremia Answer. D Shock and DIC are common in Bacteroides bacteremia Reference: Jawetz 25/e p 273-278; Harrison 18/e p 1079} 54. A former from the sub-Himalayan region presents with multiple leg ulcers. The most likely causative agent is: a. Trichophyton Rubrum b. Cladosporium species c. Sporothrix Schenkii d. Aspergillus Answer (c) (Sporothrix Shenkii): Ananthanarayanan 8th 609; Reference: Harrison 's 18th /1664; Journal of Neglected Tropical Diseases ; vol 6.6; June 2012; 'Sporotrichosis in sub- Himalayan India (PLOS Negl. Trop Dis. 2012 Junne 6 (6): e 1673 55. Farmer presents with the features of high fever painful inguinal lymphodenopathy, vomiting and diarrhea and hypotension. Which stain will help in the diagnosis a. Neisser stain b. Wayson’s stain c. Alberts stain d. McFadyean’s stain Answer.B, Wayson’s stain Ref. Harrison 17th /e.p. 983 56. Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria have no part in pathogensis of disease a. E. coli b. Klebsiella c. Vibrio cholera d. Pseudomonas Answer (C) Vibrio cholera-: Ananthnarayanan 8th /307; Reference; Lippincort's Microbiology 2nd/'18; MI MS pathogenesis of Infectious Diseases 57. Which of the following agent is not used in erectile dysfunction a. PGE2 b. Vardalafil c. Phenylephrine d. Alprostadil Answer: (c)Phenylephrine Reference: Harrison /17th Edition Pg.299, KDT/6th Edition Pg. 295-296 58. True about Penicillin G a. It can be given orally b. It is has broad spectrum activity c. Used for treatment rate bite fever d. Probenecid given along with PnG decrease its direction of action Answer: (c) Used for treatment of Rate Bile fever Reference: Katzung 10th Edi. Pg. 726-731: KDT 6th Ed. Pg 694-697 59. Cholinomimetic NOT used for a. Open angle Glaucoma b. Bradycardia c. Cobra bite d. Myasthenia gravis Answer: (b) Bradycardia Reference: Katzung 11 Edition, KDT 6 Edition pg. 104 60. Side effect HAART therapy all are except a. Steatosis b. Lipodytrophy c. Optic neuritis d. Increased cholesterol Answer: (c) Optic neuritis Reference: Gobind Garg Pharmacology 4th Edition pg. 468 FSM 61. Fracture of teeth and some injury around mouth a. Simple injury b. Grievous injury c. Dangerous injury d. Assult Answer (B): Grievous Injury: Reference: Reddy 29th Edition Page 261 62. Person had a fight with a neighbor where he assaulted him, he can be booked under ipc a. IPC 44 b. IPC351 c. IPC319 d. IPC320 Answer. (B)351 Reference: Reddy 29th Edition Page 351 44 IPC- injury definitions 319- Hurt 320- Grievous Hurt 351- Assault 63. Double base smokeless gun powder contains a. Nitrocellulose n nitroglycerine b. Pot nitranate n nitro c. Pot nitrate n lead d. Nitro cellulose Answer (a) nitrocellulose n nitroglycerine Reference. : forensic reddy 29th Edition 192 page 64. Blue white colour in UV rays is seen in a. Semen b. Blood c. Pus d. Leucorrhoea Answer: (a) Semen Reference: Forensic Sci. Int. Vol. 51, p.289 (1991) Reference : Stoilivic, M. “Detection of Semen and Blood Stains Using Polilight as a Light Source” 65. A conceptus material (Fetus) by police has been brought of 2cm length and 10 gm weight. What is the age? a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 5 weeks d. 6 weeks Answer. (d) 6 weeks Reference: Forensic Reddy Page No: 76 66. Choking is seen in a. Revolver b. Pistol c. Shotgun d. Rifle Answer: (c) Shotgun Reference: Parikh Forensic 6/ep 4.33, Reddy 29/epi 89. ENT 67. Laser uvulopalatoplasty done for a. Snoring b. Pharyngotonsillitis c. Cleft palate d. Stammering Answerwer- A. Snoring References 1. Elsevier’s ENT SECRETS page no 176 and 68. Cochlear implant is to be done if following is intact? a. Outer hair cell b. Inner hair cell c. Spiral ganglion cell d. Auditory nerve Answer- (d). Auditory nerve References : Dr Agarwal’s ENT, page no 48 . Quote from the book “for the cochlear implant to function the neural pathway has to be intact”. 69. Third window effect is seen in which of these a. Perforated tympanum b. Dehiscent superior semicircular canal c. Round window d. Oval window Answer- (b) Dehiscent superior semicircular canal Reference 1. Glasscock-Shambaugh surgery of the ear. Page no 62. 70. Pseudosulcus in larynx a. Vocal abuse b. Tuberculosis c. Larangapharangeal reflux d. Chronic steroid use Answer-C. laryngopharyngeal reflex. Reference -1. (Laryngopharyngeal Reflux): Ballenger’s Otorhinolaryngology 17th / 886, ‘ Head and Neck Surgery Otolaryngology’ by Bailey 4th / 833, 834. 71. High frequency audiometry used in ? a. Otosclerosis b. Ototoxicity c. Otosclerosis d. Meniers's disease Answer: (b) Ototoxicity Reference: Audiology By Ross J. Roeser, Michael Valente, Holly Hosford-Dunn 2/ep242; Ototoxicity By Peter S. Roland, John A. Rutka p 154] OPTHA 72. Most common complication after lens extraction in persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous is a. Orbital cellulite b. Retinal detachment c. Vitreous hemorrhage d. Keratitis Answer (b) Retinal detachment Reference: nelson 18th edition/chapter 629 73. In corneal ulcer, what is not to be given a. Chlorophenicol b. Methylcellulose c. Flumetasone d. Not recalled Answer: (c) Flumetasone Reference: Corneal Ulceration and Ulcerative Keratitis in Emergency Medicine Medication/http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/798100-medication 74. Disability certificate for poor vision if 4/60 a. 100 b. 75 c. 40 d. 30 Answer: (b 75 Ref. Guidelines for Assessment of Visual Disability, NIOH, GOI 75. Patient was 20 year old male present with photophobia & Subnormal electrophysiological response? a. Stargardt disease b. Batten disease c. Cone dystrophy d. Chloroquine toxicity Answer; (c) Cone dystrophy Reference: Chapter 620 and 629 /nelson textbook of pediatrics 76. Protozoa can affect eye a. E. histolytica b. Toxoplasmosis c. G. lamblia d. E. coli Answer (b) Toxoplasmosis Reference: Harrison 18th edition/chapter 214 77. Secondary Glaucoma,Iris atrophy, Fixed dilated pupil a. Benedict syndrome b. Posner shlosman synd c. Fuchs Heterochromic Iridocyclitis d. Uveitic glaucoma Answer (b) Posner schlossman syndrome Reference: Posner-Schlossman Syndrome – http//emedicine.medscape.com/article/1205949 78. Tonometer with variation in application surface a. Mackey Mar tonometer b. Rebound tonometer c. Dreger’s tonometer d. Maklakov tonometer Answer (d) Maklakov tonometer Reference: Page no 80 Pearls of Glaucoma Management Edited by JoAnn A. Giaconi, Simon K. Law, Anne L. Coleman, Joseph Caprioli P.S.M 79. Sampling schools then sections then students a. Stratified sampling b. Simple random sampling c. Cluster sampling d. Multistage sampling Answer: (D) Multistage sampling Reference: The Basics of Social Research by Babbie, 5th Ed., Pg 234 80. Transition from increased prevalence of infectious pandemic diseases to manmade disease a. Paradoxic transition b. Reversal of transition c. Epidemiological transition d. Demographic transition Answer. (C) Epidemiological transition Reference: Epidemiology for Public Health Practice by Friis & Sellers, 1st Ed., Pg 58 81. Mass chemoprophylaxis is not given for one of the following a. Lymphatic filariasis b. Plague c. Vit A deficiency d. Scabies Answer. (D)Scabies [Reference: Park 21/e p248, 271, 592, 722 Wikipedia. org, www. wellsphere. com/general-medicine-article/mass-drug-prophylaxis-against-filariasis/877981] 82. District population 10lac,with under-16 are 30%,prevalence of blindness is 0.8/1000 of under-16 population. Calculate no. of blind under-16? a. 240 b. 2400 c. 24000 d. 240000 Answer. (a) 240 Reference. Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine by K Park, 21st Ed., Pg 58 83. True regarding tetanus except a. Tetanus no use if previous unimmunized b. Herd immunity present c. Can’t be eradicated d. Elimination is less than 1 case per 1000 births Answer. (B) herd immunity present Reference. Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine by K Park, 21st Ed., Pg 284-288 84. Current percent of Indian GDP spent on health? a. 1.2 b. 2 c. 10 d. 15 Answer. (B) 2 Reference. Planning Commission of India, GOI 85. BIRADS a. Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System b. Best Imaging Reporting and Data System c. Brain Imaging Reporting and data system d. best imaging reporting and data system Answer. (a) Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System Reference: Primary Care for Women by Leppert & Piepert, 2nd Ed., Pg 203 86. Which of the following is the least likely cause of neonatal mortality in India: a. Prematurity b. Infection c. Birth asphyxia d. Congenital anomalies Answer. (D) Congenital anomalies [Reference: Park SPM 21/e p521, 524 (20/e p485, 489)] {References: http://www.censusindia.gov.inA>ital_statistics/SRS_Bulletins/MMR_release_ 070711.pdf http://www. censusindia.gov. in/http://www. who. int/healthinfo/statistics/mortality_neonatal/en/index. html] 87. Population of 5000. 500 are already myopic on January 1, 2011. no. of new myopic cases till December 31,2011 is 90.Calculate incidence a. 0.018 b. 0.02 c. 0.05 Answer. (B) 0.02 Reference. Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine by K Park, 21st Ed., Pg 57 88. Current cancer patient in India reported annually a. 0.5 million b. 1 million c. 5 million d. 10 million Answer. (B) 1 million Reference. Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine by K Park, 21st Ed., Pg 354 89. In a certain population, there were 4050 births in the last one year. There were 50 still births. 50 infants died within 7 days whereas 150 died within the first 28 days. What is the Neontatal mortality rate? a. 50 b. 62.5 c. 12.5 d. 49.4 Answer: (A) 50 Reference: Park SPM 20/e p486] 90. Which is a MDG a. Reduce by 2/3rd,the under five mortality by year 1990-2015 b. Half the prevalence of HIV-AIDS by 2015 c. Reduce maternal mortality by 50% d. Combat PEM & Diarrhoea Answer: (a) Reduce by 2/3rd,the under five mortality by year 1990-2015 Reference. Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine by K Park, 21st Ed., Pg 27, 830 91. Trachoma screening age a. 0- 5 years b. 5 – 15 c. 5 -10 d. 1 to9 years Answer. (d) 1 to 9 years Reference. Trachoma Surveillance Annual Report 2008. 92. NPCDCS a. Seperate centre for stroke, DM, b. Implementation in some 5 states over 10 district c. CHC has facilities for diagnosis and treatment of CVD, Diabetes Answer. (C) CHC has facilities for diagnosis and treatment of CVD, Diabetes Reference. NPCDCS Operational Guidelines, DGHS, GOI, Pg 6 93. Rashtriya Suraksa Bima Yojna a. Applies to BPL only b. 30000 per family member c. 75% premium borne by family d. Implemented all over India Answer. (A) Applies to BPL only Reference . RSBY website, GOI 94. HIV sentinel surveillance used to calculate a. High risk b. Prevalence c. Trend finding d. All of the above Answer. (d) All of the above Ref. Textbook of Preventive & Social Medicine by K Park, 21st Ed., Pg 38, 398 95. Disease with low prevalence, high incidence, true is : a. Highly curable / fatal b. Not curable/ not fatal c. Incidence and prevalence unrelated to each other d. Calculation of incidence or prevalence is incorrect Answer. A. highly curable / fatal [Ref. K Park, 21st Ed., pg 58] 96. 200 population, (range 70-90) at 1 SD how many people would be included a. 134 b. 140 c. 150 d. 190 Answer. A. 134 [Reference. K Park, 21st Ed., pg 788] 97. Roll back malaria all except a. Insecticide nets b. Strengthening health system c. Develop new insecticide d. Training health workers Answer. NONE [Reference. WHO Roll Back Malaria Document] 98. Highest mean lowest mode a. Positive skewing b. Negative skewing c. Normal d. Symmetrical Answer. a. positive skewing [Reference. Statistics: Essentials for Research by Klugh, Pg 36] 99. True about OPV all except a. We get quick immune response b. It is a live vaccine c. It is used in epidemic d. Maternal antibody interfere with immune response Answer: (d) Maternal antibody interfere with immune response Reference: Park 21th Edition Page No. 188 100. If the prevalence is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease. It implies a. Disease is very fatal and /or easily curable b. Disease is non fatal c. Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong d. Nothing can be said as they are independent Answer: (a) disease in very fatal and /or easily curable Reference: K Park 21 Edition pg 58 ORTHOPEDIC 101. Forced abduction from the lateral aspect of the knee causes a fracture. The fracture line is passing through the intercondylar eminence. Which of the following structures will most likely be injured? a. Medial collateral ligament b. Lateral collateral ligament c. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Medial meniscus Answer – (c) Anterior curciate ligament Reference: Campbell's Operative Orthopaedics, 11th Edition 102. The ligaments connecting the menisci to the tibia are known as – a. Coronary b. Arcuate c. Transverse d. Oblique Answer – (a) Coronary Reference: Turek's Orthopaedics: Principles And Their Application , 6th edition 103. Ankle sprain due to forced inversion of a plantar flexed foot is due to injury to – a. Anterior talofibular ligament b. Posterior talofibular ligament c. Calcaneofibular ligament d. Posterior fibres of deltoid Answer – (a) Anterior talfibular ligament Reference: www.orthopaedicsplus.in 104. Dennis stability concept is based on which of the following? a. 2 column b. 3 column c. 4 column d. 5 column Answer – (b) 3 column Reference: www.jbjs.org 105. A young male after sudden unconsciousness, on awakening, finds that both of his arms were adducted and internally rotated. The most probable diagnosis is a. Anterior dislocation b. Posterior dislocation c. Greater tuberosity fracture d. Rotator cuff injury Answer – (b) Posterior dislocation Reference: Orthopaedics Clinics of North America 106. After a brawl, a young male presented with inability to extend his distal interphalangeal joint. An X-ray was taken and was shown to be normal. What should be the next step in managing the patient? a. Splint b. Surgery c. Wax bath d. Ignore Answer – (a) Splint Reference: Mallet Finger 107. A 12-year old boy presents with a symmetric, expansile cystic lesion in the proximal humerus. All of the following can be done for his treatment except – a. Curettage b. Intralesional steroids c. Intralesional sclerosing agents d. Radiotherapy Answer. : (d) Radiotherapy SKIN 108. A young man with asymptomatic macules and papule over trunk and reddish patch over palate with a flat, moist lesion on glans penis.patient has generalised lymphadenopathy. What is line of management? a. Ceftriax b. Benzathine penicillin c. Acyclovir d. Fluconazole Answer. (b) : Benzathine penicillin Reference: Harrison 17e P-1038-45; CMDT-2004-1386: Fitzpatrick’s Dermatology in General Medicine 6/e p-2164-2212; Rooks Textbook of Dermatology 7/e p.30.1, 35 25.20-39] 109. 50yr old male present with bulla on body and oral mucosa. Lesion present in a. Intradermal b. Suprabasal c. Epidermal d. Sub corneal Answer. (b) Suprabasal Reference: Harrison’s 17/e p-336; Thomas Habif Clinical Dermatology 4/e p. 549; Fitzpatrick 7/e p. 45-47, 349, 459-84, 1714, 1878, 1892; Rooks textbook of Dermatology 8/e p. 40.3-40.64] 110. Patient with urticaria on sun exposure. a. Cholinergic urticaria a. Atopic reaction b. Photo dermatitis c. SolarUrticari Answer. (A) Cholinergic Urticaria Reference: Roxburgh’s –common Skin disease 17/ep. 71-75; pasricha-Treatment of skin disease 4/e p. 144-150; Harrison 16/e p. 305-306; Fitzpatrick’s Dermatology in General Medicine 6/e p=1181-1203; Rooks Textbook of Dermatology 7/e p. 47.1-47.29] ANESTHESIA 111. EEG monitoring done in a. General anesthesia b. Regional anaesthesia c. Neuro anesthesia d. Analgesia Answer. (c)Neuroanaesthesia Reference:Clinical Anaesthesiology, Morgan, 4th Ed. , Pg 144-146 Lee's Synopsis of Anaesthesia, 12th Ed. , Pg. 443-447 112. ASA grade in hypertensive pt which is controlled a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1 Answer. (a) : 2 Reference: Clinical Anaesthesiology, Morgan, 4th Ed. , Pg 10, table 1-5 Lee' Synopsis. of anaesthesia, 12th. Ed. , Pg 7-8 113. Modified allen test at a. Wrist b. Arm c. Elbow d. Forearm Answer. (a). wrist Reference : Clinical Anaesthesiology, Morgan, 4th Ed. , Pg 123-124 114. MOST POTENT analgesic agent among following a. Nitrous oxide b. Nitric oxide c. Co2 d. Oxygen Answer. (a) Nitrous oxide Reference : Clinical anaesthesia , Barash, 5th Ed. , Pg 396-397 115. Dose of which neuromuscular blocking agent in a obese female requires calculation of actual body wt is required instead of average body weight a. atracuronium b. vecuronium c. pancuronium d. rocurium Answer: None…… The correct answer should be succinyl choline, the only neuromuscular blocking agent which is dosed by the total body weight rather than the ideal body weight Reference: Clinical Anaesthesiology, Morgan, 4th Ed. , Pg 814-815 116. A Child is intubated for craniotomy. During surgery after 2 min, bellows of anaesthetic machine collapses. Next step? a. ventilate manually b. continue the operation c. use bigger size tube d. Increase flow Answer. (a) Ventilate manually Reference: Anaesthesia Faculty / Senior Resident Trauma Unit AIIMS 117. A infant present with respiratory distress, was intubated. The fastest and accurate method to confirm intubation a. Capnography b. Clinically by auscultation c. Chest readiography d. Airway pressure measurement Answer: Capnography Reference: Morgan 4th Edition pg. 590-93 RADIO 118. True about MRCP all are except a. Entire biliary tree and pancreatic duct are seen in single MRCP b. T2 weighted images are used for bile & pancreatic secretions in biliary tree c. MRCP has less spatial resolution than ERCP d. Gadolinium based contrast is not used Answer (a) Entire biliary tree and pancreatic duct are seen in single MRCP Reference: Cancer Imaging volume 2 by M.A. Hayat 119. Ionizing radiation affects which stage of cell cycle e. G2 S f. G1 G2 g. G2 M h. G0 G1 Answer: C, G2M Reference: Harrison 17th Page 516. PSYCHIATRY 120. 14 year old boy is not able to get good grades on 9th standard exam. But he is very sharp and intelligent. Best test to diagnose his problem? a. Child behaviour checklist b. Bhatia's battery c. Specific learning disability test d. Child behaviour battery Answer. (c) Specific learning disability test Reference: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 09th Edition page 3495-3499 121. In insomnia patient sleep most acurately recorded by a. Barogragph b. Kymograph c. Actigraphy d. Plethysmography Answer: (C) Actigraphy Reference: Taber’s Cyclopedic Medical Dictionary 21 Edition page 36 122. Male started alcohol at 20 years, presently taking 3 quarters daily over 30 years, now complains that he gets the kick in 1 quarter, diagnosis a. Withdrawl b. Mallenby phenomenon c. Reverse tolerance d. Cross tolerance Answer. (c) reverse tolerance Reference: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 09th Edition page 1271 123. Knowledge of own disease/illness in Mental status examination a. Insight b. Orientation c. Judgement d. Rapport Answer. (a) Insight Reference: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 09th Edition page 897 124. Child not eating vegetables. His mother starts giving a chocolate each time he finishes vegetables in the diet. the condition is a. Operant conditioning b. Classical conditioning c. Social training d. Negative reinforcement Answer. (a) operant conditioning Reference: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 09th Edition page 2791-92 125. All are true regarding Fronto temporal dementia except a. Stereotypic movement b. Loss of insight c. Less than 65 years d. Changes in mood Answer. (a) Stereotypic movement Reference: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 09th Edition page 1194-98 126. Cognitive decline in old age due to a. Homocysteine b. Methionine c. Cysteine d. Taurine Answer. (A) Homocysteine [Reference: Harrison 16/e P. 1430, 1432] 127. A Young man is with known heroin addiction is brought in the emergency in unconscious state. On examination his pupil are pin point. What will be the treatment of choice? a. Oral natrexone b. IV naloxone c. Oral diazepam d. Oral Buprenorphine Answer. (b)IV naloxone Reference: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry 09th Edition page 1375-76 & 1384 OBS/GYNAE 128. Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include a. Wertheims hysterectomy b. Schuata’s hysterectomy c. Chemotherapy d. Concurrent Chemoradiation Answer. (d) Concurrent Chemoradiation Reference: William’s Gynae p. 657, 658, 659 129. A female present with 8 week amenorrohea with pain left lower adbomen. On USG thick endometrium with mass in lateral adenexea diagnosis? a. Ectopic pregnancy b. T orsion of dermoid cyst c. Tubo ovarian mass d. Hydrosalpinx Answer. (A) ectopic pregnancy Reference. Shaw 13/e, p 267 130. In a study it is observed that the right ovary ovulates more than the left, all are possible explanation for the cause except a. Anatomical asymmetry b. Difference in blood supply to both sides c. Right handedness is more common in population d. Some embryological basis Answer. (C) Right handedness is more common in population Reference: humrep.oxofordjournal.org/content/12/8/1730.full.pdf] 131. Patient came with vaginal discharge on exam no cervical discharge empirical protocol treament package is a. Metro + fluconazole b. Metro+doxycycline c. Metro + tetracycline d. Metro+azithromycin Answer. (a) metro + fluconazole Reference. Shaw 13/e, p 125,127, 129 132. Leiomyoma of uterus, least likely change to occur a. Red degeneration b. Sarcomatous change c. Fatty generation d. Hyaline generation Answer. (B) Sarcomatous change Reference. Shaw 13/e , p 341 133. Which of the following is seen during heart disease in pregnancy and not during normal pregnancy a. Pedal edema b. Engorged neck veins c. Dyspnea d. Hypotension Answer. (b) Engorged neck veins Reference. Williams Obs. 22/e, p 1019 134. 36 week a female present with amenorhea with blurred vision and headache admission,mx of bp with antihypertensives and delivery at term a. Admit & give antiHTN ,mgso4 and terminate b. Admit & give antiHTN ,mgso4 and Observation c. Only admit & watch pt. d. Give antihtn and send home Answer. (A ) Admitt, give MgSO4, antihypertentensive, and terminate the pregnancy 135. Test not useful in case of tubal pregnancy a. Pelvic examination b. Usg c. Hcg levels d. Hysterosalpingography Answer. (D) Hysterosalpingography Reference. Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 186 136. A 19 year old patient came to the out patient department with complaints of Primary Amenorrhea. She had well develope3d breast and pubic hair. However there was abse3nce of vagina and uterus. Likely diagnosis is a. XYY b. Mullerian agenesis c. Gonadal dysgenesis d. Kleinfelter’s syndrome Answer. Is ‘b’ i.e., Mullerian agenesis [Reference; Shaws text book of Gynaecology 14/e p. 252; Novak’s Gynaecology 14/e p. 1004] 137. At 34 weeks multigravida with previous 2 normal delivery now have unstable lie due to a. Oligohydramnios b. Placenta previa c. Pelvic tumor d. Uterine anomalies Answer.(b) Placenta previa Oligohydraminos does’nt present with unstable lie Reference. Dutta Obs 6/e, p 244 138. Trial of normal labour is contraindicated a. History of previous classical CS b. History of previous CS due to CPD c. No history of prior vaginal delivery d. History of previous CS due to malpresentation Answer. (b) History of previous classical caesarean section Reference. Williams Obs. 21/e, p 542- 543 139. Female with infertility dysparenuia cyclic pain, investigations? a. TVS b. Diagnostic laproscopy c. HSG d. CT/ MRI Answer. (b) diagnostic laparoscopy Reference. Berek and Novak’ 140. Beyond which critical value Shock Index [Heart rate/BP] in pregnancy is considered abnormal? a. 0.9-1.1 b. 0.5 0-.7 c. 0.3-0.5 d. 0.7-0.9 Answer.(A) 0.9-1.1 Reference: http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/168402-differential: 141. All are true except a. Retinal hemorrhage intra cranial hemorrhage and subgaleal hemorrhage are more common in venthouse delivery than forceps b. Vaccum needs more skill than forceps delivery c. Cephal-hematoma is more common with vaccum extraction d. Less maternal trauma by vaccum as compared with forceps Answer: (b) Vaccum needs more skill than forceps delivery Reference: William 22nd Edition Pg. 549 GENERAL MEDICINE 142. A patient on amphotericin B develops hypokalemia of 2.3meq/l. K+ supplementation requires is? a. 40meq over 24 hrs b. 60meq over 24 he's c. 80 meq over 24 hrs d. 120-160meq over 24 hrs Answer (A) 40meq over 24 hrs Reference: Harrison 18th edition, chapter 46 143. A patient with 12cm abscess in liver which was drained under sonographic monitoring 3 times and On follow up a residual cavity of 4cm was found to be present .An oral lumicidal drug was given for 14 days. Next plan of action shall be: a. Stool examination serially b. USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly USG till 1 year. c. USG weekly for 1 month followed by CT scan at 3 months. d. Monthly CT scan Answer (b) USG weekly for 1 month followed by monthly USG till 1 year. Reference: Harrison 18 th edition chapter 202 144. Which of the following is Not true aboutpolymyositis ? a. Limb girdle weakness b. Ophthalmoplegia c. Para-neoplastic syndrome d. Spontaneous discharge in EMG. Answer (B) Ophthalmoplegia Reference: Harrison 18th chapter 383 145. 35 year old female with recurrent renal stone. not advised is: a. Increase water b. Restrict protein c. Restrict salt d. Ophthalmoplegia Answer (D) Ophthalmoplegia Reference: Harrison 18th edition/ chapter 281/page 1817/ Reference: www. Uptodate.com/contents/prevention of recurrent calcium stones in adults, Campbell’s urology chapter 43 146. A 28 yr old man has lenticonus and ESRD now. His maternal uncle also died of similar illness. Diagnosis is a. ARPKD b. ADPKD c. Oxalosis d. Alport's syndrome Answer: (D) Alport’s syndrome Reference: Harrison 18th Chapter 357 147. Pinna calcification Except a. Gout b. Onchrnosis c. Frost bite d. Addisons disease Answer (a) Gout Reference :Chapter 54. Skin Manifestations of Internal Disease, Harrison 18th (www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMicm1000193) 148. Which of the following doesnot need treatment? a. Neuroblastoma b. Burkitts c. t cell lymphoblastic leukemia d. Not Recalled Answer is A Reference: Nelson 18th text book of pediatrics/chapter 498 149. With ageing, a slight decrease in cognitive impairment is seen due to increase in level of a. Homocysteine b. Taurine c. Methionine d. Cysteine Answer (a) Homocysteine Reference: CMDT 2012 / page 1620 150. A Patient presents with pain in Meta-Tarso-Phalangeal jointsM.T.P.andis a known case of Chronic Renal Failure. This is due to accumulation of- a. Rh factor b. Uric acid c. Serum urea d. HLA B27 typing Answer (b) Uric Acid Reference: Harrison 18th edition/table 280.4/ chapter280 and http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/21321568 151. SARS causative agent a. Corona-virus b. Picorna-virus c. Myxovirus d. Recalled Answer: (a) Corona-virus Reference :Harrison 18th edition-chapter 179 152. Blink reflex is used for? a. Mid pontine lesions b. Neuromuscular transmission c. Axonal neuropathy d. Motor neuron disease Answer (a) Mid pontine lesions Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/17727783/ Clinical value of blink reflex 153. Grisel syndrome all are true except: a. Post-adeniodectomy b. Conservation treatment c. Inflammation of cervical spine ligaments d. No need for neurosurgeon Answer (d) No need for neurosurgeon Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2639892/ 154. Cervical syringomyelia all are seen except a. Burning sensation in hands b. Hypertrophy of abductor pollicisbrevis c. Plantar extensor d. Absent biceps reflex. Answer: (b) Hypertrophy of abductor pollicisbrevis Reference: Harrison textbook of medicine 18 th edition chapter 377/ above figure 377-7http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1151685-clinical 155. 70year female is on treatment with Alendronate for severe osteoporosis.Now she complains of pain in right thigh. What is the next investigation to be performed? a. DEXA scan b. x ray c. Serum vitamin D levels d. Serum alkaline phosphate levels Answer (b) X-ray Reference: CMDT 2012/page 1118 156. A 70 year old retired Military person with good previous medical record complains of bi-temporal headache which is decreased in lying down position. He states that he gets relief by giving pressure over bilateral temples. The patient also complains of loss of appetite with feeling feverish. a. Chronic tension headache b. Temporal arteritis c. Migraine d. Fibromyalgia Answer (b) Temporal arteritis Reference: CMDT 2011 page 819 and http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/809492-clinical#a0216 157. A patient of rheumatoid arthritis develops sudden onset Quadriparesis, , increased muscle tone of limbs with exaggerated tendon jerks and worseningof gait. The investigation to be done: a. Flexion and extension Cervical area X ray of neck b. MRI brain c. EMG and NCV d. Carotid angiography Answer( a) Flexion and extension Cervical area X ray of neck Reference:Harrison chapter 15/18 th edition 158. Patient with ICD collapses, ICD imaging modality a. Chest x ray b. MRI c. CT d. USG Answer (a) Chest X ray Reference: Harrison: 18 th edition/ just above table 233-9/ chapter 233./Emedicine:http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/162245-overview#aw2aab6c12 159. Type 1 renal tubular acidosis all are trueExcept? a. Renal stones b. Hypokalemia c. > 4mg/ day Sodium bicarbonate d. Urine pH > 5. Answer (c) > 4mg/ day Sodium bicarbonate Reference: Harrison 18th edition 284/ CMDT 2011 page 862 160. A diabetes mellitus patient with fungal infection of sinuses and peri-orbital region with significant visual impairment: a. Amphotericin B b. Itraconazole c. Ketoconazole d. Broad spectrum antibiotics Answer: Amphotericin B Reference: Harrison 18th Edition/ Chapter 205 161. Gait apraxia? a. ACA b. MCA c. PCA d. Posterior choroidal artery Answer: (a) Amphotericin B Reference: chapter 24 Harrison18th : Gait and balance disorders 162. Prions, which of following is correct a. Long incubation period b. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121C c. Nucleic acid present d. Immunogenic Answer (a) Long incubation period Reference: The following lines are excerpt from Harrison 18th chapter 383: 163. A patient with Tubercular meningitis was taking ATT regularly. At end of 1 month of regular intake of drugs deterioration in sensorium is noted in condition of the patient. Which of the following investigations is not required on emergency evaluation? a. MRI b. NCCT c. CSF examination d. Liver function tests Answer (c) CSF examination References: included in the text Therefore the following logical conclusion can be: ALTERED SENSORIUM due to Hepatic encephalopathy secondary to hepatotoxicity of ATT. Hence LFT should be performed. ALTEREDED SENSORIUM due to Obstructive hydrocephalus could lead to raised ICT leading to pressure on midbrain and resultant status. Therefore a MRI scan can identify the process and necessitate a neurosurgical consult. (Page 540 of OP GHAI 7th edition) ALTERED SENSORIUM due to end-arteritis resulting in brain infarction and hypo-dense lesions. Tubercular encephalopathy results in diffuse edema of brain simulating post-infective allergic encephalopathy, Necrotizing or hemorrhagic leuko-encephalopathy may occur in TB meningitis.. In choice NCCT is given and it can identify infarction as well cerebral Edema. The que3stion mentions altered sensorium in the patient and if we see the table in (Fig 376-1 harry boy 17th edition Harrison) on altered sensorium, imaging should be performed. Lumbar puncture now can precipitate the ominous herniation of the brain. 164. What is feature of temporal arteritis a. Giant cell arteritis b. Granulomatous vasculitis c. Necrotizing vasculitis d. Leucocytoclasticvasculitis Answer (a) Giant cell arteritis Reference: Harrison: 18th edition/ chapter 326 165. A patient withHepatits C, exhibits hypo-complimentemia, 2g/day proteinuria andhematuria is present. The most probable diagnosis is: REPEAT a. M.P.G.N. b. Cryo-globulinemia c. Membranous Glomerulopathy d. Post-infectious Glomerulonephritis Answer (a) M.P.G.N. Reference: Chapter 326/ Harrison 18th edition/http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/329255-clinical/CMDT 2012 pg 899. 166. All are indicated in a patient increased s. cysteine and multiple renal stones except: a. Cysteamine or b. Increase fluid intake c. Alkalinisation of urine d. Pencillamine Answer: (a) Cysteamine or Reference: CMDT 2012/ page 923/chapter 287 harrison 18th edition SURGERY 167. Not a Causes of acute anal pain: a. Thrombosed hemorrhoids b. Acute anal fissure c. Fistula in ano d. Perianal abccess Answer : (c) Fistula in ano Reference: Harrison 18th edition/chapter 297, Bailey and love 26th edition,page 1263 168. 70 yr old man with prostate cancer was given radiotherapy. The recurrence of the cancer is monitored biochemically by a. Androgens only b. Prostate specific antigen and carcino-embryonic antigen c. Prostate specific antigen only d. ALP and CEA Answer: (b) Prostate specific antigen and carcino-embryonic antigen Reference: NICE clinical guideline 58 – Prostate cancer (http://www.nice.org.uk/nicemedia/pdf/CG58NICEGuideline.pdf) and http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1967731-treatment#a1156 169. A patient has a surgical cause of obstructive jaundice. USG can tell all of the following except a. Level of obstruction b. Peritioneal deposits c. Gall bladder stones d. Ascites ANSWER (b) Peritioneal deposits Reference: A. Sutton Textbook of Radiology Volume 1 page 716 & 717 B. Biliary Obstruction Workup Imaging :guidelines/http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/187001-workup#a0720 C. Harrison 18th edition chapter 311/ table 311.3 Sutton says - In presence of biliary obstruction ultrasound is reported to define level in 95% and cause upto 88% of patients 170. Organism associated with fish consumption and also cause carcinoma gallbladder a. Clonorchis sinensis b. Gnathisomia c. Anglostronglyoidosis cantonensis d. H. dimunata Answer. (a) Clonorchis sinensis [Reference: Harrison 17/e p1330; http//www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12483392 http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/3993073] 171. Rupture of urethra above the deep perineal pouch causes urine retention in which region? a. Medial aspect of thigh b. Scrotum c. True pelvis only d. Anterior abdominal wall Answer: (c) True pelvis only Reference: Smith Urology page 910 172. Ileal resection for intusussception in adults would be done in? a. Carcinoid Tumor b. Lymphoma c. Villous adenoma d. Soft tissue Answer: C, Villous adenoma Reference: Chapter 91 Harrison 18th Edition Intussusception of the bowel in adults: A review World J Gastroenterol. 2009 January 28; 15(4): 407–411 Pediatric Intussusception Surgery/http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/937730-overview#a0102 173. All are true about intestinal obstruction radio-graphically except a. On lying supine fluid air gap absence does not signify obstruction b. Volvulus shows a characteristic appearance on radiograph c. Small intestine dilation> 3 cm d. Distal large intestine >9 cm and proximal intestine>3 cm Answer (d) Distal large intestine >9 cm and proximal intestine>3 cm Reference: Oxford textbook of surgery Reference: Swartz’s 9e 174. Buerger disease all except are true a. Ulnar artery and peroneal arteries involved b. Neural involvement present c. small acral vessels of limb involved d. Phlebitis migrans Answer (c) Small Acral vessels of limb small acral vessels of involvement causes hypohidrosis Reference: CMDT 2012 page 458 Vascular Disease: Diagnostic and Therapeutic Approaches By Michael R. Jaff Robbins textbook page 517 8th Edition 175. Next Investigation to be done for painful breast lump in a lactating woman a. Mammography b. USG c. MRI d. X Answer (b) USG Reference: Breast Ultrasonography/http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1948269-overview 176. Which of the following is not associated with elevation Right hemi-diaphragam: a. Amebic abscess b. Pyogenic abscess c. Cholecystitis d. Subdiaphragmatic abscess Answer. (c) Cholecystis Reference: Green filed surgery page No: 910& 911 177. Not true of hernia is : a. Conservative managment b. In Child hernia treatment with herniotomy c. Aborshable mesh not used d. Long standing hernia increases changes of incarceration Answer: D long standing hernia increases chances of incarceration Reference: chapter 343 ,Nelson textbook of Pediatrics 18th edition 178. Stereotactic radiotherapy is used for treatment of ? a. Brain tumor b. Lungs carcinoma c. Cervix cancer a. Renal carcinoma Answer. (a>b) Reference: Neurology tumors of the brain and spine – M.D. Anderson cancer care series Page 136 Radiation Oncology for Tumors of the Central Nervous System Reference: http://www.cancerresearchuk.org/cancer-help/type/brain-tumour/treatment/radiotherapy/stereotactic-radiotherapy-for-brain-tumours Reference:http://www.rtanswers.com/treatmentinformation/treatmenttypes/stereotacticradiation.aspx Stereotactic Radiation Therapy Reference: http://www.radiologyinfo.org/en/info.cfm?pg=stereotactic 179. Patient presents with varicose vein with sapheno-femoral incompetence and normal perforator management : a. endovascular striping b. Sclero-theraphy c. Sapheno-femoral flush ligation d. saphenofemoral flush ligation with striping Answer: (d) saphenofemoral flush ligation with striping Reference: Bailey& Love, Short practice of Surgery, 25th Edition ,page No: 930, Sabiston textbook of surgery 18th Edition Chapter Primary Venus Insufficiency /below figure 68.6 PEDIATRICS 180. A neurosurgeon in parent teacher meeting saw a child with precocious puberty and uncontrollable laughing. He suggested the parent of child to get a MRI done to evaluate for the possibility of a. Hypothalamic Hamartoma b. Pineo-germinoma c. Pituitary adenoa d. Craniophangioma Answer: A HYPOTHALAMIC HAMARTOMA Reference: 563. 2 Precocious Puberty Resulting from Organic Brain Lesions 181. A child presented to the casualty with seizures. On examination an oval hypo-pigmented macules were noted on the trunk, along with sub-normal IQ. Probable diagnosis of the child is: a. Neurofibromatosis b. Sturge Weber c. Tuberous sclerosis d. IncontinentiaPigmenti Answer (c) : TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS PAGE NO. 564 OPG 182. At what age child can eat food without spilling, identify her gender, say her full name, can dress self with supervision a. 2 yrs b. 3 yrs c. 4 yrs d. 5 yrs ANSWER (B) : AGE 3 YEARS PAGE NO. 31/ OPG 7th edition 183. A Pre-termer 32 weeks baby after birth had a respiratory rate of 86/min with presence of grunting. On examination there was no nasal flaring, mild chest in-drawing, noxiphisternal recession and abdomen lags behind the chest .Thesilverman scoring for the neonate shall be a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 Answer (b) : 4 Reference: Maternity and Pediatric Nursing By Susan Scott Ricci, Terri Kyle, P. 729-30;Silverman WC, Anderson DH. Controlled clinical trial on effects of water mist on obsrtructive respiratory signs, death rate and necropsy findings among premature infants. Pediatrics 1956; 17:1-4; OP Ghai. 7/e, p 143] 184. In a child with rickets with deformity, when should a decision to undertake corrective surgery be undertaken : a. When vitamin D levels turn to normal b. When growth plate healing is seen radio-graphically c. When bone specific alkaline phosphatise is normal d. When serum calcium becomes normal Answer (b) When growth plate healing is seen radio-graphically Reference: Kliegman: Nelson Textbook of PEDIATRICS//Chapter 48 – Rickets and Hypervitaminosis D /Larry A. Greenbaum/ http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/985510-treatment 185. Reversal of shunt not possible in natural history? a. ASD b. VSD c. TOF d. PDA Answer( c) TOF Reference: TOF: PAGE NO 408. OP ghai : 186. A preterm infant with poor respiration at birth starts throwing seizures at 10 hours after birth. Anti- epileptic of choice shall be: a. Levetiracetam b. Phenytoin c. Phenobarbitone d. Lorazepam Answer : (c)Phenobarbitone Reference: PAGE NO. 527. OPG/593.7 NELSON Neonatal seizures 187. Correct about respiratory distress syndrome is: a. Seen after 6 hours of birth b. Ante natal steroid c. Term pregnancy d. Air bronchograms seen on x-ray chest Answer (d) Air bronchograms seen on x-ray chest Reference: PAGE NO. 143/OP GHAI 188. 7 year old girl is easily distracted in class and exhibits poor scholastic performance. Seizures are precipitated by hyperventilation. a. Myoclonic seizures b. Absence seizures c. Atonic seizures d. Myoclonia Answer: (b) Absence seizures Reference: NELSON 593.4 189. Best screening test to evaluate hearing in a neonate a. Pure Tone Audiometry b. Stapedial Reflex c. Oto –acoustic Emissions d. Brain stem evoked auditory response Answer: (c) Oto –acoustic Emissions Reference: Nelson chapter 636 /HEARING SCREENING. 190. One of the parents has a balanced translocation between chromosome 15 and 21. What advice will u provide to the couple to prevent a child being born with Down syndrome? a. Prenatal diagnosis & advice abortion b. Artificial insemination with donor's sperm c. Adoption d. Does not matter Answer (c) Adoption References included in text · Nelson says - Translocation (21;21) carriers have a 100% recurrence risk for a chromosomally abnormal child. · Carriers of Robertsonian translocations involving chromosome 21 have a higher chance of having a child with Down syndrome. This is known as a 'translocation Downs'. This is due to a mis-segregation (Non-disjunction) during gametogenesis. The mother has a higher (10%) risk of transmission than the father (1%). Robertsonian translocations involving chromosome 14 also carry a slight risk of uniparental disomy 14 due to trisomy rescue · If the mother is a 'balanced translocation' carrier to another chromosome (usually 13, 14, 15, 22), then the recurrence risk is about 1 in 8. 191. Trisomy 13 , all of the following are true statement except: a. Bilateral mircopthalmia b. Neurofibroma c. Capillary hemangioma d. Dermoid cyst Answer: (a) Bilateral mircopthalmia Reference:PAGE NO 615 , OP GHAI 192. Which of the following is true for Wilson disease? a. High ceruloplasmin b. Low serum and high urinary copper c. Low serum copper d. Low urinary copper Answer is : B>C Reference: Harrison 18th edition: chapter 360/OPG PAGE NO. 641 /354.2 Nelson 193. A child with low blood glucose is not able to do glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. Which of the following enzyme is missing in the child? a. Fructokinase b. Glucokinase c. Glucose 6 phosphastase d. Transketolase Answer (c) Glucose 6 phosphastase Reference: OP GHAI Page no 636. /7th edition 194. Which of the following does not require a lumbar puncture in children? a. ALL b. HL c. NHL d. AML Answer (b) :Hodgkins lymphoma Reference : 495.2 NELSON Acute leukemia/496.2 NELSON- NHL 195. Bilateral proptosis is seen in a. Neurofibromatosis b. Leukemia c. Cavernous hemangioma d. Malignant fibrous Histiocytoma Answer: (b), Leukemia Reference:NELSON CHAPTER 632/TUMORS OF THE ORBIT. 196. A child with fever and tibial swelling exhibits on X-ray periosteal reaction and raised ESR .What is the next step in diagnosis of the patient? a. MRI b. Pus culture c. Bone biopsy d. Blood culture Answer: (a) MRI Reference: CMDT 2012 page no 839/nelson chapter 683/Harrison chapter 126 197. A child presents with seborrheic dermatitis, sinusitis and chronically draining ears. On examination child has failure to thrive with hepato-splenomegaly and exophthalmos. Probable diagnosis is a. Histiocytosis-X b. Wegenersgranulomatosis c. x d. Chediakhigashi syndrome Answer (a) Histiocytosis-X

486 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2012 Mcqs with answers - part 3

11q: Which of the following changes is not seen in uterine fibroid?
a. Red degeneration
b. Fatty degeneration
c. Sarcomatous degeneration
d. Hyaline degeneration

answer: c. Sarcomatous degeneration.

12q: Which one is correct about prions?
a. Nucleic acid
b. Highly immunogenic
c. Highly incubation period
d. Sensitive to autoclaving at 121 degree centigrade

answer: will post soon. if u know plz post in comments.

13q: Hyertensive man on medication with normal activity is graded under
a. ASA I
b. ASA II
c. ASA III
d. ASA IV

answer: b.ASA II.

14q: Fixative used in tissue specimens
a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Picric acid
c. Formalin
d. Alcohol

answer: Will post soon. If u know plz post in comments.

15q: BIRADS stands for
a. Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System
b. Best imaging reporting and data system
c. ????
d. Breast reporting radiological data system

answer: a. Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System.

485 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2012 Mcqs with answers - part 2

6q: 14 year old boy, not able to get good grades on 9th standard exam. But very sharp and intelligent. Best test to diagnose his problem -
a. Neuropsychological battery
b. bhatia's battery
c. specific learning disability test
d. not recalled

answer: will post soon, if u know plz post in comments.

7q: Child with seizures, oval hypopigmented macules on trunk, subnormal IQ
a. Neurofibromatosis
b. Sturge Weber
c. Tuberous sclerosis
d. Incontinentia Pigmenti

answer: c.Tuberous sclerosis.

8q: 14yr female present with primary amenorrea. .absent uterus and vagina...breast and pubic hair normal..what is diagnosis?
a. Klinefelter syndrome.
b. Mullerian agenesis
c. Gonadal dysgenesis
d. ?????

answer: Mullerian agenesis.

9q: Which of the following does not supply sternocleidomastoid muscle?
a. Posterior auricular artery
b. Occipital artery
c. Thyrocervical artery
d. Superior thyroid artery

answer: Posterior auricular artery.

10q: EEG in anaesthesia useful in....
a. Depth of analgesia
b. depth of Local anesthesia
c. depth of general anaesthesia
d. depth of neuromucular block

answer: will post soon. if u know plz post in comments.

484 - AIIMS NOVEMBER 2012 Mcqs with answers - part 1

1q: Which of the following is true regarding testis?
a.Ectodermal origin
b.Gubernaculum attached to the caudal end
c.Surrounded by peritoneal tunica albuginea
d.Reach the scrotum by 28th week

answer: b. Gubernaculum attached to the caudal end.

2q: Nerve regeneration is not seen in spinal cord due to
a.No endoneurial layer
b.Glial scar
c.No myelin inhibiting factor
d.No growth factor

answer: will post soon, if u know plz post in comments.

3q: A neonate with poor respiration at birth starts throwing seizures after 10hrs of birth. Antiepileptic of choice wud be
a.Levetiracetam
b.Phenytoin
c.Phenobarbitone
d.Lorazepam

answer: will post soon, if u know plz post in comments.

4q: Mechanism of action of FUSADIOL
a.Rho kinase inhibitor
b.????
c.????
d.????

answer: Rho kinase inhibitor

5q: Which is not a 2nd generation antihistamine ?
a.cetrizine
b.loratidine
c.fexofenadine
d.cyclizine

answer: a and b are second gen, c is third gen and d is first gen.

483 - DNB June 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 2

1q: Which of the following is the weakest support of uterus?
a.Mackenrodt ligament
b.Uterosacral ligament
c.Round ligament
d.Broad ligament

answer d.Broad ligament.

2q: Midgut is supplied by
a.Superior Mesenteric artery
b.Inferior mesenteric artery
c.Celiac trunk
d.None of the above

answer a.Superior mesenteric artery.

3q: Bitter almond smell is seen in
a.Cyanide poisoning
b.??????
c.??????
d. ??????

answer a.Cyanide poisoning.

4q: HU are used in
a.CT
b.MRI
c.X ray
d.?????

answer a.CT (HOUNSFIELD UNITS)

5q: Which of the following is a vasoconstrictor?
a.Cocaine
b.Procaine
c.Lignocaine
d.None of the above

answer a.Cocaine

482 - DNB June 2011 Mcqs with answers - part 1

1q: Which of the following is a subcutaneous muscle?
a.Sternocleidomastoid
b.Mylohyoid
c.Palmaris longus
d.Palmaris brevis

answer d.Palmaris brevis.

2q: Intrinsic laryngeal muscles are supplied by
a.Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b.External laryngeal nerve
c.Internal laryngeal nerve
d.None of the above

answer a.Recurrent laryngeal nerve.

3q: Laryngocele arises from herniation through
a.Thyrohyoid membrane
b.Cricothyroid membrane
c.??????
d. ??????

answer a.Thyrohyoid membrane(the external type)

4q: Left testicular vein drains to
a.Left renal vein
b.Inferior vena cava
c.Right renal vein
d.Azygous vein

answer a.Left renal vein.

5q: Foramen of magendie which is in midline acts as an exit point of which of the following?
a.Lateral ventricles
b.Third ventricle
c.Fourth ventricle
d.None of the above

answer 4th ventricle.

481 - NIMS DM Cardiology 2012 Entrance paper with key

480 - AIIMS MAY 2012 Complete paper with answers - part 2

101. A patient with Hypertension, comes with severe unilateral headache and vomiting. On MRI, lateralized convex lesion seen. He has neck stiffness. The diagnosis is 
A. Intracerebral Hemorrhage 
B. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage -----------------ANS 
C. Meningitis 
D. meningoencephalites 

102. Drug induced Lupus seen in all EXCEPT (Nov 2010) 
A. Sulfonamides 
B. Hydralazine 
C. Isoniazid 
D. Penicillin ----------------ANS 

103. All about Leukemia are FALSE EXCEPT 
A. CML occurs after 50 years of age 
B. ALL occurs before 1 year in neonates 
C. ALL in before 1 year has poor prognosis---------------ANS 
D. Hairy Cell Leukemia occurs before 50 years of age 

104. Patient with Pneumococcal Brain Abscess. Culture is sent for Antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic is given till culture sensitivity result come? 
A. Penicillin G 
B. Ceftriaxone 
C. ceftriaxone+ vancomycin-----------ANS 
D. Ampicillin 

105. Pseudotumor Cerebri is seen in 
A. Obese Female of 20-40 years ----------------ANS 
B. Obese Male of 20-40 years 
C. Thin Female of 50-60 years 
D. Thin Male of 50-60 years 

106. Photosensitivity is a symptom of Porphyria. All of the following enzyme deficiencies have photosensitivity EXCEPT 
A. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase 
B. Uroporphyrinogen oxidase ---------------ANS 
C. Coproporphyrinogen oxidase 
D. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase 

107. A 60 year old lady has progressive slowing of movements since 2 years. She has Rigidity and rectangular slow wave jerking movements. Most probable diagnosis is 
A.Progressive Supranuclear Palsy ------------------ANS 
B. Lewy-Body Dementia 
C. Parkinsonism 
D. Multiple System Atrophy 

108. A Penicillin allergic patient has Rheumatic Fever. Which of the following drug should be prescribed? 
A. Penicillin G 
B. Sulfoxazole ------------ANS 
C. Sulfasalazine 
D. Sulfadiazine 

109. A neonate presents with bleeding from umbilical stump, rest of the examination is normal. Probable diagnosis is (Twist Nov 2006) 
A. Factor X deficiency --------------------ANS 
B. von Willebrand Disease 
C. Glanzman Thromboasthenia 
D. Bernard Soulier Syndrome 

110. Which scientific principle is the basis for Thermodilution method used in measurement of cardiac output by Pulmonary Catheter? 
A. Hagen-Poisseuille Principle ----------------ANS 
B. Stewart-Hamilton Principle 
C. Bernoulli’s Principle 
D. Universal Gas Equation 

111. Most common symptom of Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID) 
A. Malabsorption ----------ANS 
B. Obstruction 
C. Bleeding 
D. Abdominal Pain 

112. “Fever Blister” is due to 
A.Primary HSV-1 Infection 
B. Varicella Zoaster 
C. Reactivation of HSV-1 Infection-------------ANS 
D. CMV 

113. An alcoholic with poor judgment and decreased in skilled motor movements. Blood alcohol level would be 
A. 30-80 mg/dl 
B. 80-200 mg/dl-------------ANS 
C. 200-300 mg/dl 
D. >300 mg/dl 

114. A 56 year old man presents with unilateral headache, diplopia and fever. He had difficulty in chewing. MRI of brain was normal and ESR was raised. Treatment is 
A. Prednisolone --------ANS 
B. High Dose Aspirin 
C. Coxibs 
D. Valproate 

115. Type of wave in Metabolic Encephalopathy 
A. Alpha 
B. Beta 
C. Gamma 
D. Delta -------------ANS 

116. In 2 patients with Atherosclerosis, one is diabetic and other is non-diabetic. In relation to non-diabetic, diabetic patient has 100 times increased risk of 
A. MI 
B. Cerebrovascular Stroke 
C. Lower Limb Ischemia----------------ANS 
D. Vertebrobasilar insufficiency 

117. In ”Pneumonia Severity Scale”, most important factor is 
A. Age --------------ANS 
B. Congestive Heart Failure 
C. Hypothermia 
D. Hyponatremia 

118. A boy is suffering from Acute Pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary finding (Nov 2006) 
A. WBC Cast --------------------ANS 
B. Gram Staining for Bacteria 
C. Leucocyte Esterase positive 
D. Positive Nitrite Test 

119. A lady had Meningioma with inflammatory edematous lesion. She was planned for surgery. Junior resident’s mistake in writing pre-op notes is 
A. Stop Steroids ---------------------ANS 
B. Wash head with shampoo 
C. Antibiotic Sensitivity 
D. Antiepileptic 

120. A lady had breathlessness, arthralgia and granulomatous uveitis. Diagnosis is 
A. Ocular Sarcoid ----------------------ANS 
B. HLA B27 related Uveitis 
C. Tuberculosis 
D.Behcets syndrome 

121. A 46 year old man with constipation, abdominal pain, mucous in stool and sense of incomplete evacuation since 4 years. On examination, there was left iliac fossa tenderness. Diagnosis is 
A. Ca Colon 
B. Diverticular disease ------------------ANS 
C. IBS 
D. Ulcerative Colitis 

122. Hematopoietic Stem Cells differ from Committed Progenitor Cells in 
A. Can reconstitute Bone Marrow -----------------ANS 
B. Secrete Growth Factor 
C. Terminal Cells are different 
D. Nuclear Receptor present 

123. In an ablated animal, a researcher injects Myeloid Stem Cells, after the incubation period he finds which type of cells? 
A. T-Lymphocyte 
B. Erythrocyte ----------------ANS 
C. Fibroblast 
D. Hematopoietic Stem Cells 

124. Due to decelerations, Aorta can be ruptured at places where it is fixed EXCEPT 
A. At Aortic Valve --------------ANS 
B. Behind Esophagus 
C. Behind Crura of the Diaphragm 
D. At Ligamentum Arteriosus 

125. A lady with cold intolerance and hoarseness of voice was detected with cardiomegaly. Investigation to be done to know the cause is 
A. Coronary Angiography 
B. Left Ventricle Angiography 
C. Right Ventricle Angiography 
D. Echocardiography -------------ANS 

126. Midsystolic Click is heard in a female. Pathology seen in mitral valve is (AI 10) 
A. Myxomatous degeneration ----------------ANS 
B. Aschoff Nodules 
C. Sub Acute Bacterial Endocarditis 
D. Ruptured Chordae Tendinae 

127. Most significant association for Hepatocellular Carcinoma 
A. Hepatitis A 
B. Hepatitis B -------------------ANS 
C. EBV 
D. CMV 

128. A patient comes with transmural thrombi. Streptokinase and Warfarin is started. After which further intial sign thrombolysis should be stopped 
A. Pericardial Friction Rub 
B. Pericardial Effusion---------ANS 
C. Mobitz Type 2 Block 
D. Leg vein thrombosis 

129. Thrombolytics can be given in treatment of AMI, if patient comes within 
A. 6 hours 
B. 12 hours -------------------ANS 
C. 18 hours 
D. 24 hours 

130. An old hypertensive man, on treatment with Aspirin, Sorbitrate, and Atenolol suddenly fell in bathroom. Relatives noted black stools. He presented in ER with hypotension, tachycardia. The diagnosis is 
A. Gastric Ulcer bleed ---------------ANS 
B. Cerebrovascular Accident 
C. MI 
D. 

131. All are true EXCEPT 
A. Amyloid Angiopathy is associated with Small Vessel Disease 
B. Alzheimer’s Disease is associated with Amyloid Angiopathy 
C. Alzheimer’s Disease is related to Small Vessel Disease 
D. Alzheimer’s Disease is not related to Small Vessel Disease-------ANS 

132. A patient with Atrial Fibrilation has clot in Left Atrium. All of the following should be done in management EXCEPT 
A. DC Cardioversion with Percutaneous Clot removal 
B. Warfarin therapy 
C. Open Commisurotomy and Clot Removal -----------ANS 
D. 

133. A child undergoing induction before surgery suddenly developes ,tachycardia,unable to open mouth etco2 shows increase co2 level with Metabolic Acidosis and respiratory alkalosis, Start treatment with 
A. Iv Dantrolene --------ANS 
B. Na Bicarbonate 
C. Mgso4 
D. 

134. Most reliable test for diagnosing spinal TB is 
A. MRI ---------------ANS 
B. CT guided Biopsy 
C. PPD 
D. X ray spine 

135. All of the following can be seen in Massive Acute Blood loss EXCEPT 
A. Increase in Reticulocyte count 
B. Increase in PCV --------------ANS 
C. Increase in MCV 
D. Increase in Neutophils 

136. Which of the following is incorrectly matched 
A. Neurofibromatosis – Renal Artery Stenosis 
B. Moyamoya disease – Aortic Aneurysm -------------------ANS 
C. Marfan’s Syndrome – Dural Ectasia 
D. Muilbrey nanism – Constricitve Pericarditis 


SURGERY 

137. Patient is tenderness in left iliac fossa. There was 3 cm stone in renal pelvis and no Hydronephrosis. Most appropriate management is 
A. PCNL 
B. ESWL ---------ANS 
C. Diuretics 
D. Medical dissolution therapy with Potassium Citrate 

138. A 40 year male presents with hematemesis. On examination his BP was 90/60 mmHg and Heart Rate was 120/min. Splenomegaly was also present. The most probable cause of his bleeding is (AI 2012) 
A. Portal Hypertension------------------ANS 
B. Gastric ulcer 
C. Duodenal ulcer 
D. Drug-induced GI injury 


139. After removal of the Parotid gland, patient is having sweating on cheeks while eating. Auriculotemporal nerve which contains parasympathetic secretomotor fibers to parotid gland is fused with 
A. Greater Petrosal Nerve 
B. Facial Nerve 
C. Greater Auricular Nerve --------------ANS 
D. Buccal Nerve 
E. Glossopharyngeal Nerve 

140. A patient of Crohn's Disease, underwent resection anastomosis. Now presents on 7th post-op day with anastomotic site leak from a fistula. Everyday leakage volume adds up to 150-200ml. There is no intra-abdominal collection and the patient is stable without any complains. What will be the next line of management? (Repeat) 

A. Do conservative treatment and leave him and hope for the spontaneous resolution ------------ANS 
B. Perform Laparotomy and check for leakage site and healthy margins 
C. Perform Laparotomy and completely exteriorize the fistula 
D. Perform Laparotomy and place lateral drains and leave 


141. A lady has dysphagia, intermittent epigastric pain. On endoscopy, Esophagus was dilated above and narrow at the bottom. Treatment is 
A. Heller’s Cardiomyotomy ----------ANS 
B. Esophagectomy 
C. Dilatation 
D. PPIs 

142. Which jaw cyst is pre-malignant? 
A. Radicular Cyst 
B. Dental Cyst 
C. Odontogenic keratocyst 
D. Dentigerous Cyst ------------------ANS 

143. After doing a Thoracoabdominal graft, a person developed weakness in legs. It is due to 
A. Lumbosacral nerve injury 
B. Thoracic splanchnic nerve injury 
C. Decreased blood supply to lower limbs 
D. Discontinuation of Arteria Radicularis Magna-------------ANS 

144. True about Epigastric Hernia is 
A. Located below the umbilicus and always in the midline 
B. Located above the umbilicus and always in the midline 
C. Located above the midline and on either side --------------ANS 
D. Can be seen anywhere on abdomen 

145. External Hemorrhoids, distal to dentate line is (Aiims nov 06) 
A. Painful ----------------ANS 
B. Skin Tag is not seen in these cases 
C. May turn malignant 
D. ligation is done as management 


146. Early complication of Ileostomy (May 2010) 
A. Diarrhoea 
B. Obstruction 
C. Necrosis --------------ANS 
D. Prolapse 

147. Ca Breast Stage 4b involves all EXCEPT 
A. Nipple Retraction -----------------ANS 
B. Skin ulcer over the swelling 
C. Dermal Edema 
D. Satellite Nodule 

148. Due to advances in cancer treatment the prognosis of which of the following has become better? 
A. Glioblastoma Multiforme 
B. Esophageal Carcinoma 
C. ALL in children -------------------ANS 
D. Cholangiocarcinoma 

OBSTETRICS & GYNECOLOGY 

149. After full term normal vaginal delivery, lady goes to sudden collapse. What should be suspected? (Nov 2010) 

A. PPH 
B. Amniotic fluid embolism 
C. Uterine Inversion ---------------ANS 
D. Eclampsia 

150. A young lady has history of recurrent abortion. Which test should be done? (Reverse May 2011) 

A. Russel Viper Venom Test --------------ANS 
B. Prothrombin Time 
C. Bleeding time 
D. Clotting Time 

151. A 20 year old average weight female complains of oligomenorrhoea along with facial hair. Preliminary investigation reveals raised free testosterone levels. On Ultrasound, ovaries were normal. Which of the following could be likely etiology? (Nov 2010) 
A. Idiopathic Hirsutism 
B. PCOD --------------ANS 
C. Adrenal Hyperplasia 
D. Testosterone secreting tumor 

152. Which test is used to differentiate maternal and fetal blood cells? (Nov 2010) 
A. Apt Test -----------------ANS 
B. Kleihauer-Betke test 
C. Bubblin Test 
D. Osmotic Fragility Test 

153. Endometrial Cancer involving 50% of endometrium, extending to vagina, lymph nodes negative with positive peritoneal cytology is staged as – (Nov 2010) 
A. Stage IIIA 
B. Stage IIIB -------------ANS 
C. Stage IIIC1 
D. Stage IIIC2 

154. Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include – (Nov 2010) 
A. Wertheims Hysterectomy 
B. Schauta’s Hysterectomy 
C. Chemotherapy 
D. Intracavity Brachytherapy followed by External Beam Radiotherapy--------------ANS 

155. At which time in the pregnancy, woman has maximum cardiac strain? 
A. 2nd Trimester 
B. At the time of delivery 
C. Immediately following delivery-------------------ANS 
D. After delivery 

156. A Pregnant female feeling dizziness in supine position; feels better on lateral position and after getting up. This must be due to (Repeat) 
A. IVC Compression -------------------------ANS 
B. Raised intra-abdominal pressure 
C. Decreased blood flow to placenta 
D. Compression of Sympathetic Chain 

157. A woman presented with carcinoma cervix FIGO STAGING II-III, which of the following treatment is recommended? 
A. Trichelectomy 
B. Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine 
C. Chemo-radiotherapy ---------------------ANS 
D. Hysterectomy 

PEDIATRICS 

158. Which of the following will favor the diagnosis of RDS in new born? (Nov 2010) 
A. Receipt of antenatal steroids 
B. Air bronchogram in chest X-ray ----------------ANS 
C. Manifests after 6 hours 
D. Occurs after term gestation 

159. A neonate is diagnosed with Bell’s Stage 1 Necrotizing Entercolitis and he is stable. Treatment is 
A. Conservative and Antibiotics --------------ANS 
B. IV Antibiotics and Removal of necrosed portion of Intestine 
C. Drainage 
D. Resection Anastomosis 

160. A Toddler has few drops of blood coming out of rectum. Probable diagnosis is 
A. Juvenile Rectal Polyp --------------------ANS 
B. Adenoid Poliposis Coli 
C. Rectal Ulcer 
D. Piles 

161. In Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy, most common presentation is (Twisted Repeat) 
A. Absent Seizure 
B. Myoclonus ------------ANS 
C. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure on going to sleep 
D. Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure on awakening 

162. A child was taken for CECT Chest and contrast was injected; child had swelling which gradually increased. There is numbness. There is pain on passive extension of fingers. He is not allowing you to touch the arm. Pulse was present. What will you do? 
A. High Dose Prednisolone 
B. Arterial Thrombectomy 
C. Immediate Fasciotomy -----------------ANS 
D. Antihistaminics / Anticoagulants 

163. Recurrent URTI in 5 year old child with ear problems, mouth breathing. Treatment is (May 2007) 
A. Myringotomy 
B. Myringotomy with Grommet insertion 
C. Adenoidectomy with Grommet insertion---------------ANS 
D. Tonsillectomy 

164. A child with recurrent seizures, palpable plaques in the Ophthalmic and Maxillary distribution. Mother complaints, it is present since birth and not changed since then. Diagnosis is 
A. Congenital Hemangioma 
B. Sturge-Weber Syndrome----------------ANS 
C. Infantile Hemangioma 
D. Proteus syndrome 

SKIN 
165. Which of the following is characteristic of Basal Cell Carcinoma? 
A. Foam Cells 
B. Nuclear Palisades ---------------ANS 
C. Keratin Pearls 
D. Presence of intercellular bridges 

166. A 24 year old man had multiple small hypopigmented patches around hair follicles on upper chest and back. Macules were with fine scaling which coalesced later. Patient has received treatment before 1 year and it was treated. Investigation to be done is 

A. KOH preparation -----------------ANS 
B. Tzank test 
C. Slit Skin Smear 
D. Skin biopsy of coalesced lesion 


167. A child with itchy erythematous lesion on face and palm & soles. Possible diagnosis is (AI 2006, May 2005, Nov 2002) 
A. Scabies ---------------ANS 
B. seborrheic dermatitis 
C. psoriasis 
D. congenital syphilis 

168. A patient has multiple hypoaesthetic and hypopigmented patches on lateral aspect of forearm. Abundance of Acid fast bacilli and Granulomatous inflammation is seen. Diagnosis is 
A. Lepromatous Leprosy 
B. Tuberculoid Leprosy 
C. Indeterminate Leprosy 
D. Borderline Leprosy --------------------ANS 

169. Characteristic of Borderline Leprosy is 
A. Inverted Saucer appearance --------------------ANS 
B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum 
C. Hypopigmented macules/plaques all over the body 
D. Glove and Stocking Anesthesia 

170. A patient has 2 fingernails and 1 toenail tunneling since 1 year. Rapid Diagnosis is done by 
A. Woods Lamp Examination 
B. KOH mount -------------------------ANS 
C. Slit Smear Examination 
D. skin biopsy 

171. A boy had itchy, excoriated papules on the forehead and the exposed parts of the arms and legs since 3 years. The disease was most severe in rainy season and improved completely in winter. The most likely diagnosis is (May 2004) 
A. Insect Bite Hypersensitivity---------------ANS 
B. Scabies 
C. Urticaria 
D. Atopic Dermatits 

172. Which of the following is related to sunlight exposure? (Aipg 06) 
A. Actinic Keratosis ------------------ANS 
B. Basal cell carcinoma 
C. molluscum contagiosum 
D. Photodermatitis 

173. A 23 year lady develops brownish pigmentation on cheeks and bridge of nose on exposure to sun. Diagnosis is (Repeat) 
A. Photodermatitis 
B. SLE 
C. Chloasma -----------ANS 
D. Rosacea 


ANAESTHESIA 

174. Maximum dose of Lignocaine given with Adrenaline for Occular Surgery 
A. 3 mg/kg 
B. 5 mg/kg 
C. 7 mg/kg -------------------ANS 
D. 10 mg/kg 

175. Lady with a history of previous C Section told the anesthetist that in spite of spinal anesthesia, she was aware of the procedure. What should be done to monitor depth of anesthesia? (AI 2011, AI 2012) 

A. Pulse Oximetry 
B. Train of Four 
C. Bispectral Imaging ----------------ANS 
D. End Tidal CO2 

176. During ET tube Intubation, by right handed person, Laryngoscope is held by which hand? 

A. Left --------------ANS 
B. Right 
C. Both 
D. Either of these 

177. Patient with ruptured spleen is taken for laparotomy. BP is 80/50 and HR is 125/min. Induction agent of choice 

A.Etomidate------------ANS 
B. Opioids 
C. Remifentanyl 
D. Halothane 

178. A 25 year old primigravida has Mitral Stenosis and Regurgitation and is under labor. She says she wants natural delivery. Which would be the best way to provide analgesia in the woman? 

A. Neuraxial Anesthesia ----------------ANS 
B. Spinal Anesthesia 
C. Inhalational Analgesia 
D. Intravenous Opioids 

179. A Patient has RTA with head injury BP:80/50,PR:150 bpm...anaesthetic agent of choice 
A. Thiopentone 
B. Propramide 
C. Morphine 
D. Ketamine--------------ANS 

80. All are true about “Scoline Asphyxia” EXCEPT 
A. It can be inherited 
B. It is due to deficiency of Cholinesterase ------------------ANS 
C. Succinylcholine can produce it 
D. Patient can be saved if properly treated 

181. Component of Sodalime for CO2 absorption in closed circuit in anesthesia is 
A. NaOH 
B. Ca(OH)2----------------------ANS 
C. KOH 
D. Ba(OH)21 

182. pregnant female, there is decreased requirement of the anesthetic agent because of all of the following EXCEPT 

A. Exaggerated Lumbar Lordosis----------------ANS 
B. Increased Congestion in Spinal Veins 
C. Decreased Subarachnoid space 
D. Increased Sensitivity of Nerves 

RADIOLOGY 

183. Amifostine is (Reverse AI 2012) 
A.Radiosensitizer 
B.Radioprotector--------------ANS C.Radiomodifier 
D.Radiomimetic 
184. “Bracket Calcification” on Skull X-Ray is seen in 
A.TuberousSclerosis B.SturgeWebeSyndrome 
C.Lipoma of corpus callosum--------------------------ANS D. Meningioma 
185. Maximum Radiation exposure occurs in 
A. Bone Scan-----------------ANS B. CT Scan 
C.X-ray D. MRI 
186. Non-Iodine containing Contrast is 
A. Gadolinium -------ANS 
B. Visipaque 
C. Iohexanol 
D. Diatrozoate 

187. Stereotactic Radiotherapy is used in 
A. Miliary Lung Metastasis 
B. Inoperable Stage 1 Lung Tumor ----------------ANS 
C. Lymphangitis Carcinomatosa 
D. Tumor at the base of tongue with new Lymph Node enlargement 

PSYCHIATRY 

188. Which of the following drug is available as depot preparation? 
A. Fluphenazine ---------------ANS 
B. Aripriprazole 
C. Ziprosidone 
D. Trifluperzine 

189. All of the following are disorders of “form of thought” EXCEPT 
A. Loosening of Association 
B. Tangentially 
C. Thought Block ---------------------ANS 
D. Derealisation 

190. PTSD is differentiated from all other disorders by 
A. Recall of events and avoidance of trauma ---------ANS 
B. Nightmares about events 
C. Autonomic arousal and anxiety 
D. Depression 

191. Brain is considered responsive because 
A. It has control centers for all motor actions and sensory inputs 
B. It can be profoundly affected by external environment------ANS 
C. Every cell of brain has specific function 
D. It acts as a closed system, responding to internal stimuli but not the external stimuli 



ORTHOPEDICS 

192. Gallow’s Traction is used for (Nov 2010, Nov 2011) 
A. Shaft of Femur ---------ANS 
B. Neck of Femur 
C. Shaft Tibia 
D. Tibial Tuberosity 

193. A patient met with Road Traffic Accident with injury to left knee. Dial test was positive. What could be the cause?(Nov 2010) 
A. Medial Collateral Ligament Injury 
B. Posterolateral Corner Injury---------ANS 
C. Lateral Meniscus Tear 
D. Medial Meniscus Injury 

194. After lifting something heavy from ground, a patient complaints of back pain, which is radiating to lateral leg and great toe of lower limb. Most probable diagnosis would be (AI 2012, Nov 2011) 
A. L5-S1 disc prolapse 
B. L4-L5 disc prolapse ---------ANS 
C. L3-L4 disc prolapse 
D. L5 fracture 

195. A person is able to abduct his arm, internally rotate it, place the back of hand on lumbosacral joint, but is not able to lift it from back. What is etiology? (Nov 2011) 
A. Subscapularis tendon tear ---------ANS 
B. Teres major tendon tear 
C. Long head of biceps tendon tear 
D. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation 

196. A newborn child presents with inverted foot and the dorsum of the foot cannot touch the anterior tibia. The most probable diagnosis is (Nov 2010) 
A. Congenital Vertical Talus 
B. Arthrogryposis Multiplex 
C. CTEV ----------ANS 
D. Flat Foot 

197. 8 year old child has fever with pain and swelling in mid-thigh. Lamellated appearance and Codman’s triangle is seen on X-Ray. On aspiration pus is seen. Histopathology shows small round cell tumor positive for MIC-2. Diagnosis is 
A. Osteosarcoma 
B. Ewing’s Sarcoma ----------ANS 
C.Chondroblastoma 
D. Multiple myeloma 

198. A patient comes to the emergency department after alcohol binge previous night and sleeping on arm chair. In the morning he is unable to move his hand and diagnosis of ulnar nerve palsy is made. What is the next line of management? 
A. Wait and Watch 
B. Knuckle Bender Splint -----------ANS 
C. Immediately operate and explore the nerve 
D. Do EMG study after 2 days 

199. An old lady had a history of fall in bathroom once and couldn’t move. Afterwards, she had legs in externally rotated position. There was tenderness in Scarpa's triangle and limb movement could not been done due to pain. No hip fracture was seen on X-Ray. Next step 
A. MRI 
B. Repeat X-Ray after one week --------ANS 
C. Joint Aspiration 
D. Give analgesic and Manipulate 

200.Retroperitoneal fibrosis caused by drug 
A.Methysergide---------ANS 
B.Melphalan 
C.Cyclosporine 
D.All