1q: The disease for which vaccination certificate is required for international travel is :
a. Cholera
b. Hepatitis
c. Yellow fever
d. Tetanus
2q: The most common site of hypertensive intracranial haemorrhage is
a. putamen
b. midbrain
c. medulla
d. cerebrum
3q: The most common organ involved in MEN I is
a. Parathyroid
b. Thyroid
c. Adrenal
d. Testis
4q: En-coup-de sabre is a form of
a. scleroderma
b. syphilis
c. lupus erythematosis
d. alopecia
5q: The most common cause of short stature is
a. constitutional
b. systemic diseases
c. hypothyroidism
d. growth hormone deficiency
6q: Burning foot syndrome was described by
a. Dr.Gopalan
b. Dr. Ramalingaswamy
c. Dr. Pauling
d. Dr. Limann
*Burning feet syndrome, also known as Grierson-Gopalan syndrome, is a medical condition that causes severe burning and aching of the feet, hyperesthesia, and vasomotor changes of the feet that leads to excessive sweating. It can even affect the eyes, causing scotoma and amblyopia. The condition occurs more frequently in women, and usually manifests itself when a person is between 20 and 40 years old.
It is named for Coluther Gopalan and J. Grierson.
7q: Identify the cytoprotective agent that is used for reduction of renal toxicity associated with repeated administration of cisplatin
a. Amifostine
b. Estramustine
c. Carboplatin
d. Mesna
8q: Method of identifying missing case of disease in a population is
a. Epidemiological surveillance
b. Contact tracing
c. Sentinel surveillance
d. contact survey
9q: Antibodies acting predominantly on the mucosal cells belong to
a. IgG class
b. IgM class
c. IgE class
d. IgA class
10q: Nonimmune hydrops fetalis is caused by all except
a. Parvo B19 virus
b. Chromosomal abnormalities
c. alpha thalassemia
d. ABO incompatibility
Sunday, January 31, 2010
Friday, January 22, 2010
339 - UPSC CMS 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 2
11q: Acinic cell carcinoma is found in ?
a. Thyroid
b. Salivary glands
c. Breast
d. Stomach
12q: Serum calcitonin may be elevated in ?
a. islet tumor of pancreas
b. choriocarcinoma of ovary
c. carcinoid tumour of appendix
d. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
13q: Which of the following does not alter the "T" stage in breast cancer ?
a. Peau d'orange
b. Skin ulceration
c. Pectoral muscle involvement
d. Serratus anterior muscle involvement
14q: Treatment with herceptin in breast cancer is indicated in ?
a. ER receptor positive tumors
b. PR receptor positive tumors
c. K:67 stain positive tumors
d. Tumors with over-expressed C-erb B-2 protein
15q: Pneumobilia can be seen in ?
a. Mirizzi's syndrome
b. acute pancreatitis
c. gall stone ileus
d. Carcinoma gallbladder
16q: Which one of the following is not a component of charcot's triad ?
a. pain
b. fever
c. vomiting
d. jaundice
17q: 'Double duct' sign is diagnostic of ?
a. periampullary carcinoma
b. gall bladder carcinoma
c. klastskin's carcinoma
d. hepatocellular carcinoma
18q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using code given below the lists :
19q: What is the most common hernia in females ?
a. Femoral hernia
b. Spigelian hernia
c. Inguinal hernia
d. Obturator hernia
20q: Consider the following radiological signs ?
1. Claw sign in barium enema
2. Apple core sign in barium enema
3. Multiple fluid levels with absent caecal gas in plain skiagram of abdomen
4. Single large fluid and air level in plain skiagram of abdomen
Which of the above signs is/are suggestive of ileocolic intussusception?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
a. Thyroid
b. Salivary glands
c. Breast
d. Stomach
12q: Serum calcitonin may be elevated in ?
a. islet tumor of pancreas
b. choriocarcinoma of ovary
c. carcinoid tumour of appendix
d. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
13q: Which of the following does not alter the "T" stage in breast cancer ?
a. Peau d'orange
b. Skin ulceration
c. Pectoral muscle involvement
d. Serratus anterior muscle involvement
14q: Treatment with herceptin in breast cancer is indicated in ?
a. ER receptor positive tumors
b. PR receptor positive tumors
c. K:67 stain positive tumors
d. Tumors with over-expressed C-erb B-2 protein
15q: Pneumobilia can be seen in ?
a. Mirizzi's syndrome
b. acute pancreatitis
c. gall stone ileus
d. Carcinoma gallbladder
16q: Which one of the following is not a component of charcot's triad ?
a. pain
b. fever
c. vomiting
d. jaundice
17q: 'Double duct' sign is diagnostic of ?
a. periampullary carcinoma
b. gall bladder carcinoma
c. klastskin's carcinoma
d. hepatocellular carcinoma
18q: Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using code given below the lists :
19q: What is the most common hernia in females ?
a. Femoral hernia
b. Spigelian hernia
c. Inguinal hernia
d. Obturator hernia
20q: Consider the following radiological signs ?
1. Claw sign in barium enema
2. Apple core sign in barium enema
3. Multiple fluid levels with absent caecal gas in plain skiagram of abdomen
4. Single large fluid and air level in plain skiagram of abdomen
Which of the above signs is/are suggestive of ileocolic intussusception?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2,3 and 4
Tuesday, January 19, 2010
338 - UPSC CMS 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 1
1q: A young college student having regular heart rate of 172 beats per minute attends OPD for uneasy sensation in chest. Carotid sinus pressure brings down the heart rate to 72 per minute. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Sinus arrythmia
d. PSVT
2q: A 66 year old lady presents to the emergency with 2 episodes of vomiting. Her ECG shows elevation of ST segment in inferior leads. Her BP is 80 mm systolic. The best way to start correcting her BP is ?
a. Immediate thrombolysis
b. Rescue PTCA
c. Normal saline infusion
d. Dopamine infusion
3q: A 15 year old boy is brought to the emergency room by the class teacher from the chemistry laboratory. The boy is an atopic individual with pulse rate of 116/minute regular, unable to speak in sentences and ABG shows severe hypoxemia. What is the probable diagnosis ?
a. Acute bacterial pneumonia
b. Acute severe asthma
c. Acute pleurisy
d. Tension pneumothorax
4q: A 45 year old man presented with regurgitated food particles eaten several days earlier. He has foul smelling breath and occasional dysphagia for solid food. What is the probable diagnosis ?
a. GOO
b. Zenker's diverticulum
c. Scleroderma
d. Diabetic gastroparesis
5q: Which one of the following bacteria almost never causes cavities in the lungs ?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Actinomyces
d. Haemophilus influenzae
6q: A 24 year old woman with the history of ulcerative colitis presented with progressive jaundice associated with pruritis and intermittent right upper quadrant abdominal pain. What would be the most likely ERCP finding ?
a. Normal finding
b. Diffuse strictures of common bile duct
c. Malignant strictures of CBD
d. Stones
7q: Early recurrent falls in elderly with opthalmoplegia suggests the possibility of ?
a. Huntington's chorea
b. Parkinson's disease
c. Shy-Drager syndrome
d. Progressive Supra nuclear palsy
8q: Consider the following :
Recognised causes of Proximal Type II (RTA) include :
1. Amyloidosis
2. Heavy metal poisoning
3. Renal transplant rejection
4. Hyperparathyroidism
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1,3,4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2,3 and 4
Causes of Proximal RTA :
Familial disorders
* Cystinosis
* Galactosemia
* Glycogen storage disease (type I)
* Hereditary fructose intolerance
* Lowe syndrome
* Tyrosinemia
* Wilson's disease
Acquired disorders
* Amyloidosis
* Multiple myeloma
* Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
* Kidney transplant rejection
* Toxins, such as HAART, ifosfamide, lead, and cadmium (heavy metals)
9q: Criteria for hospital admission of an adult with community acquired pneumonia includes all except ?
a. Respiratory rate greater than 28/min
b. TLC greater than 11,000/cu.mm
c. New onset confusion or impaired level of consciousness
d. Hypoxemia PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg
*Go to this page to read more about PSI score and CURB-65 score.
10q: Consuming which of the following food products is most associated with E.Coli type 0157 infection ?
a. Eggs
b. Poultry
c. Beef
d. Soft cheese
*Escherichia coli O157:H7 is an enterohemorrhagic strain of the bacterium Escherichia coli and a cause of foodborne illness. Infection often leads to hemorrhagic diarrhea, and occasionally to kidney failure, especially in young children and elderly. Most illness has been associated with eating undercooked, contaminated ground beef, drinking unpasteurized milk, swimming in or drinking contaminated water, and eating contaminated vegetables.
a. Ventricular tachycardia
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Sinus arrythmia
d. PSVT
2q: A 66 year old lady presents to the emergency with 2 episodes of vomiting. Her ECG shows elevation of ST segment in inferior leads. Her BP is 80 mm systolic. The best way to start correcting her BP is ?
a. Immediate thrombolysis
b. Rescue PTCA
c. Normal saline infusion
d. Dopamine infusion
3q: A 15 year old boy is brought to the emergency room by the class teacher from the chemistry laboratory. The boy is an atopic individual with pulse rate of 116/minute regular, unable to speak in sentences and ABG shows severe hypoxemia. What is the probable diagnosis ?
a. Acute bacterial pneumonia
b. Acute severe asthma
c. Acute pleurisy
d. Tension pneumothorax
4q: A 45 year old man presented with regurgitated food particles eaten several days earlier. He has foul smelling breath and occasional dysphagia for solid food. What is the probable diagnosis ?
a. GOO
b. Zenker's diverticulum
c. Scleroderma
d. Diabetic gastroparesis
5q: Which one of the following bacteria almost never causes cavities in the lungs ?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Actinomyces
d. Haemophilus influenzae
6q: A 24 year old woman with the history of ulcerative colitis presented with progressive jaundice associated with pruritis and intermittent right upper quadrant abdominal pain. What would be the most likely ERCP finding ?
a. Normal finding
b. Diffuse strictures of common bile duct
c. Malignant strictures of CBD
d. Stones
7q: Early recurrent falls in elderly with opthalmoplegia suggests the possibility of ?
a. Huntington's chorea
b. Parkinson's disease
c. Shy-Drager syndrome
d. Progressive Supra nuclear palsy
8q: Consider the following :
Recognised causes of Proximal Type II (RTA) include :
1. Amyloidosis
2. Heavy metal poisoning
3. Renal transplant rejection
4. Hyperparathyroidism
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a. 1,3,4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1,2 and 3
d. 2,3 and 4
Causes of Proximal RTA :
Familial disorders
* Cystinosis
* Galactosemia
* Glycogen storage disease (type I)
* Hereditary fructose intolerance
* Lowe syndrome
* Tyrosinemia
* Wilson's disease
Acquired disorders
* Amyloidosis
* Multiple myeloma
* Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
* Kidney transplant rejection
* Toxins, such as HAART, ifosfamide, lead, and cadmium (heavy metals)
9q: Criteria for hospital admission of an adult with community acquired pneumonia includes all except ?
a. Respiratory rate greater than 28/min
b. TLC greater than 11,000/cu.mm
c. New onset confusion or impaired level of consciousness
d. Hypoxemia PaO2 less than 60 mm Hg
*Go to this page to read more about PSI score and CURB-65 score.
10q: Consuming which of the following food products is most associated with E.Coli type 0157 infection ?
a. Eggs
b. Poultry
c. Beef
d. Soft cheese
*Escherichia coli O157:H7 is an enterohemorrhagic strain of the bacterium Escherichia coli and a cause of foodborne illness. Infection often leads to hemorrhagic diarrhea, and occasionally to kidney failure, especially in young children and elderly. Most illness has been associated with eating undercooked, contaminated ground beef, drinking unpasteurized milk, swimming in or drinking contaminated water, and eating contaminated vegetables.
Friday, January 15, 2010
337 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 9
41q: Branched chain amino acid oxidation is defective in ?
a. MSUD
b. Hartnup's disease
c. PKU
d. Alkaptonuria
42q: Retinoblastoma is associated with ?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Renal Cell carcinoma
c. Pineoblastoma
d. ?????????//
43q: Which of the following leaves a visible mark in the pathway so that the person can see it ?
a. Tandem bullet
b. Tracer bullet
c. DumDum bullet
d. Incendiary bullet
44q: Which of the following is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysms?
a. atherosclerosis
b. ??????????
c. ??????????
d. ??????????
45q: Klippel-Feil syndrome is associated with all of the following except ?
a. Short neck
b. Restricted neck movements
c. Low hair line
d. Elevated scapula
a. MSUD
b. Hartnup's disease
c. PKU
d. Alkaptonuria
42q: Retinoblastoma is associated with ?
a. Osteosarcoma
b. Renal Cell carcinoma
c. Pineoblastoma
d. ?????????//
43q: Which of the following leaves a visible mark in the pathway so that the person can see it ?
a. Tandem bullet
b. Tracer bullet
c. DumDum bullet
d. Incendiary bullet
44q: Which of the following is the most common cause of abdominal aortic aneurysms?
a. atherosclerosis
b. ??????????
c. ??????????
d. ??????????
45q: Klippel-Feil syndrome is associated with all of the following except ?
a. Short neck
b. Restricted neck movements
c. Low hair line
d. Elevated scapula
Thursday, January 14, 2010
336 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 8
36q: Hypogastric sheath is a condensation of ?
a. Pelvic fascia
b. Colles fascia
c. Scarpa's fascia
d. ????????
37q: Urogenital diaphragm is made up all of the following except ?
a. Sphincter urethrae
b. Perineal membrane
c. Deep transverse perinei
d. Colles fascia
38q: Drug inhibiting HER1 HER2 is ?
a. Imatinib
b. Lapatinib
c. Erlotinib
d. Gefitinib
39q: Primary impact injury is common in ?
a. Head
b. Abdomen
c. Legs
d. Chest
40q: Lord's plication is done for ?
a. Hydrocele
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????
a. Pelvic fascia
b. Colles fascia
c. Scarpa's fascia
d. ????????
37q: Urogenital diaphragm is made up all of the following except ?
a. Sphincter urethrae
b. Perineal membrane
c. Deep transverse perinei
d. Colles fascia
38q: Drug inhibiting HER1 HER2 is ?
a. Imatinib
b. Lapatinib
c. Erlotinib
d. Gefitinib
39q: Primary impact injury is common in ?
a. Head
b. Abdomen
c. Legs
d. Chest
40q: Lord's plication is done for ?
a. Hydrocele
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????
Monday, January 11, 2010
335 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 7
31q: Acoustic emesions are generated from
a) outer hair cells
b) inner hair cells
c) cochlea
d) ????????????
32q: urothelium lines all except
a) major calyces
b) membranous urethra
c) ureter
d) urinary bladder
33q: urogenital diaphgram is made up of all except
a) deep transverse perineus
b) perinial membrane
c) colle's fascia
d) sphincter urethrae
34q: Which of the following is used to analyse gene expression
a) northern blot
b) sourthern blot
c) western blot
d) microarray
35q: Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is seen in ?
answer: MSUD (Maple Syrup Urine Disease).
a) outer hair cells
b) inner hair cells
c) cochlea
d) ????????????
32q: urothelium lines all except
a) major calyces
b) membranous urethra
c) ureter
d) urinary bladder
33q: urogenital diaphgram is made up of all except
a) deep transverse perineus
b) perinial membrane
c) colle's fascia
d) sphincter urethrae
34q: Which of the following is used to analyse gene expression
a) northern blot
b) sourthern blot
c) western blot
d) microarray
35q: Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is seen in ?
answer: MSUD (Maple Syrup Urine Disease).
334 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 6
26q: Drug of choice for chlamydia in pregnancy is ?
a. Doxycycline
b. Tetracycline
c. Pencillin
d. Erythromycin
27q: Which of the following is commonly used in narcoanalysis ?
a. Atropine sulphate
b. Scopolamine hydrochloride
c. Opium compounds
d. ?????????????
28q: Recrrent meingitis in CSF leak patients most commonly due to:
a. E.coli
b. Pneumococcus
c. memingococcus
d. Yersinia
29q: Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous except
a. wegener's granulomatosis
b. buerger's disease
c. takayasu's arteritis
d. giant cell arteritis
30q: Thymoma is associated with all except ?
a. red cell aplasia
b. myasthenia gravis
c. hypogammaglobulinemia
d. SIADH
a. Doxycycline
b. Tetracycline
c. Pencillin
d. Erythromycin
27q: Which of the following is commonly used in narcoanalysis ?
a. Atropine sulphate
b. Scopolamine hydrochloride
c. Opium compounds
d. ?????????????
28q: Recrrent meingitis in CSF leak patients most commonly due to:
a. E.coli
b. Pneumococcus
c. memingococcus
d. Yersinia
29q: Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous except
a. wegener's granulomatosis
b. buerger's disease
c. takayasu's arteritis
d. giant cell arteritis
30q: Thymoma is associated with all except ?
a. red cell aplasia
b. myasthenia gravis
c. hypogammaglobulinemia
d. SIADH
333 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 5
21q: Endophthalmitis involves all of the following except ?
a. Uvea
b. Retina
c. Sclera
d. Vitreous
*Endophthalmitis is defined as an inflammation of the inner structures of the eyeball i.e., uveal tissue and retina associated with pouring of exudates in the vitreous cavity, anterior chamber and posterior chamber.
22q: Which of the following is the lymphatic drainage of spongiform urethra ?
a. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
b. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
c. External iliac nodes
d. Internal iliac nodes
*The lymphatic vessels of the membranous and prostatic urethrae in males and the whole of the urethra in the female, pass to the internal iliac nodes, although a few may enter the external nodes. But vessels coming from the spongy urethra (urethra, which transverses the penis or penile urethra) drain with the glans penis into the deep inguinal nodes. Some of the vessels may enter the superficial inguinal nodes and may pass through the inguinal canal to reach the external iliac nodes. From these nodes they drain into the lateral aortic nodes. From the nodes, efferents issue to the lumbar lymph trunk. The lumbar lymph trunks help to form the abdominal confluence of lymph ducts or the cisterna chyli. Cisterna chyli drains into thoracic duct.
23q: Which of the following inhibits insulin secretion ?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Adrenaline
d. Growth hormone
24q: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is assessed by ?
a. Hunt-Hess grading scale
b. Modified Rankin scale
c. Glasgow coma scale
d. Glasgow coma outcome scale
25. Hydrops fetalis is associated with ?
a. Parvo virus B19 infection
b. HPV infection
c. Syphilis
d. Gonococcus
a. Uvea
b. Retina
c. Sclera
d. Vitreous
*Endophthalmitis is defined as an inflammation of the inner structures of the eyeball i.e., uveal tissue and retina associated with pouring of exudates in the vitreous cavity, anterior chamber and posterior chamber.
22q: Which of the following is the lymphatic drainage of spongiform urethra ?
a. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
b. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
c. External iliac nodes
d. Internal iliac nodes
*The lymphatic vessels of the membranous and prostatic urethrae in males and the whole of the urethra in the female, pass to the internal iliac nodes, although a few may enter the external nodes. But vessels coming from the spongy urethra (urethra, which transverses the penis or penile urethra) drain with the glans penis into the deep inguinal nodes. Some of the vessels may enter the superficial inguinal nodes and may pass through the inguinal canal to reach the external iliac nodes. From these nodes they drain into the lateral aortic nodes. From the nodes, efferents issue to the lumbar lymph trunk. The lumbar lymph trunks help to form the abdominal confluence of lymph ducts or the cisterna chyli. Cisterna chyli drains into thoracic duct.
23q: Which of the following inhibits insulin secretion ?
a. Gastrin
b. Secretin
c. Adrenaline
d. Growth hormone
24q: Subarachnoid hemorrhage is assessed by ?
a. Hunt-Hess grading scale
b. Modified Rankin scale
c. Glasgow coma scale
d. Glasgow coma outcome scale
25. Hydrops fetalis is associated with ?
a. Parvo virus B19 infection
b. HPV infection
c. Syphilis
d. Gonococcus
Sunday, January 10, 2010
332 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 4
16q: In case of post-ductal coarctation of aorta, collaterals are formed by all except -
a. Vertebral artery
b. suprascapular a.
c. posterior intercostal a.
d. axillary a.
17q: According to Bismuth-Strasberg classification, Cystic duct blow out comes under ?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
*Look at figure 2, on this page :
18q: Beck's triad is seen in which of the following ?
a. Constrictive pericarditis
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. LVMI
d. ??????????
19q: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - all are true except
a. Bimodal age distribution
b. Primary modality of Rx would be nasopharyngectomy with neck dissection
c. IgA antibody to EBV antigen is specific
d. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common histopathological finding
*Radiotherapy is the primary modality of treatment in nasopharyngeal cancer.
20q: Lord's plication is used in -
a. testicular cancer
b. hydrocele
c. Hernia
d. Varicocele
a. Vertebral artery
b. suprascapular a.
c. posterior intercostal a.
d. axillary a.
17q: According to Bismuth-Strasberg classification, Cystic duct blow out comes under ?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
*Look at figure 2, on this page :
18q: Beck's triad is seen in which of the following ?
a. Constrictive pericarditis
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. LVMI
d. ??????????
19q: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma - all are true except
a. Bimodal age distribution
b. Primary modality of Rx would be nasopharyngectomy with neck dissection
c. IgA antibody to EBV antigen is specific
d. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common histopathological finding
20q: Lord's plication is used in -
a. testicular cancer
b. hydrocele
c. Hernia
d. Varicocele
331 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 3
11q: TRISS stands for which of the following ?
answer: Trauma Injury Severity Scale.
12q: Which of the following stones are hard to break ?
a. struvite
b. Uric acid
c. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
d. Calcium oxalate dihydrate
*The results of ESWL depend on the size of the stone, stone burden, type of stone, and location. In general ESWL is used for stones less than 1 to 2 centimeters in size. Most stones fracture well with ESWL treatment. Hard stones such as calcium oxalate monohydrate and cystine stones are more difficult to break with ESWL and therefore often require percutaneous nephrostolithotomy.
- The above lines are taken from here
13q: Asha is selected at which level ?
a. Subcentre
b. Village
c. District
d. PHC
14q: What is the enzyme deficiency seen in Niemann-Pick's disease ?
answer: Sphingomyelinase.
15q: Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasms by
1. cold receptors in skin
2. inhibiting adrenergic receptors
3. inhibiting cholinergic receptors
4. increasing the temp of peritoneal fluid
answer: Trauma Injury Severity Scale.
12q: Which of the following stones are hard to break ?
a. struvite
b. Uric acid
c. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
d. Calcium oxalate dihydrate
*The results of ESWL depend on the size of the stone, stone burden, type of stone, and location. In general ESWL is used for stones less than 1 to 2 centimeters in size. Most stones fracture well with ESWL treatment. Hard stones such as calcium oxalate monohydrate and cystine stones are more difficult to break with ESWL and therefore often require percutaneous nephrostolithotomy.
- The above lines are taken from here
13q: Asha is selected at which level ?
a. Subcentre
b. Village
c. District
d. PHC
14q: What is the enzyme deficiency seen in Niemann-Pick's disease ?
answer: Sphingomyelinase.
15q: Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasms by
1. cold receptors in skin
2. inhibiting adrenergic receptors
3. inhibiting cholinergic receptors
4. increasing the temp of peritoneal fluid
330 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 2
6q: Which of the following is to be monitored in a patient who is on linezolid treatment ?
a. Renal function tests
b. Liver function tests
c. Rash
d. Platelet count
Linezolid seems to be well tolerated, with generally minor side effects (e.g., gastrointestinal complaints, headache, rash). Myelosuppression, including anemia, leukopenia, pancytopenia, and thrombocytopenia, has been reported in patients receiving linezolid. Thrombocytopenia or a significant reduction in platelet count has been associated with linezolid in 2.4% of treated patients, and its occurrence is related to duration of therapy. Platelet counts should be monitored in patients with risk of bleeding, preexisting thrombocytopenia, or intrinsic or acquired disorders of platelet function (including those potentially caused by concomitant medication) and in patients receiving courses of therapy lasting beyond 2 weeks. Linezolid is a weak, nonspecific inhibitor of monoamine oxidase. Patients receiving concomitant therapy with an adrenergic or serotonergic agent or consuming more than 100 mg of tyramine a day may experience palpitations, headache, or hypertensive crisis. Peripheral and optic neuropathy, which seem to be reversible upon drug discontinuation, have been reported with prolonged use. Linezolid is neither a substrate nor an inhibitor of CYPs.
7q: Low CSF protein is seen in all of the following except ?
a. Infant
b. Recurrent Lumbar puncture
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pseudotumor cerebri
*Low CSF protein levels can occur in conditions such as repeated lumbar puncture or a chronic leak, in which CSF is lost at a higher than normal rate. Low CSF protein levels also are seen in some children between the ages of six months and two years, in acute water intoxication, and in a minority of patients with idiopathic intracranial hypertension. CSF protein levels do not fall in hypoproteinemia.
-The above lines were taken from here
*The CSF protein level can be increased in patients with hypothyroidism. One study suggested that CSF albumin and CSF IgG were both increased during over hypothyroidism but not with subclinical disease.
-The above 2 lines about hypothyroidism were taken from this google book reference.
8q: Gluteus medius is supplied by ?
a. Superior gluteal nerve
b. Inferior gluteal nerve
c. ???????????
d. ???????????
9q: Time of surgery for undescended testis ?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. just after birth
-Read these lines from Schwartz's surgery 9th edition.
*Males with bilateral undescended testicles are often infertile. When the testicle is not within the scrotum, it is subjected to a higher temperature, which results in decreased spermatogenesis. Mengel and coworkers studied 515 undescended testicles by histologic analysis and demonstrated a decreasing presence of spermatogonia after 2 years of age. Consequently it is now recommended that an undescended testicle be surgically repositioned by 2 years of age.
-But before u jump into any conclusions, read these lines from sabiston textbook of surgery, 18th edition.
*When a unilateral gonad is palpated in the inguinal canal, but cannot be manipulated into a scrotal position, an orchidopexy is performed. In most pediatric centers, this is done when patients have reached about 6 months of age. This early intervention may permit postnatal germ cell development to proceed normally. The orchidopexy is done through an inguinal incision.
CONCLUSION : After reading both the versions, i think it is 6 months, because, firstly schwartz mentions that it should be done before 2 years, but does not specify a time. Whereas sabiston mentions the exact time with proper explanation of - "This early intervention may permit postnatal germ cell development to proceed normally.". So i am gonna go with 6 months.
10q: Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays
*The same question was asked in AIPGMEE 2006 paper,
- The rays with the most ionization potential or damaging power are - Alpha rays, followed by Beta rays, followed by X-rays and lastly Gamma rays - arranged in the decreasing order of ionization .
- The reverse is true for the penetrating power of these rays, that means, the rays with the most penetrating power are the Gamma rays and the rays with the least penetrating power are the alpha rays.
a. Renal function tests
b. Liver function tests
c. Rash
d. Platelet count
Linezolid seems to be well tolerated, with generally minor side effects (e.g., gastrointestinal complaints, headache, rash). Myelosuppression, including anemia, leukopenia, pancytopenia, and thrombocytopenia, has been reported in patients receiving linezolid. Thrombocytopenia or a significant reduction in platelet count has been associated with linezolid in 2.4% of treated patients, and its occurrence is related to duration of therapy. Platelet counts should be monitored in patients with risk of bleeding, preexisting thrombocytopenia, or intrinsic or acquired disorders of platelet function (including those potentially caused by concomitant medication) and in patients receiving courses of therapy lasting beyond 2 weeks. Linezolid is a weak, nonspecific inhibitor of monoamine oxidase. Patients receiving concomitant therapy with an adrenergic or serotonergic agent or consuming more than 100 mg of tyramine a day may experience palpitations, headache, or hypertensive crisis. Peripheral and optic neuropathy, which seem to be reversible upon drug discontinuation, have been reported with prolonged use. Linezolid is neither a substrate nor an inhibitor of CYPs.
7q: Low CSF protein is seen in all of the following except ?
a. Infant
b. Recurrent Lumbar puncture
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pseudotumor cerebri
*Low CSF protein levels can occur in conditions such as repeated lumbar puncture or a chronic leak, in which CSF is lost at a higher than normal rate. Low CSF protein levels also are seen in some children between the ages of six months and two years, in acute water intoxication, and in a minority of patients with idiopathic intracranial hypertension. CSF protein levels do not fall in hypoproteinemia.
-The above lines were taken from here
*The CSF protein level can be increased in patients with hypothyroidism. One study suggested that CSF albumin and CSF IgG were both increased during over hypothyroidism but not with subclinical disease.
-The above 2 lines about hypothyroidism were taken from this google book reference.
8q: Gluteus medius is supplied by ?
a. Superior gluteal nerve
b. Inferior gluteal nerve
c. ???????????
d. ???????????
9q: Time of surgery for undescended testis ?
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. just after birth
-Read these lines from Schwartz's surgery 9th edition.
*Males with bilateral undescended testicles are often infertile. When the testicle is not within the scrotum, it is subjected to a higher temperature, which results in decreased spermatogenesis. Mengel and coworkers studied 515 undescended testicles by histologic analysis and demonstrated a decreasing presence of spermatogonia after 2 years of age. Consequently it is now recommended that an undescended testicle be surgically repositioned by 2 years of age.
-But before u jump into any conclusions, read these lines from sabiston textbook of surgery, 18th edition.
*When a unilateral gonad is palpated in the inguinal canal, but cannot be manipulated into a scrotal position, an orchidopexy is performed. In most pediatric centers, this is done when patients have reached about 6 months of age. This early intervention may permit postnatal germ cell development to proceed normally. The orchidopexy is done through an inguinal incision.
CONCLUSION : After reading both the versions, i think it is 6 months, because, firstly schwartz mentions that it should be done before 2 years, but does not specify a time. Whereas sabiston mentions the exact time with proper explanation of - "This early intervention may permit postnatal germ cell development to proceed normally.". So i am gonna go with 6 months.
10q: Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays
*The same question was asked in AIPGMEE 2006 paper,
- The rays with the most ionization potential or damaging power are - Alpha rays, followed by Beta rays, followed by X-rays and lastly Gamma rays - arranged in the decreasing order of ionization .
- The reverse is true for the penetrating power of these rays, that means, the rays with the most penetrating power are the Gamma rays and the rays with the least penetrating power are the alpha rays.
329 - AIPGMEE 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 1
1q: In NRHM programme , JSSY stands for ?
answer: Janani Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.
2q: Pancreatitis occur with which of the following ?
a. Didanosine
b. Lamivudine
c. Zidovudine
d. Abacavir
Here is the list of drugs which cause Pancreatitis .
3q: Egg on side appearance is seen in ?
a. TOF
b. TGA
c. TAPVC
d. Tricuspid atresia with VSD
4q: Acoustic neuroma most commonly arises from?
a. Inferior vestibular nerve
b. Superior vestibular nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Abducent nerve
*The above question on acoustic neuroma was also asked in AIIMS November 2009 examination paper.
5q: Cherry red spot is seen in all except ?
a. Taysach's disease
b. Gaucher's disease
c. Niemann pick's disease
d. Fabry's disease
Here is a list of all the causes of cherry red spot of the macula
answer: Janani Swasthya Suraksha Yojana.
2q: Pancreatitis occur with which of the following ?
a. Didanosine
b. Lamivudine
c. Zidovudine
d. Abacavir
Here is the list of drugs which cause Pancreatitis .
3q: Egg on side appearance is seen in ?
a. TOF
b. TGA
c. TAPVC
d. Tricuspid atresia with VSD
4q: Acoustic neuroma most commonly arises from?
a. Inferior vestibular nerve
b. Superior vestibular nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Abducent nerve
*The above question on acoustic neuroma was also asked in AIIMS November 2009 examination paper.
5q: Cherry red spot is seen in all except ?
a. Taysach's disease
b. Gaucher's disease
c. Niemann pick's disease
d. Fabry's disease
Here is a list of all the causes of cherry red spot of the macula
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