44 - bhatia and speed grand test mcqs part 5

41q: carcinoma endometrium with involvement of inguinal nodes belongs to which stage ?

1. stage 1
2. stage 2
3. stage 3
4. stage 4

answer : d. stage 4 .

42q: which of the following tumor chromosome relationships is wrongly matched?

1. neuroblastoma – chromosome 1
2. wilm’s tumor – chromosome 11
3. retinoblastoma – chromosome 13
4. wilson’s disease – chromosome 13
5. osteosarcoma – chromosome 8

answer : e .

43q: which of the following indication for cesarean section in pregnancy ?

1. pulmonary stenosis
2. coarctation of aorta
3. eisenmenger syndrome
4. ebstein’s anamoly

answer : b . coarctation of aorta .

44q: treatment of choice in a 30 year old female with hydatidiform mole and its size 28 weeks is ?

Answer : suction and evacuation ( not hysterectomy )

45q: fibrinoid deposits in the placental intervillous space of the foetal maternal junction are called ?

Answer : Rohn’s stria .

46q: what is the second most common symptom of pheochromocytoma in adult ?

1. headache
2. sweating
3. paroxysmal hypertension
4. persistent hypertension

answer : b . sweating .

47q: the following factors facilitate metastasis of cancer cells except ?

1. metalloproteinases
2. loss of E-cadherin expression
3. angiogenesis peptides
4. CD8+ T cells

Answer : d .

48q: all of the following are prodrugs except ?

1. lisinopril
2. perindopril
3. ramipril
4. benazepril

answer : a . lisinopril

49q: a new drug which is preferentially catalysed in the tumor to form 5 – fluorouracil ?

Answer : capicitabine .

50q: magill circuit air flow is

1. equal to minute volume
2. twice to minute volume
3. half to minute volume
4. equal to minute volume

answer : a . equal to minute volume .

43 - bhatia and speed grand test mcqs part 4

31q: a young nulliparous woman presents with a second degree uterine prolapse . the most appropriate management of this patient is ?

1. lefort’s repair
2. purandare’s cervicopexy
3. mayoward
4. fothergill’s

answer : b . purandare’s cervicopexy .

32q: carcinoma involving both the ovaries and ascitic fluid cytology positive for malignant cells is of which stage ?

1. I c
2. II c
3. III c
4. IV

Answer : a . I c .

33q: the most common type of breech presentation in primi gravida is ?

1. frank breech
2. complete breech
3. incomplete breech
4. sacrum anterior

answer : a . frank breech .

34q: the HOB NAIL CELLS are found in ?

1. Brenner tumor
2. Clear cell adenoma
3. Mucinous tumors
4. Endometrial tumors

Answer : b . clear cell adenoma .

35q: which of the follwing is more likely to involve the epiphysis of long bones than vertebral column ?

1. osteoblastoma
2. osteoporosis
3. metastatic breast cancer
4. giant cell tumor of bone

answer : d . giant cell tumor of bone .

36q: a young patient with rhabdomyoma of the heart most likely has ?

1. mental retardation
2. a trisomy chromosomal abnormality
3. a single umbilical artery at birth
4. a primary rhabdomyosarcoma in the thigh

answer : a .

37q: the most common etiological factor in cushing’s syndrome ?

1. adrenal adenoma
2. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
3. adrenal carcinoma
4. ectopic adrenal tissue

answer : b . BAH of adrenals .

38q: a patient presents with waxy flexibility , negativism and rigidity , diagnosis is ?

1. catatonic schizophrenia
2. paranoid schizophrenia
3. hebephrenic schizophrenia
4. simple schizophrenia

answer : a .

39q: hyperuricemia often occurs secondary to all the following disorders except ?

1. leukemias
2. lymphomas
3. chondrocalcinosis
4. lesch-nyhan syndrome

answer : c . hyperuricemia is not a feature of chondrocalcinosis .

40q: a person missing from home is found wandering purposefully . he is well groomed and denies of having amnesia . most likely diagnosis ?

1. dissociative fugue
2. dissociative amnesia
3. schizophrenia
4. dementia

answer : d . dementia .

42 - bhatia and speed grand test mcqs part 3

21q: earliest symptom of acoustic neuroma is ?

1. deafness
2. tinnitus
3. vertigo
4. facial weakness

answer : a . deafness .

22q: ocular albinism is inherited as

Answer : X linked recessive .

23q: satellite lesions are seen in the follwing type of leprosy ?

1. tuberculoid leprosy
2. lepromatous leprosy
3. borderline tuberculoid leprosy
4. histoid leprosy

answer : c . borderline tuberculoid leprosy .

24q: the patient 25 years old suffered head injury , he developed double vision on looking down . the probable cranial nerve involved is ?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 6
4. 7

Answer : fourth cranial nerve .

25q: inversion and eversion take place at which joint ?

1. talo calcanael joint
2. talo calcaneo cuneiform
3. calcaneo cuboid
4. mid tarsal joint

answer : a . talo calcaneal joint .

26q: in India rigor mortis begins at ?

1. 1 – 2 hours after death
2. 3 – 6 hours after death
3. 12 – 24 hours after death
4. 16 – 18 hours after death

Answer : a .

27q: the only test to identify both choline and spermine in seminal stain is ?

1. barberio test
2. Florence test
3. Thin layer chromatography
4. Acid phosphatase test

Answer : c . thin layer chromatography .

28q: drug of choice for elimination of nasal carriage of both methicillin resistant and methicillin susceptible staphylococcus aureus is ?

Answer : mupirocin .

29q: the most common histological finding in DUB is ?

1. normal endometrium
2. hyperplastic endometrium
3. irregular ripening
4. irregular shedding

answer : a . normal endometrium .

30q: the conization is reserved for patients with ?

1. CIN 1
2. CIN 2
3. CIN 3
4. Dysplasia

Answer : c . CIN 3 .

41 - bhatia and speed grand test mcqs part 2

11q: ECTHYMA GANGRENOSUM are pathognomic skin lesions of

1. staph aureus infection
2. klebsiella infection
3. pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
4. proteus infection

answer : c . pseudomonas aeruginosa infection .

12q: in a patient with VENTRICULAR FIBRILLATION , after initial unsuccessful defibrillation attempts , which anti arrhythmic drug is the agent of choice ?

1. amiodarone
2. magnesium sulfate
3. lidocaine
4. procainamide

answer : a . amiodarone .

13q: the following drugs are used for endoscopic removal with intra vesical therapy in superficial bladder tumors except

1. BCG
2. IFN
3. Gemcitabine
4. Methotrexate

Answer: d . MTX .

14q: one DALY is

1. ten lost years of healthy life
2. five lost years of healthy life
3. one lost year of healthy life
4. three lost years of healthy life

answer : c . one lost year of healthy life .

15q: the ideal treatment of choice for CADMIUM toxicity

1. dimercaprol
2. EDTA
3. DMSA
4. No effective treatment possible

Answer : d . no effective treatment possible .

16q: the term killed in a road traffic accident is defined as any person who died within _______ days as a result of accident ?

Answer: 30 days .

17q: the objectives of Indian red cross are

1. improvement of health
2. prevention of disease
3. mitigation of suffering
4. all

answer : a . improvement of health .

18q: anti malaria month is observed during which month ?

Answer : june .

19q: the incubation period of pneumonic plague is usually

Answer : 1 to 3 days .

20q: xeroderma pigmentosa is produced as a result of ?

1. DNA polymerase 3
2. DNA polymerase 1
3. DNA exonuclease
4. DNA ligase

Answer : d . DNA ligase .

40 - bhatia and speed grand test mcqs part 1

1q: pure tone audiometry to assess hearing in children is usually possible beyond what age ?

1. greater than 2 years
2. greater than 5 years
3. greater than 7 years
4. greater than 10 years

answer : b . greater than 5 years .

2q: children in this age group tolerate digitalis best ?

1. preterm babies
2. infants
3. toddlers
4. school going

answer : b . infants

3q: active immunoprophylaxis after exposure is indicated in the following diseases except ?

1. measles
2. mumps
3. chicken pox
4. hepatitis B

answer : b. mumps .

4q: the only live vaccine indicated in symptomatic HIV patients is ?

1. BCG
2. OPV
3. Measles
4. Influenza

Answer: c . measles .

5q: the most common causative agent for bacterial tracheitis in children is ?

1. staphylococcus aureus
2. streptococcus pneumoniae
3. hemophilus influenzae
4. streptococcus pyogenes

answer : a . staph aureus .

6q: preterm milk contains the following in higher concentrations ?

1. energy
2. protein
3. lactose
4. sodium

answer : c . lactose .

7q: a child is able to pull self to standing position , cruises around on holding to furniture , creeps keeping his abdomen off ground , plays pat a cake and peek a boo at ?

1. 28 weeks
2. 32 weeks
3. 36 weeks
4. 40 weeks

Answer : d . 40 weeks .

8q: how many milligrams of ascorbic acid is required each day in a 5 year old child ?

Answer : 40 mg .

9q: tubercular bronchopneumonia would be classified under what category according to IAP classification of childhood tuberculosis ?

1. group 1
2. group 2
3. group 3
4. group 4

answer : d . group 4 .

10q: GRANULOMATOSIS INFANTISEPTICUM is caused by ?

1. toxoplasma
2. staph aureus
3. listeria
4. legionella

answer : c . listeria .

39 - random mcqs from various subjects 6

91q: organism which shows tumbling motility ?

Answer : listeria at 20 – 25 degree Celsius .

92q: microorganism which show swarming ?

Answer : proteus mirabilis, proteus vulgaris, bacillus cereus and clostridium tetani . proteus also shows the characteristic dienes phenomenon .

93q: toll like receptors are expressed on all except ?

1. macrophages
2. dendritic cells
3. B cells
4. T cells

Answer : d . T cells .

94q: all of the following are oxidase positive organisms except ?

1. E . coli
2. Vibrio cholera
3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. Aeromonas hydrophila

Answer : a . E . coli is oxidase negative .

95q: protective anti tetanus toxoid antibody levels in a person vaccinated against tetanus should be atleast ?

Answer : 0.1 IU/ml .

96q: a baby is suffering from severe ABO incompatibility . exchange transfusion is planned for the baby . the baby’s weight is 3 kg . how much blood will be needed for exchange transfusion ?

Answer : 540 ml . exchange blood transfusion for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia is done with double the blood volume of the baby – 180 ml/kg. baby’s weight is 3 kg and hence the amount of blood needed is 180 X 3 = 540 ml .

97q: in a lady of 32 weeks pregnancy injection dexamethasone is to be given to prevent ?

1. RDS
2. Neonatal convulsion
3. Neonatal jaundice
4. Cerebral palsy

Answer : a . RDS .

98q: anti hormonal substance used to induce ovulation is ?

1. mifepristone
2. clomiphene citrate
3. tamoxifen
4. raloxifen

answer : b .

99q: non contraceptive use of OC pills are all except ?

1. carcinoma endometrium
2. carcinoma breasts
3. rheumatoid arthritis
4. endometriosis

answer : b . carcinoma breasts .

100q: on TVS which of the following shape of cervix indicates preterm labour ?

Answer : U shape . ( TVS stands for transvaginal sonography )

38 - random mcqs from various subjects 5

81q: mechanism of violence in burst fracture of spine

1. compression violence
2. flexion violence
3. extension violence
4. distraction violence

answer : a . compression violence .

82q: most common mode of treatment of a 1 year old child with asthma ?

1. inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist with MDI
2. oral short acting theophylline
3. oral ketotifen
4. inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist with spacer ,mask and MDI

answer : d . MDI stands for metered dose inhaler .

83q: the latest diodes used for phototherapy of neonates , which have the advantages of production of minimal heat, narrow luminous spectra in the blue green range with massive delivery of irradiance is ?

Answer : halogen quartz light emitting diode .

84q: which of the following has receptors intracellularly in muscle cells ?

1. insulin
2. corticosteroid
3. epinephrine
4. glucagon

answer : b . corticosteroid .

85q: ovarian cyst in a post partum patient . treatment is

1. immediate removal
2. after two weeks
3. after 6 weeks
4. after 3 months

answer : a . immediate removal .

86q: juvenile delinquency has an extra ______ chromosome?

1. X chromosome
2. Y chromosome
3. XX chromosome
4. YY chromosome

Answer : b . Y chromosome .

87q: when the hand is in a resting supine position , the radius is in articulation at the radiocarpal joint with which of the following bones ?

1. triquetrum and trapezium
2. lunate and trapezium
3. scaphoid and lunate
4. scaphoid and hamate

answer : c . scaphoid and lunate .

88q: an indirect inguinal hernia occurs

1. lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
2. between the inferior epigastric and obliterated umbilical arteries
3. medial to the obliterated umbilical artery
4. between the median and medial umbilical folds

answer : a . lateral to the inferior epigastric artery .

89q: vision 2020 does not include ?

1. cataract
2. trachoma
3. onchoceriasis
4. epidemic conjunctivitis

answer : d . epidemic conjunctivitis .

90q: hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which regulating pathways ?

Answer : oxygen inhibits hexokinase .

37 - random mcqs from various subjects 4

61q: if the urethra is torn distal to the urogenital diaphragm , urine might accumulate in the ?

1. retropubic space
2. medial aspect of thigh
3. ischiorectal fossa
4. superficial perineal space

answer : d . superficial perineal space .

62q: parasympathetic fibres that supply the urinary bladder are derived from which of the following nerves ?

Answer : pelvic splanchnic nerve .

63q: general somatic afferents ( GSA ) fibres are contained in which of the following structures

1. sympathetic trunk
2. dorsal root
3. greater splanchnic nerve
4. gray rami communicates

answer : b . dorsal root .

64q: a lesion of parasympathetic fibres in the vagus nerve interferes with glandular secretory or smooth muscle functions in which of the following organs

1. bladder
2. transverse colon
3. sigmoid colon
4. prostate gland

answer : b . transverse colon . the vagus nerve supplies parasympathetic fibres to the thoracic and abdominal viscera , including the transverse colon . the descending and sigmoid colons and the abdominal viscera are innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerves .

65q: overactivity of the thiazide sensitive NaCl transporter is called as

1. dent’s disease
2. gordon’s syndrome
3. liddle syndrome
4. gitelman’s syndrome

answer : b . gordon’s syndrome .

66q: most important marker for acute and chronic malnutrition is ?

1. weight for height
2. BMI
3. Weight for age
4. Height for age

Answer : c . weight for age .

67q: the following is the first phenotypic expression of hereditary hemochromatosis?

1. post prandial increase in iron
2. increased serum ferritin
3. increase in transferrin saturation
4. slate like skin pigmentation

answer : c . increase in transferring saturation .

68q: the mechanism of action of imatinib ?

1. competitive inhibitor of the bcr abl gene product
2. P glycoprotein inhibitor
3. P glycoprotein stimulator
4. Competitively antagonizes the ATP binding site

Answer : d .

69q: the following statement is true regarding AIDS associated arthropathy ?

1. involves smaller joints
2. erosive arthritis
3. NSAID s are the drug of choice
4. Lasts 6 weeks to 6 months

Answer : d . lasts 6 weeks to 6 months .

70q: all of the following produce diphtheria toxin except ?

1. corynebacterium diphtheriae
2. corynebacterium ulcerans
3. corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
4. corynebacterium pseudodipthericum

answer : d .

71q: dienes phenomenon is seen in ?

1. proteus
2. mycoplasma
3. Chlamydia
4. Rickettsia

Answer : a . proteus .

72q: a patient with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia was diagnosed to have an inherited disorder of bile cancalicular function . his serum gamma glutamyl transferase ( GGT ) levels were elevated . what could be the probable diagnosis ?

1. BRIC
2. Rotors syndrome
3. PFIC 2
4. PFIC 3

Answer : d . PFIC 3 . the only variant of inheritable disorder of bile canalicular function with elevated GGT is PFIC 3 .

73q: the following CD antigen regulates Ig E synthesis ?

1. CD 23
2. CD 22
3. CD 21
4. CD 20

Answer : a . CD 23 .

74q: the complement component H deficiency predisposes to ?

1. pyogenic infections
2. neisseria infection
3. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
4. Immune complex syndromes

Answer : c . HUS .

75q: asialoglycoprotein receptor is the auto antigen in which auto immune disorder?

1. auto immune hepatitis
2. myasthenia gravis
3. auto immune gastritis
4. acquired hypoparathyroidism

answer : a . auto immune hepatitis .

76q: the recommended therapy for vancomycin resistant enterococcal infection ?

Answer : ampicillin plus gentamicin .

77q: drug of choice for prophylaxis of bacterial infection in a patient undergoing colorectal surgery ( clean contaminated ) includes all except ?

1. cefoxitin
2. oral neomycin
3. erythromycin
4. fluoroquinolones

answer : d .

78q: which bone tumor occurs in epiphysis ?

1. osteoclastoma
2. ewing’s sarcoma
3. chondro-myxoid fibroma
4. osteosarcoma

answer : a . osteoclastoma occurs in epiphysis .

79q: regarding S4 which of the follwing statement is true

1. ventricular filling
2. rapid ejection phase
3. can be heard with human ear
4. frequency more than 20 hertz

answer : a . ventricular filling .

80q: most common force involved in fractures of the spine

1. flexion
2. extension
3. rotation
4. compression

answer : a .

36 - random mcqs from various subjects 3

41q: brain is preserved in all of the following poisonings except

1. OPC poisoning
2. Alkaloid poisoning
3. Heavy metal poisoning
4. Volatile organic poisoning

Answer : c . heavy metal poisoning .

42q: cytosolic cytochrome C plays an important role in ?

1. apoptosis
2. cell necrosis
3. electron transport chain
4. cell division

answer : a . apoptosis .

43q: sexual asphyxia is associated with which one of the following

1. masochism
2. sadism
3. fetishism
4. voyeurism

answer : a . masochism .

44q: post transplant lymphoma occurs due to proliferation of which of the following cells ?

1. T cell
2. B cell
3. NK cell
4. Monocyte

Answer : b . B cell .

45q: NK cells attack which of the following cells ?

1. MHC cells which express MHC 1
2. Cells which are not able to express MHC 1
3. MHC cells which express MHC 2
4. Cells which are not able to express MHC 2

Answer : b .

46q: which is autosomal dominant ?

1. gyrate atrophy
2. best disease
3. Lawrence moon biedl syndrome
4. Bassen kornweig disease

Answer : b . best diagnostic test for best disease is EOG .

47q: treatment of choice for glue ear ?

Answer : myringotomy with ventilation tube insertion

48q: all the following are contraindicated in pregnancy except ?

1. sodium nitroprusside
2. labetalol
3. spironolactone
4. ACE inhibitors

Answer : b . labetalol can be given in pregnancy .

49q: the following drug is not useful in MRSA ( methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus ) ?

1. cefaclor
2. cotrimoxazole
3. ciprofloxacin
4. vancomycin

answer : a . cefaclor .

50q: northern blot is used for the separation of ?

1. m RNA
2. DNA
3. Protein
4. Protein DNA interaction

Answer : a . m RNA .

51Q: CAP in lac operon is an example of ?

1. positive regulator
2. negative regulator
3. constitutive expression
4. attenuation

answer : a . CAP (catabolite activator protein).

52q: 6 year old child with recurrent URTI with mouth breathing and impaired hearing . treatment is ?

Answer : adenoidectomy with grommet insertion .

53q: most common cause of blindness in children in India is all except ?

1. malnutrition
2. opthalmia neonatorum
3. glaucoma
4. congenital dacryocystitis

answer: d .

54q: the nucleus involved in papez circuit is ?

1. pulvinar
2. intralaminar
3. VPL nucleus
4. Anterior nucleus

Answer : d . anterior nucleus .

55q: the processing of short term memory and long term memory is done in which part of brain ?

Answer: hippocampus .

56q: these mechanism of learning and memory includes all except ?

1. increasing or decreasing neurotransmitter release
2. increasing receptor synthesis
3. recruitment by multiplication of neurons
4. spatial organization of the associational areas

answer : c .

57q: not secreted in the kidney is ?

1. rennin
2. angiotensin 1
3. erythropoietin
4. 1,25 DHCC

Answer : b .

58q: if a stab wound lacerates the posterior humeral circumflex artery passing through the quadrangular space on the shoulder region , which of the following nerves might be injured ?

Answer : axillary nerve .

59q: which of the following ligaments is important in preventing forward displacement of the femur on the tibia when the weight bearing knee is flexed ?

Answer : posterior cruciate ligament prevents anterior displacement of femur on tibia .

60q: a 21 year old woman comes to the emergency department with chylothorax due to rupture of the thoracic duct. Lymphatic drainage remains normal in which of the following areas ?

1. left thorax
2. right thorax
3. left abdomen
4. right pelvis

answer : b . right thorax .

35 - random mcqs on various subjects 2

21q: hemorrhage secondary to heparin administration can be corrected by administration of

1. vitamin k
2. whole blood
3. protamine
4. ascorbic acid

answer : c . protamine .

22q: all of the following are selective beta blockers except

1. atenolol
2. esmolol
3. bisprolol
4. celiprolol

answer : d .

23q: codex alimentarius is the food standard at ?

1. state level
2. regional level
3. national level
4. international level

answer : d . international level.

24q: juvenile means

Answer : a boy who has not attained 16 years of age and a girl who has not attained 18 years of age .

25q: aminoacid score is

Answer : a measure of concentration of each essential aminoacid in the test protein expressed as a percentage of that aminoacid in the reference protein .

26q: what is TESA ?

Answer : testicular sperm aspiration .

27q: the limiting amino acid in wheat is ?

Answer : lysine and threonine .

28q: a 25 year old woman with recurrent episodes of headaches,sweating and hypertension is noted to have elevated vanilylmandelic acid ( VMA ) and metanephrines. CT scan reveals no abnormalities in either adrenal gland . which of the following is the most probable location of the pheochromocytoma ?

1. bladder
2. bifurcation of aorta
3. paravertebral ganglia
4. carotid body

answer : b . bifurcation of aorta .

29q: which one of the following is a permanent spatial group ?

1. crowd
2. mob
3. herd
4. band

answer : d . band .

30q: a five year old boy has multiple asymptomatic oval and circular faintly hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on his face. The most probable clinical diagnosis ?

1. ptyriasis versicolor
2. indeterminate leprosy
3. ptyriasis alba
4. acrofacial vitiligo

answer : c . ptyriasis alba .

31q: the composition of MALA – N and MALA – D

Answer : norgestrol 0.3 mg and ethinyl estradiol 0.03 mg

32q: MIRENA is a T shaped IUCD which releases ______ micrograms of _______?

Answer : 20 micrograms of levonorgestrel .

33q: delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with

1. autonomic hyperactivity and tremors
2. trichotillomania
3. kleptomania
4. capgras syndrome

answer : a . autonomic hyperactivity and tremors . due to alcohol withdrawal and other causes .

34q: an anaesthetist orders an attendant to bring the oxygen cylinder . he will ask the attendant to identify the correct cylinder by following which color code ?

Answer : black cylinder with white shoulders .

35q: extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of

1. coal workers pneumoconises
2. asbestosis
3. silicosis
4. siderosis

answer : b . asbestosis .

36q: a positive tuberculin test , with a firm 15 mm diameter dark red firm area of induration on the forearm appears 60 hrs following injection of the PPD . this finding is most likely to be a consequence of which of the following types of hypersensitivity reaction ?

1. type 1 hypersensitivity
2. type 2 hypersensitivity
3. type 3 hypersensitivity
4. type 4 hypersensitivity

answer : d . type 4 .

37q : which of the following does not handle free radicals in lens?

1. vitamin A
2. vitamin C
3. vitamin E
4. catalase

answer : a . Vitamin A .

38q: hyaluronic acid is found in

1. vitreous humor
2. synovial fluid
3. cartilage
4. cornea

answer : a . vitreous humor .

39q: which of the following is true of judicial hanging

1. knot is present behind the neck
2. knot is at the side of the neck
3. ligature always presents below the chin
4. choice of hangman

answer : c .

40q: a person presents with acute poisoning , with clinical picture of chills and rigors similar to malaria. Which is the most likely poisoning ?

1. mercury
2. zinc
3. red phosphorus
4. arsenic

answer : b . zinc .

34 - random mcqs on various subjects

1q: all of the following infections are acquired by consumption of shell fish except ?

1. Norwalk virus
2. Hepatitis a virus
3. Vibrio parahemolyticus
4. Adenovirus

Answer: d . adeno virus .

2q: all of the following are used in lysis centrifugation technique except ?

1. saponin
2. polyprophylene glycol
3. sodium polyanethanol sulphonate
4. palmitic acid

answer : d . palmitic acid is not used .

3q: which of the following stain is specific for dermatiaceous fungi ?

1. mayer’s mucicarmine stain
2. hematoxylin and eosin stain
3. masson-fontana silver stain
4. gridley’s fungal stain

answer: c . masson – Fontana silver stain .

4q: whipple’s disease causative agent ?

Answer : trophyrema whippeli .

5q: in HIV positive patients to prevent Cryptococcus neoformans infection the following drug is used for prophylaxis ?

Answer : fluconazole.

6q: the organism causing cellulitis in fish mongers ?

1. pasteurella multocida
2. capnocytophaga canimorsus
3. eikenella corrodens
4. erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

answer : d .

7q: the humanized CD 33 antibody linked to calicheamicin ( a potent anti tumor antibiotic ) called as GEMTUZUMAB OZOGAMICIN is used in the treatment of which leukemia ?

1. AML
2. ALL
3. CML
4. CLL

Answer: a . AML .

8q: delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs due to incompatibility in which antigen system?

1. duffy antigen
2. kidd antigen
3. p system
4. lewis system

answer: b . kidd antigen .

9q: the normal level of plasma fibrinogen ?

Answer: 150 – 400 mg/dl .

10q: the vitamin supplement used to treat maple syrup urine disease ?

1. vitamin C
2. thiamine
3. riboflavin
4. niacin

answer : b . thiamine .

11q: the aminoacids used in the synthesis of creatinine and creatine are ?

Answer : glycine and arginine .

12q: pulsating tumor is ?

1. osteosarcoma
2. chondrosarcoma
3. ewing’s sarcoma
4. osteoclastoma

answer : a . osteosarcoma .

13q: most common organism causing meningitis in a 1 year old child in India is ?

1. streptococcus pneumoniae
2. hemophilus influenza
3. listeria
4. neisseria meningitides

answer : b .

14q: urine has sweaty feet odour in which condition ?

1. alkaptonuria
2. cystinuria
3. glutaric acidemia
4. tyrosinemia

answer : c . glutaric acidemia .

15q: which is the part of the vertebral canal that will show secondary curves with concavity backwards ?

1. cervical
2. thoracic
3. sacral
4. coccyx .

answer : a . cervical .

16q: aspiration of sperms from testes is done in ?

1. TESA
2. MESA
3. ZIFT
4. GIFT

Answer : a . TESA .

17q: highest transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs if the mother is infected during which of these

1. first trimester
2. second trimester
3. third trimester
4. at the time of implantation

answer : c . third trimester

18q: bishops score includes all except

1. dilatation
2. effacement
3. station of the presenting part
4. interspinous diameter

answer : d .

19q: granulocytopenia , gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of one of the following drugs

1. phenytoin
2. valproate
3. carbamazepine
4. phenobarbitone

answer : a . phenytoin .

20q: entropy in a biological system does not increase because

1. it is an open system
2. it is a closed system
3. it is governed by vitalism
4. it is related to thermodynamics

answer: a .