Sunday, May 22, 2011

428 - PGIMER May 2011 mcqs with answers - part 1

1) Cardiac tamponade true is
a.kussumal sign positive
b.widened mediastinum
c.steep y descent absent
d.eletrical alterans
e.muffled heart sounds

answer: b,c,d,e.

2. Milk borne diseases are which of the following
b.Enteric infections
c.Streptococcus pyogenes
e.Q fever

Answer: All are true.

3. Which of the following are seen in acute hepatitis B
a. HBs Ag
b. Anti HBe
c. IgG anti HBc
d. IgM anti HBc


4. Ulnar nerve injury leads to
a.loss of sensation of thenar eminence
b.loss of sensation of hypothenar eminence
c.wrist drop
d.radial deviation on attempted flexion

answer: b,d.

5. POEMS syndrome consists of
a. Polyneuropathy
b. Oesophageal dysmotility
c. Endocrinopathy
d. Multiple myeloma
e. Sclerodactyly


Saturday, May 21, 2011

427 - AIIMS May 2011 Complete paper with answers

1. What is "cardiac polyp" ?
1. Acute infarct
2. Cardiac aneurysm
3. Benign tumour
4. Fibrinous clot in the chamber
Ans-4 -?

2. Condition promoting adipocere formation
1. Dry and hot
2. Hot and humid `
3. Dry & optimum
4. Moist & optimum
Ans-2 -?

3. Enlarged pulsating liver with ascites occurs in:
1. Mitral regurgitation
2. Tricuspid regurgitation
3. CCF
4. AR

4. In civil negligence, onus of proof is with
1. Judicial first degree magistrate
2. Police not below the level of sub inspector
3. Doctor
4. Patient

5. According to European laryngeal Society, Subligamentous cordectomy is classified as
1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type IV

6. The technique of laproscopic cholecystectomy was first described by?
1. Erich Muhe
2. Phillip Moure
3. Lanchenback
4. Eddie Reddick

7. Percutaneous vertebroplasty is indicated in all except
1. Tuberculosis
2. Metastasis
3. Osteoporosis
4. Hemangioma

8. Degrees awarded by Indian universities are mentioned in
1. Schedule I of MCI act
2. Schedule II of MCI act
3. Part 1 of schedule III
4. Part 2 of schedule III
(twisted repeat of AI2006)

9. During autopsy, if spinal cord is to be examined what is the most commonly used approach
1. Anterior
2. Posterior
3. Lateral
4. Antero-lateral

10. A 30yr old lady P2L0 with menorrhagia. what is the treatment of choice
1. Mirena
2. Combined OCP`s
3. Trans cervical resection of endometria(TCRE)
4. Hysterectomy

11. Ideal Contraceptive for lactating women
1. POP
2. Barrier
3. Lactation amenorrhea

12. Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally
1. Barrier
2. OCP`s
4. Inj. DMPA

13. Ideal contraceptive for a newly married couple is
1. OCP
2. Barrier
4. Natural methods

14. Apo B48 & Apo B100 is synthesized in intestinal cells by
1. RNA splicing
2. Allelic exclusion
3. Uridine deletion
4. Upstream repression
Ans-1-?(RNA editing vs RNA splicing)
(twisted repeat from AI2002)

15. Maximum postprandial contractility is seen in
1. Ascending colon
2. Descending colon
3. Sigmoid colon
4. Transverse colon

16. A man working as a pest killer comes to OPD with pain abdomen, garlic odor in breath & transverse Mees lines on nails. What is diagnosis
1. Arsenic poisoning
2. Lead poisoning
3. Mercury poisoning
4. Cadmium poisoning

17. Formication & delusion of persecution occurs together in abuse of
1. LSD
2. Cocaine
3. Canabis
4. Amphetamine

18. Incidence is determined by
1. Prospective study
2. Case control study
3. Cross sectional study
4. Retrospective study

19. A lactating woman has sputum positive TB. The neonate is 3 months old. What is the recommended chemoprophylaxis
1. INH 3mg/kg for 3 months
2. INH 5mg/kg for 3 months
3. INH 3mg/kg for 6 months
4. INH 5mg/kg for 6 months

20. Regarding ACE inhibitor which of the following is true
1. Inhibits Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
2. t 1/2 of Enalapril is more than Lisinopril
3. Omission of prior diuretic dose decreases the risk of postural hypotension
4. It is effective only with left ventricular systolic dysfunction

21. A Patient with cystic fibrosis develops acute exacerbation of respiratory tract infection/pneumonia & admitted to hospital. Which of the following will be cultured
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa(non mucoid strain)
2. Burkholderia capecia
3. Aeromonas
4. Plesiomonas

22. Hyperkalemia with tall peaked waves on ECG. Fastest acting drug for lowering S. Potassium concentration
1. Calcium gluconate
2. Glucose plus insulin
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Calcium carbonate

23. Radiological features of L ventricular failure are all except
1. Kerley B lines
2. Cardiomegaly
3. Oligemic lung fields
4. Increased flow in Upper lobe veins

24. A 10 month old baby previously normal becomes unconscious on crib. The external appearance of genitalia was normal except hyperpigmentation. Blood glucose was 30mg%. What is the most probable diagnosis
1. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
2. Familial glucocorticoid deficiency
3. Hyperinsulism
4. Cushings syndrome
(repeat)(more clarification needed)

25. In case of Renal cell carcinoma following are seen except
1. Polycythemia
2. Cushings syndrome
3. Malignant hypertention
4. Amyloidosis

26. CSF pressure primarily determined by ?
1. CSF production
2. CSF reabsorption
3. CNS blood flow
4. Blood pressure

27. Most important prognostic factor for colorectal carcinoma?
1. Tumor size & characteristics
2. Tumor site
3. LN status
4. Vascular invasion

28. Investigation Of Choice For Recurrent GIST ?
1. MRI
2. PET
3. USG

29. Which Is Not A Pure Beta Particle Emitter ?
1. Samarium 135
2. Strontium 89
3. Yttrium 90
4. Phosphorus 32
(Review of Radiology- Sumer Sethi, 5th edition. Pg 122)
(beta + gamma)

30. Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora?
1. Pectin
2. Lignin
3. Starch
4. Glucose
Ans-2 (AI 2009 RPT)

31. Root of mesentery crossed by
1. Horizontal part of duodenum
2. Left gonadal vessels
3. Left ureter
4. Superior mesenteric artery
(Nov 2004-Q6- twisted repeat)

32. Histopathological features of fat necrosis in a new born closely resembles?
1. Steroid induced lipid necorsis
2. Lupoid necrosis
3. Erythema induratum
4. Lipodermatosclerosis

33.Gene duplication has the greatest role in the evolution of
1. mRNA
2. t RNA
3. hnRNA
4. ribosomal RNA

34. Laudanosine is a metabolite of
1. Cis-atracurum
2. Atracurium
3. Pancuronium
4. Succinylcholine
Ans-1 & 2 - ???
(both have laudanosine as metabolite)

35. Which does not form border of triangle of auscultation
1. Trapezius
2. Scapula
3. Latissmus dorsi
4. Serratus anterior

36. 30yr woman presents with primary infertility and mass. CA 125 level 90u/L. what is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Ovarian ca
2. Borderline ovarian tumor
3. TB
4. Endometrioma

37. All are true about incontinentia pigmenti except?
1. X linked dominant disorder
2. 100% ophthalmic involvement
3. Skin pigmentation present

38. Ovarian reserve is measured by
1. LH
2. FSH
4. Estrogen

39. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by
3. Confocal microscopy
4. Electron microscopy
(Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching)

40. Muscle rigidity due to action of opioid on which of the following receptors?
1. mu
2. kappa
3. delta
4. lambda

41. Axillary neurovascular bundle sheath derived from?
1. Prevertebral fascia
2. Pretracheal fascia
3. Clavipectoral fascia
4. Axillary sheath

42. In a subclavian artery block at outer border of 1st rib, all of the following arteries help in maintining the circulation to upper limb except?
1. Subscapular artery
2. Superior thoracic artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Suprascapular artery

43. Spleen projects into folowing space of peritoneal cavity
1. Paracoloic gutter
2. Infracolic compartment
3. Left subhepatic space
4. Greater sac

44. Which of the following is a terminal group of Lymph node for colon
1. Paracoloc
2. Epicolic
3. Preaortic
4. Ileocolic

45. Triplet DNA is due to
1. Hoogsteen pairing
2. Palindromic sequences
3. Large no. of guanosine repeats
4. Polypyramidine tracts
Ans- 1

46. Which of the following may not worsen angina?
1. Dipyridamole
2. Sumatriptan
3. Oxyfedrine
4. Thyroxine

47. During arteriography dissection most commonly in?
1. Gastroduodenal artery
2. Coeliac trunk
3. Superior mesenteric artery
4. Inferior mesenteric artery
Ans – ?

48. A 7 day old baby was brought with respiratory distress and shock. Baby was discharged in a healthy state 2 days back. Diagnosis ?
1. Aortopulmonary window
2. Hypoplastic LV
3. Large VSD
4. Ebsteins anomaly

49. Healthy thinking is characterized by all except
A. Continuity
B. Constancy
C. Clarity
D. Organization
Ans -B

50. Blood supply of sternocleidomastoid muscle is from all except?
1. Post auricular artery
2. Occipital artery
3. Thyrocervical trunk
4. Superior thyroid artery

51. Reflex hallucinations occurs in?
1. Kinesthesia
2. Paraesthesia
3. Hyperaesthesia
4. Synaesthesia
Ans - 4

(Visit )

52. Local Scarring and limb hypoplasia in a newborn is seen due to?
1. Toxoplasma
2. T.pallidum
3. Varicella
4. Herpes
Ans-3 (congenital varicella not perinatal varicella )

53. Patency of ductus arteriosus is necessary in all except?
1. Persistent truncus arteriosus
2. Hypoplastic left heart
3. Pulmonary stenosis
4. Transposition of great vessels with intact ventricular septum

54. Acetyl CoA cannot be converted directly into?
1. Glucose
2. Ketone bodies
3. Fatty acids
4. Cholesterol
Ans - 1

55. Side effects of cyclosporine are all except
1. Pulmonary edema
2. Hirsutism
3. Renal impairment
(may not be from this exam- please verify)

56. Which is NOT true about angiography?
1. Common femoral artery is routinely catheterised
2. Single wall puncture is indicated in those with normal coagulation profile
3. Femoral artery is catheterised at medial third of femoral head
4. Seldinger technique is used both for femoral artery and vein

57. Retraction of scapula is not done by
1. Rhomboidius major
2. Rhomboidius minor
3. Trapezius
4. Levator scapulae

58. Upper limb weight is transmitted to axial skeleton by all except?
1. Coracoacromial ligament
2. Claviculoclavicular [interclavicular] ligament
3. Costoclavicular ligament
4. Acromioclavicular ligament
Ans-4 or 2 -???

59. Net protein utilization all except
1. Defined as nitrogen retained by total nitrogen consumed x100
2. Good for estimating protein quality

60. Female child with linear verrucuous plaque and vacuolation of keratinocytes in granulosa and spinosum. What is the diagnosis?
A. Linear darriers
B. Linear verrucuous hyperkeratosis
C. ??nevus
D. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis

61. Non neoplastic lesions simulating bone tumor are all except?
1. Fibrous dysplasia
2. Bone island
3. Bone infarct
4. Hurler syndrome

62. Variant of Giant cell tumor is?
1. Ossifying fibroma
2. Non ossifying fibroma
3. Osteosarcoma
4. Chondroblastoma

63. Infraclavicular pulmonary lesion in TB?
1. Gohns focus
2. Assman focus
3. Simons focus
4. Puhl sign

64. Survival of non operable Gall Bladder carcinoma
1. 4-6m
2. 8-10m
3. 1y
4. 12-24m

65. Dietary management of hypoglycemia in a patient taking both insulin & acarbose?
1. Sucrose
2. Glucose
3. Maltose
4. Starch

66. All are true about exenatide except?
1. Glucagon like peptide analogue
2. Used in type 1 diabetes mellitus
3. Administered subcutaneously
4. Decreases glucagon level

67. False regarding Pioglitazone
1. Activates PPAR-Gamma
2. Acts by inducing transcription of gene that catabolize carbohydrate & lipid metabolism in the absence of insulin
3. Contra indicated in diastolic heart dysfunction
4. Metabolized in liver

68. Histone acetylation causes?
1. Heterochromatin
2. Euchromatin
3. Methylation of cystine
4. DNA replication

69. Which is not a congenital myopathy?
1. Central core disease
2. Nemaline myopathy
3. Centronuclear (myotubular) myopathy
4. Z and B myopathy

70. Not true about mucinous cystadenoma pancreas
1. Microcystic adenoma
2. Lined by columnar epithelium
3. Pre malignant
4. Focus of ovarian stroma in it

71. Gleason score grading false is
1. Gleason score range between 1-10
2. Higher grade has got worse prognosis
3. Helps in staging the tumor
4. Grade determines further management
(repeat)(it is from 2-10)

72. True statement regarding the kidney is?
1. Clearance will be more than GFR means the substance is secreted into the tubule
2. Descending limb is permeable to solutes
3. Fluid coming from the descending limb is hypotonic
4. Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR if there is tubular secretion

73. Lambda phage
1. Causes mad cow disease
2. Lytic and lysogenic phase cannot be inter converted
3. In lytic phase the DNA gets integrated to bacterial DNA and it causes lysis of the cell
4. In lysogenic phase, it gets integrated to the bacterial DNA and remains dormant until activated

74. Best way to teach a mentally retarded child
1. CBT
2. Cognitive reconstruction
3. Self learning
4. Contingency
(repeat)(controversial repeat)

75. Function of CD4 T cells is all except?
1. Antibody production
2. Cytotoxicity of T cells
3. Memory B cells
4. Opsonisation

76. Thrombosis least seen in
1. PNH
2. DIC
3. Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia
4. ITP

77. Anti phospholipid syndrome not seen?
1. Recurrent abortions
2. Thrombosis
3. Pancytopenia
4. Anticardiolipin/lupus anticoagulant

78. Not seen in Gestational Diabetes?
1. Previous macrosomic baby
2. Congenital malformation
3. Polyhydramnios
4. Obesity

79. 5 yr old male child presents with pubic hair development, phallic enlargement BP-130/90. Which will be helpful-
1. 17 hydroxyprogesterone
2. Aldosterone
3. Renin
4. 11 deoxy cortisol

80. False about hepatic duct is?
1. Left hepatic duct formed in umbilical fissure
2. Caudate lobe drains only into left hepatic duct
3. Right hepatic duct formed by V and VII segments
4. Left hepatic duct crosses segment IV

81. A 3 month old female child comes with history of hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Apart from cardiac malformations and dehydration nothing else could be found what would you like to investigate
1. 17 hydroxy progesterone
2. Renin
3. Aldosterone
4. ADH

82. Steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome in a child not responding to prednisolone. Best management?
1. Oral cyclophosphamide X 3 months
2. Oral mycophenolate x 6 months
3. Iv cyclosporine X 3 months
4. Iv cyclophosphomide X 6 months
(steroid dependence vs steroid resistant)

83. 17 yr old female with bosselated, non blanching hyperpigmented plaque on cheek present since birth. Management?
1. Pulsed laser
2. Nd YAG
3. Ruby laser
4. Erbium laser

84. CAP in LAC operon is
1. Positive regulator
2. Negative regulator
3. Repressor
4. Constitutive expression

85. Alpha thalassemia is due to
1. Deletion of beta genes
2. Deletion of alpha genes
3. Increase in alpha/delta chains
4. Insertion of Amino acids in alpha chains

(Visit )

86. Non stress test was done in a 36-38 week fetus was non reactive. What is the next step?
1. Do a biophysical profile
2. Repeat NST after an hour
3. Induction of labor
4. Caesarean section

87. True regarding brucella a/e
1. Brucella abortus is capnophilic
2. Pasteurization kills it
3. Occasional transmission by aerosols
4. Test done by 2ME confirms diagnosis

88. Revascularization best for-
1. Stunned heart
2. Hibernating heart
3. Mixed viable and scarred myocardium
4. Non ischemic viable myocardium

89. Extended release drug systems (microwick & microcatheter) used for ?
1. Drug delivery to round window
2. Drooling of saliva
3. Frey's syndrome
4. Epistaxis

90. Acrodermatitis enteropathica not true
1. Autosomal Recessive
2. Serum Zn levels are low
3. Triad of dermatitis, dementia and diarrhoea
4. Zn supplementation improves the condition

91. A child presents with faliure to thrive with frequent vomiting, diarrhea, hepatic splenomegaly and abdominal distension. CT shows adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
1. Adrenal haemorrage
2. Wolmans disease
3. Pheochromocytoma
4. Addisons disease
Ans –2

92. Comet tail artefacts seen in which gall bladder disease
1. Adenomatous polyp
2. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
3. Ca gall bladder
4. Cholesterosis

93. Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) includes all of the following groups except?
1. Shock
2. Ischemia
3. Neurogenic injury
4. Energy of injury

94. Australian collaborative trial on steroid use in neonates
1. Neurodegenerative illness is more in steroid patients
2. Neonates taking CS have decreased head circumference
3. Health of neonates on CS is same as those of those not on CS
4. Results are similar to that with placebo
Ans- ???

95. GOLD STANDARD TEST for insulinoma
1. 72 hr fasting test
2. Plasma insulin levels
3. C-peptide levels
4. Low glucose levels < 30 mg/dl Ans-1 96. overexpressed in GIST 1. CD117 2. CD34 3. CD21 4. S100 Ans-1 97. What is the mode of treatment for a 2 cm sized papillary carcinoma thyroid in left lobe? 1. Total thyroidectomy + radical LN neck dissection 2. Near total thyroidectomy + radical LN neck dissection 3. Only total thyroidectomy 4. Left hemithyroidectomy Ans-2 97. Trochlear nerve all true except 1. Longest intracranial course. 2. Arise from dorsum of brainstem. 3. Supply ipsilateral superior oblique. 4. enters orbit through sup. orbital fissure outside annulus of Zinn Ans-3 [snip]. Abscess in axillary region is safely drained by which approach? 1. Medial 2. Posterior 3. Lateral 4. Floor Ans-1 or 4-?? 99. Octreotide is not useful in? 1. Insulinoma 2. Glucaganoma 3. Carcinoid tumor 4. Glioma Ans-4-? 100. Gold standard investigation for GERD- 1. 24 hr pH monitoring 2. Endoscopy 3. Manometry 4. Esophagogram Ans-1 101. Sphincter of Oddi has 1. 3 sphincters 2. 2 3. 4 4. 5 Ans-3 (BAILEY) 102. Cis atracurium is better than atracurium because 1. Rapid onset 2. Short duration of action 3. Less cardiac depression 4. Less histamine release Ans-4 103. Bleomycin causes the following in lungs 1. Destruction of type 1 pneumocytes 2. Destruction of type 2 pneumocytes 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Destruction of endothelial cells Ans-2 104. The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central chemoreceptors is 1. Increased H+ 2. Increased CO2 3. Increased O2 4. Decreased CO2 Ans-1-?(explanation needed for CO2 vs H+) 105. After laparoscopic cholecystectomy specimen sent for histopathology shows ca gallbladder stage 1a. Management is? 1. Excision of all port sites 2. Follow up 3. Chemotherapy & Radiotherapy 4. Extended resection Ans-1 106. Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except? 1. Monochorionic monoamniotic 2. Mentoanterior 3. Extended breech 4. Dichorionic twins with first vertex and second breech Ans-1 107. True regarding animals that are chronically exposed to cold 1. Increased sympathetic stimulation 2. Increased vagal action 3. Increased insulin levels in blood 4. Decrease blood supply to adipose tissue Ans-??? 108. True about non typhoid salmonella? 1. Invasive in infants 2. Blood culture more sensitive than stool in adults 3. Poultry acts as a source of infection 4. Fluoroquinolone resistance is seen in some clinical reports Ans-?? 109. Gall bladder polyps have risk of malignancy if 1. Polyp is associated with gall stones 2. Polyp size > 5 mm
3. >65 years
4. Increasing size

110. All are true regarding carcinoma pancreas except?
A. 75% cases have p53 mutation
B. 5 year survival rate after pancreatico duodenectomy is 10-15%
C. Stage III cancer median survival is 3-6 months
D. Increased risk in hereditary pancreatitis

111. A pregnant gets Chicken pox 3 days before delivery of the baby. What is the baby’s prognosis?
1. No risk to mother or child
2. Intrapartum antiviral therapy required
3. Fetopathic effects seen
4. At risk of fetal varicella syndrome

112. Which among the following is not a feature of Horner’s syndrome?
1. Ptosis
2. Miosis
3. Heterochromia iridis
4. Apparent exophthalmos

113. True regarding myocardial O2 demand?
1. Inversely related to heart rate
2. Has constant relation to external cardiac work
3. Correlates with duration of systole
4. Is negligible at rest

114. All of the following is involved in development of carcinoma colon except?
1. APC
2. Beta catenin
3. K Ras
4. Mismatch repair genes

115. Which among the following is false regarding familial adenomatous polyposis?
1. Autosomal recessive inheritance
2. Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
3. Polyps develop in late adulthood
4. Epideral cyst may occur with osteoma

116. All are true about diazoxide EXCEPT:
1. Anti-hypertensive
2. Causes severe hypoglycemia
3. Used in treatment of insulinomas
4. Acts by ATP mediated K+ channel opening in beta cell membrane

117. Vertical crest at the junction of the internal auditary canal?
1. Bill’s bar
2. Ponticulus
3. Cog
4. Falciform crest

118. True regarding ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle is?
1. FSH increases aromatase activity
2. Peak inhibin activity
3. Increased steroidogenesis
3. Activin level is high

119. All are true regarding cystic fibrosis except?
1. It is caused by CFTR gene mutation
2. Defect lies in Calcium channel
3. Autosomal Recessive
4. Mutation in delta f508 mutation

120. All are true regarding streptococci except?
1. Group A and C are hemolytic
2. Pyrogenic toxin is plasmid mediated
3. Streptolysin O is active in reduced state
4. Streptdornase digests nucleic acids

121. All are true regarding mesothelioma except?
1. Bilaterally symmetrical
2. Associated with asbestos exposure
3. Histopathalogy shows bimodal trend
4. Occurs in late middle age

122. A person having chest pain and sudden palpitations with heart rate of 150/min and regular rhythm. Diagnosis?
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. Idioventricular rhythm
3. SVT
4. AF with heart block

(Visit )

123. Cotrimoxazole used in all except
1. UTI
2. Chancroid
3. Prostatitis
4. Typhoid

124. According to Enneking system, not true regarding an active benign lesion is
1. Intracapsular
2. Margin of reactive bone
3. Wide rim of reactive bone
4. Extended curettage is treatment
(thin rim of rective bone)(Campbell)

125. Regarding Ifosfamide, all are true except?
1. It is a nitrogen mustard
2. Metabolised by liver
3. More neurotoxic than cyclophosphamide.
4. Chloracetaldehyde is its metabolite

126. Most common cause of death in a patient with thrombolytic therapy?
1. Myocardial rupture
2. Reperfusion arrhythmia
3. Intracranial haemorrhage
4. Cardiogenic shock

127. A male child presents with Fanconi anemia & hypercalciuria. All are true regarding Dent’s disease except?
1. Proteinura
2. Hypercalciuria
3. Father will have the same disease
4. Rickets is present

128. Central dot sign seen in
1. Caroli disease
2. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
3. Liver hematoma
4. Budd chiari syndrome

129. Most comon cause of acute mesenteric ischemia is
1. Arterial thrombosis
2. Venous thrombosis
3. Embolism
4. Non occlusive ischemia

130. A term male baby, with birth weight 3.5 kg, developed respiratory distress at birth, not responded to administration of surfactant. Echocardiogram was normal. X ray chest shows ground glass appearance. There is history of death of a female sibling at 1 month of age. What is the diagnosis?
2. Meconium aspiration
3. Neonatal alveolar proteinosis
4. 2–Methylacyl CoA Racemase Deficiency
(repeat)(complex question)

131. Which of the following is not true about JRA?
1. Fever
2. Uveitis
3. Rheumatoid nodules
4. Raynaud’s phenomenon

132. A 14 yr old girl on exposure to cold has pallor of extremities followed by pain and cyanosis and rash over metacarpophalangeal joints. She is prone to develop:
1. SLE
2. Scleroderma
3. Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Histiocytosis

133. A 9 yr old girl has difficulty in combing hair and climbing upstairs. Gowers sign is positive. What is the next investigation to be performed?
1. ESR
2. RA factor
3. Creatine kinase
4. EMG

134. BRCA1 gene is located on chromosome number?
1. 13
2. 11
3. 17
4. 22

135. Which among the following is false in barium meal ?
1. Ileum is featureless
2. Colon has haustrations
3. Jejunum is feathery
4. Distal part of duodenum has a cap

136. About RCT all true except
1. Baseline characteristics are comparable
2. Bias eliminated by double blinding
3. Sample size depends on type of study
4. Dropouts are excluded from the study

137. Not true about breast milk
1. Max output at 12 months
2. Co-efficient of iron absorption is 70%
3. Ca utilization more than cows milk
4. Breast milk protien is reference protein

138. True about cluster sampling all except
1. Sample size same as simple random
2. It is two stage sampling
3. Cheaper than other methods
4. It is a method for rapid assessment

139. Which is true about BCG?
1. Distilled water is used as diluent
2. Site for injection is cleaned with spirit
3. Mantoux test positive in 6 weeks
4. WHO recommends Danish 1331 for vaccine production

140. Incineration not done for
1. Cytotoxic drugs
2. Waste sharps
3. Human anatomical waste
4.Cotton contaminated by blood

141. Which of the following statements regarding DDT is false?
1. Pyrethrum has synergistic action
2. It is a contact poison
3. Immediately kills the prey
4. Residual effect lasts 18 months

142. Following are larval control measures except?
1. DDT
2. Paris green
3. Gambusia fish
4. Intermittent irrigation

143. Goals of national population policy are all except?
1. Decrease IMR to below 30/1000 live births
2. Reduce MMR to below 100/100000 live births
3. Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy
4. Bring down TFR to replacement levels by 2015

144. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by all except
1. Amylodosis
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Addison’s disease
4. Diabetes mellitus

(Visit )

145. True statement regarding clomiphene citrate is?
1. Enclomiphene is an anti estrogenic
2. Increases pregnancy rate 3 times
3. Incidence of twin pregnancy is 5%
4. Shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in RCT
Ans-1-(other options are also almost true)

146. Following modification occurs in Gs subunit which leads to watery diarrhea
1. ADP ribosylation
2. ATP-ADP transfer
3. Phosphorylation
4. Dephosphorylation

147. Late expanding stage of population in India is due to?
1. Birth rate stationary death rate continues to fall
2. Death rate declines faster than birth rate
3. Birth rate declines, death rate same
4. Birth rate is less than birth rate

148. Which does not cause hypoglycemia?
1. Acarbose
2. Glimepride
3. Sulfonylurea
4. Nateglinide

149. Regarding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis, all are true except?
1. Follicular destruction
2. Increase in lymphocytes
3. Oncocytic metaplasia
4. Orphan Annie eye nuclei

150. Which of the following about atherosclerosis is true?
1. Intake of polyunsaturated fatty acids associated with decreased risk
2. Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta
3. Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
4. Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis per se

151. Berry aneurysm defect lies in:
1. Degeneration of internal elastic lamina
2. Degeneration of media/muscle cell layer
3. Deposition of mucoid material in media
4. Low grade inflammation of vessel wall

152. All the following statements about purification of water are true except
1. Presence of clostridial spores indicate recent contamination
2. Coliforms must not be detectable in any 100ml sample of drinking water
3. Sodium thiosulphate is used to neutralize chlorine
4. Coliforms may be dtected by multiple tube method and indole production at 44 degrees

153. True about sickle cell disease are all except
1. Single nucleotide change results in change of glutamine to valine
2. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar residue with a polar residue
3. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
4. RFLP results from a single base change

154. After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by?
1. DNA polymerase
2. DNA ligase
3. DNA topoisomerase
4. DNA gyrase

155. Fish is the source of all except?
1. Iron
2. Iodine
3. Vitamin A
4. Phosphorus

156. Most probable route for transmission of meningitis from CNS to inner ear?
1. Cochlear aqueduct
2. Vestibular aqueduct
3. Endolymphatic sac
4. Hyrtle fissure

157. All of the following drugs will worsen megaloblastic anemia except
1. Alcohol
2. Phenytoin
3. Methotrexate
4. Chloroquine
(Chloroquine-rarely aplastic anemia)

158. Most common site of cholangiocarcinoma
1. Distal biliary duct
2. Hilum
3. Intrahepatic duct
4. Multifocal

159. In case of an obstructed labor with mother dehydrated, febrile, and an IUD fetus in cephalic presentation. What is the management?
1. Craniotomy
2. Decapitation
3. Cesarean section
4. Forceps delivery
(repeat question with controversy-is CS done for dead baby)

160. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa is caused by a mutation of?
1. Alpha 6 integrin
2. Collagen 7
3. Laminin 4
4. Keratin 14

161. In “bounce off” test of knee joint, end feel is described as all except?
1. Bony
2. Empty
3. Springy
4. Firm

162. Nitrogen narcosis occurs due to?
1. …
2. Increased affinity of neurons for nitrogen
3. Inhibits enzyme dismutase
4. large production of NO

163. True about prolactinoma in pregnancy all except ?
1. Most common pituitary tumors, hardly cause any effect
2. Increasing level of prolaction show bad prognosis
3. In pregnancy size increases
4. Size of about macro adenoma

164. Not a side effect of naloxone?
1. Hypertension
2. Seizures
3. Pulmonary edema

165. Non progressing contraction of esophagus is
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
4. Quarternary

166. True about shunt vessels:
1. Play a role in thermoregulation
2. Role in nutrition distribution
3. Present in all vital organs
4. No autonomic nervous regulation

167. A lady comes for antenatal checkup in 1st trimester and has no other complaints except lymphadenopathy. Spiramycin was prescribed but there is no improvement. However the baby was born with hydrocephalus and cerebral calcification. Most probable cause?
1. CMV
2. Toxoplasmosis
3. Rubella
4. HSV

168. Fine reticulate pigmentation with palmar pitting is seen in?
1. Cockayne syndrome
2. Blooms syndrome
3. Dowling Degos syndrome
4. Thompson Edmund syndrome

169. 12 yr female with 3+proteinuria, lipiduria and hyaline casts but no hematuria. Which of the following is true?
1. Low C3 levels expected
2. No deposits of IgG and C3
3. Nephritic syndrome
4. IgA nephropathy

170. Drugs not used in pregnancy are all except
1. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
2. Angiotensin receptor blockers
3. Aldosterone
4. Propylthiouracil

171. A patient with clinically significant diabetic macular edema with non progressive diabetic retinopathy was treated with Macular grid photocoagulation. The patient still has vitreo macular traction. What is the preferred treatment?
1. Intravitreal bevacizumab
2. Pars plana vitrectomy
3. Repeat macular grid photocoagulation
4. Augmented macula photocoagulation

(Visit )

172. Vasomotor centre of medulla is associated with?
1. Acts with the cardiovagal centre to maintain B.P.
2. Independent of corticothalamic inputs
3. Influenced by baroreceptors not chemoreceptors
4. Essentially silent in sleep

173. Protein losing enteropathy diagnosis, all used except?
1. Tc albumin
2. Tc dextran
3. Tc transferrin
4. Tc 99 Sotisumab
Ans- 4

174. Which is not true about disinfectants?
1. Ethylene dioxide is an intermediate level disinfectant
2. Phenols are useful for treatment of organic wastes
3. Glutaraldehyde is sporocidal
4. Hypochlorite is virucidal

175. Methotrexate used in all except
1. Post transplant
2. Carcinoid tumour
3. Psoriasis
4. Sickle cell anemia

176. In India maximum maternal mortality is due to
1. Hemorrhage
2. Anemia
3. Abortion
4. Sepsis

177. Commonest histological finding in benign hypertension
1. Necrotising arteritis
2. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
3. Loss of internal elastic lamina
4. Fibrinoid necrosis

178. Child presents with a history of respiratory infections. His sweat chloride is 36,41 meq/l on 2 occasions. What other test you do to exclude diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?
1. CT Chest
2. Nasal potential diferance
3. Fat in stool in next 72 hours
4. DNA analysis for ?508 mutation

179. Which of the following agent can be used for sickle cell anaemia
1. Hydroxyurea
2. Cysplatin
3. Methotrexate
4. Busulphan

180. Protective for carcinoma colon
1. Low protein diet
2. Low fat diet
3. Low selenium diet
4. High fibre diet

181. False about vaccines
1. Thiomersal is used as preservative in DPT vaccine
2. Kanamycin is used as preservative in measles vaccine
3. Neomycin is used as preservative in BCG vaccine
4. Magnesium chloride used to stabilize OPV

182. Baby born at 33 wks on examination at 42wks with ROP both eyes in 12 clock hours position stage 2 zone 1 plus disease, how will u manage the patient ?
1. Examine the patient after 1 week
2. Laser photocoagulation of avascular retina of both eyes
3. Laser photocoagulation of worse eye, follow up of other eye
4. Vitreoretinal surgery

183. In international prognostic factor which of following not include in lymphoma?
1. Patients Age & Performance Status
2. LDH
3. Serum albumin, hemoglobin
4. Extranodal involvement

184. Side effects of Tamoxifen a/e?
1. Venous thrombosis
2. Endometrial carcinoma
3. Osteoporosis
4.Causes cancer in opposite breast

185. Energy expenditure in resting state depends on
1. Lean body mass
2. Adipose tissue
3. Resting heart rate
4. Exercise

186. Among the following all are steroid hormones that act on cytosolic receptors except one which is a peptide hormone that acts on nuclear receptor
1. Thyroxine
2. Epinephrine
3. GH

187. Lyme disease all true except
1. B.borgdorferi replicates locally and invades locally
2. Infection progresses despite of good humoral mediated immunity
3. IgA intrathecally confirms diagnosis
4. Polymorphonuclear lymphocytes in CSF suggest meningitis
(controversial repeat- polymorphonuclear lymphocytosis not leucocytosis in the AIIMS exam options)

188. Acellular pertussis vaccine composed of?
1. Pertactin, endotoxin, fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin
2. Pertactin, Pertussis toxin, fimbriae, endotoxin
3. Pertactin, Pertussis toxin, fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin
4. Fimbriae, filamentous hemagglutinin, endotoxin, pertussis toxin

189. Positive hepatojugular reflux seen in?
1. TR
2. Decreased afterload
3. LVF
4. PS

190. All true about high tibial osteotomy except?
1. Can correct varus over 30 degress
2. Deformity recurs after a long time
3. Done though cancellous bone
4. Done in case of unicompartmental disease
(answer contributed by nisha_s22)

191. A woman complaints of a severe headache that she has never experienced with photophobia and neck stiffness. Diagnosis?
1. SAH
2. Migraine
3. Meningitis
(may not be from this exam- please verify)

192. A 50 yr old man complains of crushing sternal pain, following which patient dies of myocardial infarction. 4 days later what will be the appearance at infarct site
1. Granulomatous inflammation
2. Fibroblasts and collagen
3. Neurophilic infiltration surrounding coagulative necrosis

193. 4 weeks infant comes to casualty with h/o vomiting after feeds grossly dehydrated. Next management
1. Immediate surgery
2. Fluid management first surgery can be delayed

194. False about congenital rubella
1. Ig G is diagnostic
2. Most commonly associated with CVS anomalies, cataract and hearing loss
4. High risk if infected after 16 weeks

195. True about ESBL all except
1. Sensitive to carbepenem
2. The basis of testing on the basis of 3rd class cephalosporins
3. Amsler classification is based on culture characteristics

196. Topical mitomycin is used for?
1. Surgery for laryngeal subglotic stenosis

197. Medullary carcinoma thyroid treatment?
1. Surgery only
2. Combined chemoradiation
3. Surgery f/b radiation therapy
4. Radioiodine ablation
(answer contributed by nisha_s22)

198. Cognitive model
1. Beck
2. Ellis
3. Kreplin

199. Angiotensin II causes all except
1. Stimulates release of ADH
2. Increases thirst.
3. Vasodilation
4. Stimulates aldosterone release.
Ans - 3
(replaced HPV question as that was probably not from this exam)
(again thanks to nisha_s22)

200. Which is true ?
1. Goitre in 5 percent of population is endemic goitre
2. In thyroid storm, the clinical features are primarily due to increased thyroxine
3. Propylthiouracil is contraindicated in pregnancy
4. ??
(harrison 17e, page2240)

Thursday, May 12, 2011

426 - AIIMS May 2011 mcqs with answers - part 4

31q: Body weight is not transmitted by
a. Coracoacromion ligament
b. Costoclavicular ligament
c. Acromioclavicular ligament
d. Interclavicular ligament

32q: Muscle rigidity is due to
a. Mu chain
b. Kappa chain
c. Delta chain
d. Lambda chain

33q: Which of the following is a stimulus for respiratory centre?
a. Decrease in pCO2
b. H+ ions
c. Increase in pCO2
d. Increase in pO2

34q: In civil negligence the onus of proof lies with
a. Doctor
b. Patient
c. First class judicial magistrate
d. Police not below the rank of subinspector

35q: Gall bladder shows comet tail appearance in
a. Adenomyomatosis
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

36q: Central dot sign on CT is seen in
a. Caroli's disease
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

37q: Axillary sheath is derived from
a. Pretracheal fascia
b. Prevertebral fascia
c. Clavipectoral fascia
d. ???????

38q: Formication/Delusion of persecution is seen in
a. Cocaine toxicity
b. ??????
c. ??????
d. ??????

39q: Gold standard investigation for GERD
a. 24 hour acid pH
b. Manometry
c. Endoscopy
d. ????????

40q: BRCA1 gene is located on which chromosome ?
a. 17
b. 13
c. 11
d. 19

Wednesday, May 11, 2011

425 - AIIMS May 2011 mcqs with answers - part 3

21q: All are true about Hashimoto's thyroiditis except
a. Follicular destruction
b. Increase in lymphocytes
c. Oncocytic metaplasia
d. Orphan eyed annie nucleus

22q: All of the following are involved in the development of Carcinoma colon except
a. APC
b. Beta catenin
c. K ras
d. Mismatch repair genes

23q: Which of the following is not true about familial polyposis
a. AR inheritance
b. Screening done by sigmoidoscopy
c. Polyps develop in late adulthood
d. Epidermal cyst may occur with osteoma

24q: Cardiac polyp is the term used for post mortem appearance of
a. Aneurysm
b. Fibrinous clot in heart
c. Infarct of heart
d. Pale patches of heart

25q: A 30 year old hypertensive lady presents with menorrhagia. She is G2+0. What is the management
a. Mirena
b. OCP
c. Hysterectomy
d. Transcervical resection of endometrium

26q: A child presents with failure to thrive. He also has vomiting and diarrhea. Examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly and abdominal distension. What is the probable diagnosis. CT shows adrenal calcification. What is the diagnosis.
a. Adrenal hemorrhage
b. Wolman disease
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Addison's disease

27q: Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by
c. Confocal microscopy
d. Electron microscopy

28q: Cis-atracurium is preferable to atracurium because
a. Rapid onset
b. Short duration of action
c. Less cardiac depression
d. Less histamine release

29q: Sphincter of oddi has how many sphincters ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

30q: Reflex hallucination is seen in
a. Kinaesthesia
b. Synaesthesia
c. ????
d. ????

Tuesday, May 10, 2011

424 - AIIMS May 2011 mcqs with answers - part 2

11q: A 30 year old woman presents with primary infertility and palpable mass in pelvis. CA-125 level is 90u/ml. What is the probable diagnosis?
a. Ovarian carcinoma
b. TB
c. Endometriosis
d. Borderline ovarian tumour

12q: All of the following are anti-larval measures except
a. Gambusia fish
b. DDT spraying
c. Intermittent irrigation
d. ???????

13q: All of the following are true about DDT except
a. It is a contact poison
b. It has effect upto 18 months
c. It kills instantly
d. ??????

14q: Which of the following is the test for ovarian reserve?
a. Estradiol
c. FSH
d. LH

15q: Which of the following is true about clomiphene citrate?
a. Enclomiphene is anti-estrogenic
b. Increased pregnancy rate 3 times when compared to placebo
c. Twin pregnancy incidence is 5-6%
d. Has shown to increase fertility in oligospermic males in recombinant trials

16q: All are seen in gestational diabetes except
a. Previously macrosomic baby
b. Obesity
c. Malformation
d. Polyhydramnios

17q: Infection from inner ear spreads to CNS through
a. Cochlear aqueduct
b. Endolymphatic sac
c. Vestibular aqueduct
d. Hyrtle fissure

18q: Tumor marker for GIST ?
a. CD 117
b. CD 34
c. CD 30
d. CD 10

19q: Vaginal delivery can be allowed in all except
a. Monochorionc monoamniotic twins
b. Mentoanterior
c. Extended breech
d. Dichorionic twins with ist vertex and second breech

20q: A lady presents with no complains but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in First trimester. Doctor prescribes her spiramycin but she was non compliant. A baby was born with hydrocephalus and intercerebral calcification. The most likely cause is
a. Toxoplasmosis
b. CMV
c. Rubeola
d. Cryptococcus

Sunday, May 8, 2011

423 - AIIMS May 2011 mcqs with answers - part 1

1) What is the ideal method of contraception for couple living in different cities, meeting occasionally or few times?
a. Barrier
b. OCP

2) A woman presented in obstucted labour with dehydration. She is febrile. The fetus is in
cephalic presentation with intrauterine death. The management is
a. Craniotomy
b. Decapitation
d. Forceps delivery

3) All of the following muscles retract the scapula except
a. Trapezius
b. Rhomboid major
c. Rhomboid minor
d. Levator scapulae

4) After digestion by restriction endonuclease DNA strands can be joined by
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. DNA gyrase
d. DNA topoisomerase

5) True about sickle cell disease are all except
a. RFLP results from a single base change
b. HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygote
c. Sticky patch is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar residue with polar residue
d. single nucleotide change results in change glutamine to valine

6) Incidence can be calculated by
a. Case control studies
b. Prospective study
c. Retrospective study
d. Cross sectional study

7) Ideal contraceptive during lactation is ?
a. Progesterone only pill
b. OCP
c. Lactational amenorrhea

8) Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple?
a. OCP
c. Barrier method
d. ??????

9) All of the following are correct except about water purification except
a. Presence of clostridial spores indicates recent contamination
b. Coliforms must not be detected in any 100 ml sample of drinking water
c. Sodium hypochlorite is used to neutralise chlorine
d. Coliform may be detected by multiple tube method and indole production

10) All are true about streptococcus except
a. It cleaves DNA
b. Streptolysin-O is active in reduced state
c. Streptokinase is produced from serotype a.c.k
d. Pyrogenic toxin A is plasmid mediated

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