1q: Which of the following is the most common congenital cardiac disorder?
a. ASD
b. VSD
c. TGV
d. TAPVC
2q: Which of the following drugs is not given in AIDS?
a. Rifampicin
b. Ethambutol
c. Thioacetazone
d. INH
3q: Which of the following antimalarial is safe in pregnancy
a. Chloroquine
b. Mefloquine
c.
d.
4q: QUART includes all except
a. Quandrantectomy
b. Radiotherapy
c. Axillary sampling
d. Removal of the breast tumor with the segment
5q: Which of the following is not a function of palmar interossei?
a. Adduction of fingers
b. Flexion at MCP joint
c. Extension at Interphalangeal joints
d. Flexion at Interphalangeal joints
6q: Gladiolus refers to
a. Body of sternum
b. Mandible
c.
d.
7q: Cereals are deficient in
a. Methionine
b. Lysine
c. Aspartate
d. Glutamate
8q: Pulses are deficient in?
a. Lysine
b. Tryptophan
c. Methionine
d. Aspartate
9q: Concept of primary health care was introduced by
a. Bhore committee
b.
c.
d.
10q: Which of the following does not cause thrombosis?
a. Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
b. Protein C deficiency
c. Protein S deficiency
d. Factor V leiden mutation
AIIMS,AIPG,PGIMER,JIPMER,COMEDK,APPG,CMC....etc
Thursday, February 25, 2010
Monday, February 22, 2010
347 - JIPMER 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 1
1q: FISHNET appearance in immunoflouresence is seen in
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. ??????
2q: Which of these will kill spores?
a. alcohol
b. phenol
c. chlorine
d. aldehyde
*Aldehydes, such as glutaraldehyde, have a wide microbiocidal activity and are sporocidal and fungicidal. They are partly inactivated by organic matter and have slight residual activity.
*Alcohol is, at best, only partly effective against most non-enveloped viruses (such as hepatitis A), and is not effective against fungal and bacterial spores.
3q: Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in
a. External oblique aponeurosis
b. Transversalis fascia
c. ?????????????
d. ?????????????
*The deep inguinal ring is a defect in Trasversalis fascia.
Some lecture notes on inguinal region :
*Descent of Gonads (Ovary and Testis); develop and migrate retroperitoneally:
*Gubernaculum: a ligamentous structure that runs between the lower pole of each gonad to each labial/scrotal fold. In the female it becomes the round ligament
*Ovary: reaches and remains at the pelvis by the 3rd month.
*Definitive ovary: reaches deep pelvis trailing its vessels and nerves.
*Testis:
-Processus vaginalis (peritoneal pouch; evaginates into developing scrotum, lies ahead of testis during descent))
-Reaches deep inguinal ring by 7th month;
-Passes through inguinal canal between 7-8 months;
-Reaches scrotum before birth.
-Around birth time: processus vaginalis closes off from peritoneum and forms tunica vaginalis of testis.,
-Patent processus vaginalis predisposes to congenital inguinal hernia.
*Coverings of the Spermatic Cord:
-external spermatic fascia: derived from Ext. Oblique fascia
-cremaster muscle and fascia: derived from Int. oblique muscle and fascia.
-Internal spermatic fascia: derived from transversalis fascia.
*Components of the spermatic cord:
-ductus deferens
-testicular artery
-artery of the ductus deferens
-pampiniform plexus of veins
-nerves (autonomic) and lymphatics
-genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
*Inguinal Canal: a diagonal passage formed by the aponeuroses of the three flat abdominal muscles.
*Contents of Inguinal Canal
-Spermatic Cord (male) or Round Ligament (female)
-Ilioinguinal Nerve
*Boundaries of the Inguinal canal :
-Superficial inguinal ring: triangular defect in the ext. oblique aponeurosis
-Deep inguinal ring: in the transversalis fascia.
-Anterior wall: int.oblique muscle (laterally) and external oblique aponeurosis (medially).
-Roof: falx inguinalis (arching inferior fibers of internal oblique muscle)
-Floor: inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament (medially)
-Posterior wall: transversalis fascia (weak fascia) laterally and conjoint tendon (medially)
*Boundaries of Inguinal Triangle (of Hesselbach):
-Medially: lateral edge of rectus abdominis (linea semilunaris)
-Laterally: inferior epigastric artery
-Inferiorly: inguinal ligament
*Abdominal Wall Hernias:
-Inguinal: hernia passes through the inguinal canal for a variable distance and exits through the ext.inguinal ring.
-Indirect:
-Congenital; through patent processus vaginalis
-Acquired: passes through deep inguinal ring initially, i.e lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and exits through the superficial ring.
-Direct: passes medial to the inferior epigastric artery (in the inguinal triangle) and may pass through the superficial inguinal ring.
-Femoral: below inguinal ligament.
-Obturator
-Other: umbilical; lumbar; incisional; hiatal; etc.
4q: Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis is
a. Syndesmosis
b. Synchondrosis
c. Fibrous joint
d. Plain synovial joint
5q: Amyloid deposits are seen in which thyroid malignancy?
a. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
b. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
c. Anaplastic carcinoma
d. Follicular carcinoma
6q: A 60 yrs old diabetic presents with swelling in the ankle joint. X-ray shows soft tissue swelling,loose bodies and bony sclerosis.diagnosis is ?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Neuropathic joint
c. Gouty arthritis
d. ??????
7q: Secondary brain injury is seen in
a. Concussion
b. Diffuse axonal surgery
c. Depressed skull fracture
d. Intracrebral hematoma
8q: Methotrexate is a
a. Antimetabolite
b. Alkylating agent
c. Antitumor antibiotic
d. ????????
9q: Immune complex disease is seen in which type of hypersensitivity?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
10q: A 1 cm coin lesion is seen on the chest x ray of right upper lobe of the lung.FNAC shows adenocarcinoma.. management-
a) excision and observation
b) excision and chemotherapy
c) neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by excision
d) ???
a. Pemphigus vulgaris
b. Bullous pemphigoid
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. ??????
2q: Which of these will kill spores?
a. alcohol
b. phenol
c. chlorine
d. aldehyde
*Aldehydes, such as glutaraldehyde, have a wide microbiocidal activity and are sporocidal and fungicidal. They are partly inactivated by organic matter and have slight residual activity.
*Alcohol is, at best, only partly effective against most non-enveloped viruses (such as hepatitis A), and is not effective against fungal and bacterial spores.
3q: Superficial inguinal ring is a defect in
a. External oblique aponeurosis
b. Transversalis fascia
c. ?????????????
d. ?????????????
*The deep inguinal ring is a defect in Trasversalis fascia.
Some lecture notes on inguinal region :
*Descent of Gonads (Ovary and Testis); develop and migrate retroperitoneally:
*Gubernaculum: a ligamentous structure that runs between the lower pole of each gonad to each labial/scrotal fold. In the female it becomes the round ligament
*Ovary: reaches and remains at the pelvis by the 3rd month.
*Definitive ovary: reaches deep pelvis trailing its vessels and nerves.
*Testis:
-Processus vaginalis (peritoneal pouch; evaginates into developing scrotum, lies ahead of testis during descent))
-Reaches deep inguinal ring by 7th month;
-Passes through inguinal canal between 7-8 months;
-Reaches scrotum before birth.
-Around birth time: processus vaginalis closes off from peritoneum and forms tunica vaginalis of testis.,
-Patent processus vaginalis predisposes to congenital inguinal hernia.
*Coverings of the Spermatic Cord:
-external spermatic fascia: derived from Ext. Oblique fascia
-cremaster muscle and fascia: derived from Int. oblique muscle and fascia.
-Internal spermatic fascia: derived from transversalis fascia.
*Components of the spermatic cord:
-ductus deferens
-testicular artery
-artery of the ductus deferens
-pampiniform plexus of veins
-nerves (autonomic) and lymphatics
-genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
*Inguinal Canal: a diagonal passage formed by the aponeuroses of the three flat abdominal muscles.
*Contents of Inguinal Canal
-Spermatic Cord (male) or Round Ligament (female)
-Ilioinguinal Nerve
*Boundaries of the Inguinal canal :
-Superficial inguinal ring: triangular defect in the ext. oblique aponeurosis
-Deep inguinal ring: in the transversalis fascia.
-Anterior wall: int.oblique muscle (laterally) and external oblique aponeurosis (medially).
-Roof: falx inguinalis (arching inferior fibers of internal oblique muscle)
-Floor: inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament (medially)
-Posterior wall: transversalis fascia (weak fascia) laterally and conjoint tendon (medially)
*Boundaries of Inguinal Triangle (of Hesselbach):
-Medially: lateral edge of rectus abdominis (linea semilunaris)
-Laterally: inferior epigastric artery
-Inferiorly: inguinal ligament
*Abdominal Wall Hernias:
-Inguinal: hernia passes through the inguinal canal for a variable distance and exits through the ext.inguinal ring.
-Indirect:
-Congenital; through patent processus vaginalis
-Acquired: passes through deep inguinal ring initially, i.e lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and exits through the superficial ring.
-Direct: passes medial to the inferior epigastric artery (in the inguinal triangle) and may pass through the superficial inguinal ring.
-Femoral: below inguinal ligament.
-Obturator
-Other: umbilical; lumbar; incisional; hiatal; etc.
4q: Joint between epiphysis and diaphysis is
a. Syndesmosis
b. Synchondrosis
c. Fibrous joint
d. Plain synovial joint
5q: Amyloid deposits are seen in which thyroid malignancy?
a. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
b. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
c. Anaplastic carcinoma
d. Follicular carcinoma
6q: A 60 yrs old diabetic presents with swelling in the ankle joint. X-ray shows soft tissue swelling,loose bodies and bony sclerosis.diagnosis is ?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Neuropathic joint
c. Gouty arthritis
d. ??????
7q: Secondary brain injury is seen in
a. Concussion
b. Diffuse axonal surgery
c. Depressed skull fracture
d. Intracrebral hematoma
Primary Brain Injury | Secondary Brain Injury |
---|---|
|
|
8q: Methotrexate is a
a. Antimetabolite
b. Alkylating agent
c. Antitumor antibiotic
d. ????????
9q: Immune complex disease is seen in which type of hypersensitivity?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
10q: A 1 cm coin lesion is seen on the chest x ray of right upper lobe of the lung.FNAC shows adenocarcinoma.. management-
a) excision and observation
b) excision and chemotherapy
c) neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by excision
d) ???
Sunday, February 14, 2010
346 - NIMSET Orthopaedics MS 2010 paper - part 5
7q: Identify the following ?
a. Optic atrophy
b. Myelinated retinal fibers
c. ????????
d. Drusen
*The below image is what drusen looks like :
*Drusen (singular, "druse") are tiny yellow or white accumulations of extracellular material that build up in Bruch's membrane of the eye. The presence of a few small ("hard") drusen is normal with advancing age, and most people over 40 have some hard drusen. However, the presence of larger and more numerous drusen in the macula is a common early sign of age-related macular degeneration (AMD).
a. Optic atrophy
b. Myelinated retinal fibers
c. ????????
d. Drusen
*The below image is what drusen looks like :
*Drusen (singular, "druse") are tiny yellow or white accumulations of extracellular material that build up in Bruch's membrane of the eye. The presence of a few small ("hard") drusen is normal with advancing age, and most people over 40 have some hard drusen. However, the presence of larger and more numerous drusen in the macula is a common early sign of age-related macular degeneration (AMD).
345 - NIMSET Orthopaedics MS 2010 paper - part 4
4q: Which of the following is the the predominant ketonebody in Diabetic ketoacidosis ?
a. Acetone
b. Acetoacetate
c. Beta hydroxy butyrate
d. ???????
5q: Which of the following orthosis is used in perthes disease ?
a. HKFAO
b. Scottish rite orthosis
c. Diffuse flexion hyperextension orthosis
d. Von rosen splint
*Below is a picture of how a scottish rite orthosis looks like :
6q: What is the condition of the gall bladder in death due to starvation ?
a. Distended with inspisated bile
b. empty
c. atrophied
d. ????????
a. Acetone
b. Acetoacetate
c. Beta hydroxy butyrate
d. ???????
5q: Which of the following orthosis is used in perthes disease ?
a. HKFAO
b. Scottish rite orthosis
c. Diffuse flexion hyperextension orthosis
d. Von rosen splint
*Below is a picture of how a scottish rite orthosis looks like :
6q: What is the condition of the gall bladder in death due to starvation ?
a. Distended with inspisated bile
b. empty
c. atrophied
d. ????????
344 - NIMSET Orthopaedics MS 2010 paper - part 3
3q: Observe the figure below :
What is the angle shown in the figure above ?
a. Cobb's angle
b. Bohler's angle
c. ????????
d. ????????
*For more information on Cobb's angle go to this page:
What is the angle shown in the figure above ?
a. Cobb's angle
b. Bohler's angle
c. ????????
d. ????????
*For more information on Cobb's angle go to this page:
343 - NIMSET Orthopaedics MS 2010 paper - part 2
2q: Look at the figure below:
What does line 1 and line 2 stand for respectively ?
a. airway pressure and alveolar pressure
b. airway pressure and pleural pressure
c. alveolar pressure and airway pressure
d. airway open pressure and pleural pressure
*The above figure is the original figure from which the question was prepared. So line 1 stands for airway pressure and line 2 stands for alveolar pressure.
What does line 1 and line 2 stand for respectively ?
a. airway pressure and alveolar pressure
b. airway pressure and pleural pressure
c. alveolar pressure and airway pressure
d. airway open pressure and pleural pressure
*The above figure is the original figure from which the question was prepared. So line 1 stands for airway pressure and line 2 stands for alveolar pressure.
342 - NIMSET Orthopaedics MS 2010 paper - part 1
1q: Identify the following :
a. Type I odontoid fracture
b. Type II odontoid fracture
c. Type III odontoid fracture
d. Jefferson's fracture
Explanation:
*The above shown figure is a type of C2 vertebral fracture, also called Odontoid fracture. These are of 3 types as shown in the figure below:
THE ABOVE FIGURE SHOWS TYPES OF ODONTOID FRACTURES (C2 vertebra).
a. Type I odontoid fracture
b. Type II odontoid fracture
c. Type III odontoid fracture
d. Jefferson's fracture
Explanation:
*The above shown figure is a type of C2 vertebral fracture, also called Odontoid fracture. These are of 3 types as shown in the figure below:
THE ABOVE FIGURE SHOWS TYPES OF ODONTOID FRACTURES (C2 vertebra).
Monday, February 1, 2010
341 - Comedk 2010 Mcqs with answers - part 2
11q: The pH of the freshly collected blood in CPD solution bag is
a. 7.1
b. 7.3
c. 7.4
d. 7.6
12q: Which one of the following is not a feature of autosomal recessive disorder ?
a. Wide variation in phenotype within a family
b. Males and females are equally affected
c. Parents of an affected child are heterozygous varriers
d. Display horizontal pattern in pedigrees
13q: The rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines is catalyzed by
a. Tyrosine hydroxylase
b. Dopa decarboxylase
c. Dopamine beta hydroxylase
d. COMT
14q: The most important prognostic factor of carcinoma breast is
a. Tumor size
b. DNA content of tumor
c. Histologic subtype
d. Tumor grade
15q: Smoke stack or ink blot appearance in fundus fluorescein angiography is seen in
a. Central serous retinopathy
b. Acute retinal necrosis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Sickle cell retinopathy
16q: PGF2alpha acts predominantly on the
a. myometrium
b. cervix
c. ovary
d. pituitary
17q: In a healthy adult scheduled for an elective operation, solid food should be withheld for at least _______ hours before surgery
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight
18q: The normal plasma osmolality (mOsm/kg) is
a. 240-255
b. 260-275
c. 285-295
d. 300-312
19q: Hematospermia is due to
a. Damage to blood-testis barrier
b. Testicular malignancy
c. Infection of testis
d. Infection of urethra
20q: Which among the following anti-HIV drugs is also used to treat viral Hepatitis-B ?
a. Enfuvirtide
b. Lamivudine
c. Efavirenz
d. Ritonavir
a. 7.1
b. 7.3
c. 7.4
d. 7.6
12q: Which one of the following is not a feature of autosomal recessive disorder ?
a. Wide variation in phenotype within a family
b. Males and females are equally affected
c. Parents of an affected child are heterozygous varriers
d. Display horizontal pattern in pedigrees
13q: The rate limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines is catalyzed by
a. Tyrosine hydroxylase
b. Dopa decarboxylase
c. Dopamine beta hydroxylase
d. COMT
14q: The most important prognostic factor of carcinoma breast is
a. Tumor size
b. DNA content of tumor
c. Histologic subtype
d. Tumor grade
15q: Smoke stack or ink blot appearance in fundus fluorescein angiography is seen in
a. Central serous retinopathy
b. Acute retinal necrosis
c. Sarcoidosis
d. Sickle cell retinopathy
16q: PGF2alpha acts predominantly on the
a. myometrium
b. cervix
c. ovary
d. pituitary
17q: In a healthy adult scheduled for an elective operation, solid food should be withheld for at least _______ hours before surgery
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight
18q: The normal plasma osmolality (mOsm/kg) is
a. 240-255
b. 260-275
c. 285-295
d. 300-312
19q: Hematospermia is due to
a. Damage to blood-testis barrier
b. Testicular malignancy
c. Infection of testis
d. Infection of urethra
20q: Which among the following anti-HIV drugs is also used to treat viral Hepatitis-B ?
a. Enfuvirtide
b. Lamivudine
c. Efavirenz
d. Ritonavir
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